#I NEED HELP
80 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
How so?
Can you divide 64 by 2?
so 64 = 32*2
Now the same for 32
Can you divide it by 2?
Do you see where I'm going? @languid ember
Yes
yep
yes
Would that be -16?
Nope
so, you could write it as a^-1
Is that the answer?
we have 4^-2
Yes
can you write it as a fraction?
Over 1 ?
yes
No
No they usually throw in questions like this and I never understand
Especially on non calc papers
oooh okay, that's weird
but as you can see on the photo a^-m = 1/a^m
Can you apply that to our problem?
4^-2
yes
Ah
so we get 4^-2 = 1/4² = 1/16
How
How is it all equal to 1/16
$64 = 4^3$ so $(64)^{-\frac{2}{3}} = \left( 4^3 \right)^ {-\frac{2}{3}}$ so we get $4^{-2}$ by cancelling the 3's out
Yes
zlik
So that explains why it's equal to 1/16
Oh, it's applying a property of exponents
?
Maybe you should do some reading about exponents
Alr
I think that might help
Hey @echo fjord , could you help me next?
Be aware with what you're doing right now. It could lead to a ban. Don't ask your own questions in other people's post
If you make a post I can help you
K