#lim x-> 0 in a derivative? Why?

37 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)

tacit badger
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Here, the textbook says that we want to consider the rate of change over smaller and smaller intervals. This makes sense. However, I'm confused why we want x2 to aproach x1. I understand why we would want the change in x to approach 0, but if we let x2 aproach x1, isn't that finding the negative inverse of the slope? Like, aren't we going backwards?

quiet sunBOT
tacit badger
carmine prism
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Its the same notation just more confusing

tacit badger
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I saw this, and it makes a bit more sense, but won't the limit of a just be a

carmine prism
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Its the same as this

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Just expressed differently

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x - a = h

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And fx - fa = fx+h - fx

tacit badger
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that makes more sense to me

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so are we approaching f(x)?

bold grail
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not really. We are approaching the change of f(x) when we move away from x but very subtle moving away.

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"Approaching" also sounds weird, because it's literally the change at x

tacit badger
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ohh, so h is the change in x?

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okay that makes some more sense

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how would we use either equation to solve this if there exists no point?

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do I just use the starting point

tacit badger
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does this mean there exist no slope at the origin point?

bold grail
# tacit badger

I have no idea what you are doing or what some of those signs mean

tacit badger
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and then I plugged in 0 for f(a) since f(a) returns zero at the orgin

bold grail
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but why do you do that.

tacit badger
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I'm not sure how else to aproach it

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what do you recommend?

tacit badger
bold grail
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you don't need any point

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I am too lazy to explain it and im in a hurry

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can I send you the answer

tacit badger
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but feel free and no worries

bold grail
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you understand it?

tacit badger
tacit badger
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.close