#Derivatives and values
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Try using limit definitions
hmm if my work is correct then f ends up being a trivial function for condition 3 to be the case 
I tried that yeah, but could you maybe explain a bit more?
I’ve been using limit -> 0 and squeeze theorem, but still can’t quite figure it out
For question 2)
We can first start by attempting to evaluate (f(0+h)-f(0))/h and try to see if this limit exists as h goes to zero
(h^2 sin(A/h)-B)/h
= h sin(A/h) - B/h
Wouldn’t that end up being 0?
Oh wait, the sin diverges
Unless...
Yeah, I should know this, but I don’t lol…
Does B/h always diverge ?
Doesn’t have to, I guess as we need to find an answer
Does 0/h diverge ?
Yes
I mean it would always be 0 or undefined right, 1/x diverges as well
Or am I just totally clueless rn?
I mean 1/x diverges as well, so I therefore thought that 0/x would too
0/h doesn't diverge, for limits you only look at the punctured neighborhood around a
I. E. In this instance assume 0 <|h|
So the limit is just 0
Wait, so both values are 0?
Because this means both limits go to 0, don’t A and B then have to be 0?
For part 3 yeah p much 
part 2 I think A can be the value you found for A in part 1. Which might also be 0 if B is 0 i haven't checked
In part 1 I found that A can be any real number, meaning that will also apply to this case then. B = 0, judging from the limits
So A is any real number and B = 0?
mhm
Cool, but why did you say that for 3 both are equal to 0?
uhh well when you take the derivative around x \neq 0, you'll see that the only way the limit as x goes to 0 can even exist is if A = 0. If I did the math right, which I might've not 🤷♂️
I see, well I’ll first make sure I get part 2 done correctly
So, because the limit of the first term is 0 and the second too, A can be any real number as that doesn’t matter, while B end up being 0 as well
mhm
Lol, the same solution 3 times in a row just can’t be right
I think for 3 A can be any real number as well and B = 0
hm? When I derived I get $2xsin(A/x) + (-1)Ax^2/x^2cos(A/x)= 2xsin(A/x) - Acos(A/x)
Then the limit for continuity can only exist if A =0 cus of the cos(A/x) term
When I tried the derivative I got 2xsin(A/X) -Acos(A/x)
Maybe something’s wrong with my derivative though
Oops I forgot to include the A but we got the same thing
So yeh cos(A/x) is gonna oscillate at a higher and higher frequency as x goes to 0, i. E. There won't be a limit unless A = 0
Okay, so the derivative is 2xsin(A/x) - Acos(A/x) right?
The limit of the first term = 0, and for the second A = 0, because otherwise there won’t be a limit?
Ye
How should I phrase that properly lol?
Because I understand in my head what you’re saying, but can’t quite put it into word
But to prove continuity can’t I also just use left and right limit?
well you could write out what f'(x) is first
left and right limits don't exist either unless A = 0,still have infinite oscillation going on
Well I guess that's the part that's hard to write precisely
Yeah I can write that lim x -> 0 of 2xsin(a/x) = 0, but not sure about the second term
I guess you could say let (a_n = A/(pi*n)) for A \neq 0, which tends towards 0. If f'(x) were continuous, then the limit of cos(A/a_n) = cos(pi*n) would exist as n goes to infinity. However, cos(pi*n) oscillates between 1 and - 1 as n goes to infinity
But how would that imply A = 0?
Like can’t I just write something without that sequence? As in to define a limit for this function A = 0? Otherwise it doesn’t exist because of oscillation
A = 0 reduces it to cos(0)
Which is 1, but isn’t that what you said before? Like A needs to be 0 such that a limit can exist
yeah ur also multiplying by A = 0 so that makes the whole limit equal 0 as x->0, hence continuous if B=0
Yeah so can’t I write it out like that or do you have a different way to go about it?
idk I was just proving why it oscillates
if u don't have to justify that then ur good
Yeah I don’t have to prove why it oscillates, so then I can just write A = 0?
sure
Cool, thank you so much for your help! I finally solved them, thanks to your help
mhm
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