Hello, I've read this: https://math.mit.edu/~djk/18_022/chapter03/section03.html
Specifically the part: "The gradient vector points normal to the tangent plane of f in two dimensions, and normal to the tangent hyperplane in higher dimensions."
I thought the gradient vector is ON the tangent hyperplane to the function (at some point) not normal to it? So in real valued functions the derivative represents the slope $m$ of a line on the tangent line and $-1/m$ is the normal line, not the other way around which is what this statement says. Unless I'm misunderstanding it, is it wrong?
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