#stupid question
102 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
No it should be 0 because 1^2 is a constant
You should remember that is done with respect to a specific variable
So when youre differentiating with x then youre looking for terms containing x
Do you know partial derivative ? @grand sparrow
Terms not containing x is a constant respect to x and becomes zero
What im explaining also applies to partial derivation yes
For partial derivation i have a question but i dont know how to say the fancy math words in english@grand sparrow
Hmm
Im gonna try to say it anyway
So if gradient vector is (1 and -1 )
That mean i should replace x with 1 and y with -1 ?
For a partial derivation of 3y-2x^(3)y
Is this a directional derivative question?
To find the gradient vector of a function we need to use partial derivation right?
Yes
So we should use the nabla thing
Or are we finding a point in the field where the gradient is (1, -1)
Yeah i think
Ok then
So like i just need to replace x with 1 and y with -1?
gradient function of the given scalar field 3y-2(x^3)y is (its partial derivative wrt x, its partial derivative wrt y)
no
so you have to find the case where the x partial derivative of the given function is 1 and the y partial derivative of the given function is -1
so it's going to be in the form of a system of equations
How?
do you have a specific part you have trouble with
or should i guide you through the solution
So for the example i did partial derivation for y ( i only derivate y) and replace y with -1 and i found the answer is this not how you do it?
∂f(x,y)/∂y = 3-2x^3
uhh no?
Sorry i meant i replaced x with 1
and the partial derivative of the function wrt x should be equal to 1
Wdym by wrt?
so -6(x^2)y = 1
with respect to
Oooooh
Right
Idk why my wrong method gave the right result
@grand sparrow what did i do wrong?
subtract 3 not add three i belive
3+(-2x^3)=-1
(-2x^3)=-1-3
then you can *-1 on both sides
2x^3=4
divide by two
x^3=2
and then take to the power of one third
Oh right
x=2^(1/3)
True
Why
so that they are both positive
i guess you can divide by -2 too (to skip the step after)
what do you mean you are supposed to find 1, the solution is 2^(1/3)
Whats that?
the solution
Of the gradient vector at the coordonate (1; -1) ?
no
when the gradient vector is (1, -1)
that's how i interpreted your question anyway
Oh wait is that not the same thing
if you want to find the gradient vector at the coordinate (1, -1) then as you said you can just put it in the gradient function
which is (-6(x^2)y, 3-2x^3)
you said "So if gradient vector is (1 and -1 ) " so i interpreted your question as the former
Yeah sorry about that
So for (-6(x^2)y i transform it into -6(x^2) *-1 ?@grand sparrow
Wait
yeah and also put 1 in x
-6(1^2) *-1
yep that's right
Which is 6
Okay thank you i get it
Thanks for helping me and spending ur time
Appreciate it a lot
np\
.solved
it is definately zero because the power rule holds true when f(x) = x^n not some constant to the power of n
op's question was solved, but since the channel hasn't been closed and people might still be reading it, here's a fun "proof" of 0=1 you can use to sanity check questions like if d/dx ( 1^2 ) equals 2
let x = 1
take derivative of both sides: d/dx (x) = 1, d/dx (1) = 0
and since x = 1, and therefore also d/dx (x) = d/dx (1), we conclude that 1 = 0
;3
LOL
$\dv{1} 1^2$
DerpZ
oh that is cursed
No because 1 ^2 =1 and if f(X)=1
f'(X)=0 derivative is 0 because the gradient at all points of a line y=1 is 0 so it doesn't make sense pls someone correct me if I'm wrong
.solved