#Proof of a convergent sequence
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For the tip you may start with:
$\(a-b) \cdot (a^{n-1} + a^{n-2}b + a{n-3}b^2 + ... + ab^{n-2} + b^{n-1})\$
If you multiply the whole thing by a and then by -b and then sort it, you will notice that everything cancels nicely out.
adonhs
I am currently thinking about this too
Suppose if
$\ \lim_{i\to\infty} \sqrt[n]{a_i} = \sqrt[n]{\lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i}}
\Rightarrow \lim_{i\to\infty} \sqrt[n]{a_i} - \sqrt[n]{ \lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i} } = 0$
adonhs
And maybe we can use the identity now?
Rewrite it as:
$\ \lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i)^{\frac{1}{n}} - (\lim_{i\to\infty} \ {a_i})^{\frac{1}{n}} = 0$
adonhs
finally
No I just moved it to left side
And maybe you can show with this that the stuff inside the right parentheses equals to 0 maybe..
Write the following maybe as:
$\ (\lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i) - (\lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i})) \cdot \(\lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i)^{\frac{1}{n} - 1} + \lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i)^{\frac{1}{n} - 2} \cdot (\lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i})+\lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i)^{\frac{1}{n} - 3} \cdot (\lim_{i\to\infty} \ {a_i})^2 + ... + \lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i) \cdot (\lim_{i\to\infty} \ {a_i})^{\frac{1}{n} - 2} + (\lim_{i\to\infty}{a_i})^{\frac{1}{n} - 1})= 0$
Infinity
Is
$\ \lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i)^{\frac{1}{n}}\$
the same as
$\ (a_i)^{(\frac{1}{n})}\$
?
adonhs
is this the question?
adonhs
$\
\Rightarrow (\lim_{i\to\infty} (ai)^{\frac{1}{n} - 1} + \lim_{i\to\infty} (ai)^{\frac{1}{n} - 2} \cdot (\lim_{i\to\infty} {ai})+\lim_{i\to\infty} (ai)^{\frac{1}{n} - 3} \cdot (\lim_{i\to\infty} \ {ai})^2 + ... + \lim_{i\to\infty} (ai) \cdot (\lim_{i\to\infty} \ {ai})^{\frac{1}{n} - 2} + (\lim_{i\to\infty}{a_i})^{\frac{1}{n} - 1})= 0$
adonhs
How can I answer this questions I mean, in the second term you left the lim i-> inf out so to me it's like nothing saying
We know that $a_i$ is for all i convergent
adonhs
wait
Look at that equation
we have two products
If we consider this product:
$\ \lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i) - (\lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i}) = 0\$
question to you, is it true?
adonhs
The whole idea again:
$\$
Suppose if
$\ \lim_{i\to\infty} \sqrt[n]{a_i} = \sqrt[n]{\lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i}}
\Rightarrow \lim_{i\to\infty} \sqrt[n]{a_i} - \sqrt[n]{ \lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i} } = 0\$
Rewrite it as
$\ \lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i)^{\frac{1}{n}} - (\lim_{i\to\infty} \ {a_i})^{\frac{1}{n}} = 0\$
Use the identity
$\ (\lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i) - (\lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i})) \cdot ( ... ) = 0\$
Now we use the zero product property
$\ \lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i) - (\lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i}) = 0
\Rightarrow \lim_{i\to\infty} (ai) = (\lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i})$ ... which is true
adonhs
Say we have x² - x = 0
Then we can do $\x \cdot (x-1) = 0\$
This equation has two products.
The zero product property says if at least one product is 0 then the whole thing of products becomes 0.
adonhs
So by using the identity we are again left we two products in the identity.
If we take a look at the first product
$\ (\lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i) - (\lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i})) = 0$
adonhs
And the transform into
$\Rightarrow \lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i) = (\lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i})$
adonhs
This limit is true they are the same
Let's begin from there
The whole idea again:
$\$
Suppose if
$\ \lim_{i\to\infty} \sqrt[n]{a_i} = \sqrt[n]{\lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i}}
\Rightarrow \lim_{i\to\infty} \sqrt[n]{a_i} - \sqrt[n]{ \lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i} } = 0\$
Rewrite it as
$\ \lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i)^{\frac{1}{n}} - (\lim_{i\to\infty} \ {a_i})^{\frac{1}{n}} = 0\$
Use the identity
$\ (\lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i) - (\lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i})) \cdot ( ... ) = 0\$
Now we use the zero product property
$\ \lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i) - (\lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i}) = 0
\ \Rightarrow \lim_{i\to\infty} (ai) = (\lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i})$ ... which is true
adonhs
We can transform our previous assumption and try to prove that
Now we can use the identity that we just have proven before.
(...) it this long and messy stuff that I tried to write 1000 times
It's this
But apparently we don't need it anyway
ok wait
$\ \lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i) = (\lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i})$
\Rightarrow \lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i) - (\lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i}) = 0\$
Do you agree?
adonhs
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Because since $a_i$ is convergent this statement is true.
adonhs
for all i
You gotta understand this step
Ok now take a look at the identity, we have:
$\ (\lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i) - (\lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i})) \cdot ( ... ) = 0\$
adonhs
I wrote (...) which I refer to this long mess
Can you follow?
Ok you know now that
$\\lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i) - (\lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i}) = 0\$
adonhs
So what happens to this identity equation
If you substitude
Didn't I?
The whole idea again:
$\$
Suppose if
$\ \lim_{i\to\infty} \sqrt[n]{a_i} = \sqrt[n]{\lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i}}
\Rightarrow \lim_{i\to\infty} \sqrt[n]{a_i} - \sqrt[n]{ \lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i} } = 0\$
Rewrite it as and try to prove this since it's equivalent to the previous transformation
$\ \lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i)^{\frac{1}{n}} - (\lim_{i\to\infty} \ {a_i})^{\frac{1}{n}} = 0\$
Use the identity
$\ (\lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i) - (\lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i})) \cdot ( ... ) = 0\$
adonhs
And
$\ (...) = (\lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i)^{\frac{1}{n} - 1} + \lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i)^{\frac{1}{n} - 2} \cdot (\lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i})+\lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i)^{\frac{1}{n} - 3} \cdot (\lim_{i\to\infty} \ {a_i})^2 + ... + \lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i) \cdot (\lim_{i\to\infty} \ {a_i})^{\frac{1}{n} - 2} + (\lim_{i\to\infty}{a_i})^{\frac{1}{n} - 1})\$
which is pretty long and confusing, but I claim we don't need it anyway.
adonhs
If we prove that the identity equation equals 0
$\ (\lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i) - (\lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i})) \cdot ( ... ) = 0\$
Then by using the identity, we showed that the assumptions is true
adonhs
We know $a_i$ is convergent ∀ i ∈ $\mathbb{N}$
$
\ \lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i) - (\lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i}) = 0 \
\ \Leftrightarrow \lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i) = (\lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i}) \
\ \Leftrightarrow (\lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i) - (\lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i})) \cdot ( ... ) = 0$ ...Identity \
$ \Leftrightarrow \lim_{i\to\infty} (a_i)^{\frac{1}{n}} - (\lim_{i\to\infty} \ {a_i})^{\frac{1}{n}} = 0 \
\ \Leftrightarrow \lim_{i\to\infty} \sqrt[n]{a_i} - \sqrt[n]{ \lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i} } = 0 \
\ \Leftrightarrow \lim_{i\to\infty} \sqrt[n]{a_i} = \sqrt[n]{\lim_{i\to\infty} {a_i}}\$
adonhs
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Ok now I think it should be understandable, this was my idea/approach the whole time, how to make use of the identity. So i am only 90 % sure that this solid
Does it at least make sense?
Like if the 1 product equals to zero then 0 $\cdot$ anything = 0 and then further of that we can conclude the previous statement should also be equal to zero and if they are equal to zero then the limit should be the same
adonhs
Yeah so we can ignore the second product since the first is already fulfilling the role of being 0.
And it's zero (step 2) because in step (1) we say that the limits of those two are equal which they are if you read the task
Actually I should have not use equivalence arrows but still if you read the proof from below to the top it should make sense
Because reading it from the top to below isn't necessarily the cae
@nova sable Ok I just got confirmation that the identity only holds for positive integers
So we cannot yet use the identity instantly because instead of ${a_i}^n$ we got ${a_i}^{\frac{1}{n}}$
adonhs
This also why in the task it's says after proving the identity to apply it somehow to ${a_i}^{\frac{1}{n}}$ and ${a}^{\frac{1}{n}}$
adonhs
I think there is a way by defining:
$\a \coloneqq \sqrt[n]{a_i}$ and $b \coloneqq \sqrt[n]{\lim_{i\to\infty} a_i}\$
And then consider $a^n - b^n = 0\$
You will then have to use the identity, transform the equation and then use the limit operator on both sides and make a conclusion or so...