#help-43
1 messages · Page 70 of 1
uhh idk
i already spoiled the hard part
oops ig
(1/6)(5/6) + (5/6)(1/6) is how often you get one 3, do you see why?
i fucking hate probability
no i geniuenly dont im sorry
1/6 yes bcs
wait yes what
theres 1 3 in 6
wait no what
because we add up mutually exclusive cases
but why 5/6
because we don;t want to roll 3 again
aren't there two orders, (3, not 3) or (not 3, 3)
uhh am i stupid how does that get that
wait
for x = 1 wouldnt that be like 10/36
because you multiply by 2 and not 1/6
uh
yeah?
ok wait
@tired willowwe both get 10/36
yo i do not understand wtf happened in the solution
let $X$ = number of times a 3 appears in 2 rolls
each roll is independent (doesn't depend on previous outcomes, basically):
$P(3)=\frac{1}{6}, \quad P(\text{not }3)=\frac{5}{6}$
esker
i hope atleast that is clear
why is the chance to get 3 in both throws 1/36
because 1/6 for first roll's 3, and 1/6 for second roll's 3 and we're supposed to get the case where its SIMULTANEOUS, not individual
wait that makes sense
so we multiply
mb
yuh
nono
1/6
omg
can u now try computing the probabilities for possible values of $X$: $X=0,1,2$
esker
and x is just the number of 3s in 2 rolls, remember
just replace x in your head with that phrase and it shouldnt be that hard
5/6, 5/6
1/6,5/6
1/6,1/6
no twin
the stake isnt subtracted from the payouts in the table
the payouts 0, 5, x are the amounts you receive depending on X = number of 3s in 2 rolls
dont confuse small x with capital X lol mb
not quite u cant just multiply i think
because the cases dont happen equally often
remember
X = 1 happens with a diff probability than X = 2 or X = 0
we dont scale payouts directly in such cases
we use expected value
this is the reason we first calculated the probability for each case and now we use the expected value for each case and set it equal to our stake
the expected value is 2 which is our stake
$E = 0\cdot P(X=0) + 5\cdot P(X=1) + x\cdot P(X=2)$
esker
yes
is that somewhat more understandable?
expected value is 2
yeah ngl i dont get it sorry
remember this is because theres a long run balance condition
why do we do 10/36 times 5
we're just getting average win
why times 5 tho why 5
so the situation is:
you roll a die twice
you count how many 3s you get
that number is $X$
so $X$ can be:
$0, 1, 2$
and the payouts are:
$X=0 \to 0$ euros
$X=1 \to 5$ euros
$X=2 \to x$ euros
i think u understand the question upto this part, which is good and u also calculated the probabilities for each possibility of X
esker
“long run” means if you play this game like 10,000 times, you don’t care about single games anymore
you care about the average money per game
like frowny said
hm okay
yo oh my god
yeah, so that average value is called the expected value
just fancier term
if i get 5 euros for one 3 rolled
our goal is average win equals 2, because it costs 2 to play
then i get fucking 10 for two 3s rolled
yess twin but one 3 rolled doesn't happen all the time too
the hardest part is what i said
and also the other two cases
the rest makes sense
you get x
you need to set x to somerthing
maybe 10 is correct
maybe you need to make it less or more
why
if X = 2
then two 3s were roled
twin, i think u mean: “1 three gives 5, so 2 threes gives 10”
but that assumes both outcomes are equally likely, which is false
we just found out that each case doesn't happen as often as the other, so we need to accoutn for that too
like X = 1 happens a lot more times than X = 2 so you might end up getting 5 euros more than 10 euros
the thing is, payouts dont SCALE linearly with the number of 3s
they scale with the probability factor
yeah i mean
it could be
but
like
in this case if u solve for x u get 22
which is way off
so its best to assume you dont
ping me if you want, can't imagine why lol

ohhhhhhhohhhh
ohhhhhhhhhhh
ohhhhhhhhhh
nah ngl i dont understand this
oof
what part do u think is very iffy or weird
times 5? where? u mean in the payout?
it's just average win
$5\cdot P(X=1)$
esker
you should know "expected value" for irl purposes lol
i just got confused
yuh
no i got it
fact check status true
like
aight
expected value
yea
but yk
the thing is in probability
you can’t prepare yourself
there could be so much variation
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Help me solve 11 th q
Uhh its cropped out
There is no 11th question in your picture
also, we dont solve it for you, we guide you to the answer! what have you tried and where are you stuck on?
,rccw
,rccw
Holy image quality
I have no idea how to start
try constructing a triangle where the sum of two sides is indeed not bigger than the third, which is its smaller or equal to it
can u notice what happens to the angle opposite to the third side which is fixed?
or you can even fix the two sides and try drawing a third side smaller than the sum of those two
But Don don't i need to prove bigger ?
yes, but if we're able to prove that a smaller or equal one can't exist, the opposite is automatically true
if the sum can't be smaller or equal to the third side, it must be greater
What abt this method ?
yuh this is legit
,rcw
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how do I subtract n1(M)-n0(M)? And find minimum
Both matrices are invertible
Total 2^25-1 invertible matrices
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Can someone help with 7 I know we will be using a Taylor approximatation and I can bound the error but then we have an arbitrary n for our sum
How would I show it for all those n? Would I have to use induction?
ah wait you dont even need to use induction or prove for an arbitrary n
applying the taylor series you get an alternating series yes
so all you need to do is use the alternating series estimation theorem which states that the value will always be trapped between any two consecutive partial sums
@ornate sable Has your question been resolved?
I don't know the alternating series estimation
Is there no other way without it?
This calculus 2 video tutorial provides a basic introduction into the alternate series estimation theorem also known as the alternate series remainder. It explains how to estimate the sum of the infinite series correct to three decimals places by calculating the number of terms needed by using the remainder estimate theorem.
Final Exam and T...
well, i doubt it
ah, wait, hold on there is an algebraic method
?
the top expression is obtained thru polynomial long division
for the bottom, since the expression is strictly positive, and youre integrating from 0 to 1/2 which is also positive, that term is also positive (lower bound)
and since 1+x^4 will be always larger than 1, we can find the upper bound of the bottom term by x^16/(1+x^4) < x^16
so you can bound the integral below, evaluate the integral above, and see if it therefore fulfils the question
Isn't that the error?. Also your Taylor polynomial has three terms. But how can that help if we want for n terms
but why might you want it for n terms?
and yes, it is the error
Because the function is equal to $\sum_{k=0}^n(-1)^k x^{4k} +E_{4n}(x)$. But we can just choose the n since that proves it for only one n
BigBen
hold on, like, $\frac{1}{1+x^4} = \sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k x^{4k} + E_{4n}(x)$ is a universally true identity which is true for all n though
wjs
Ye so then we intergate both sides and want to show that our right side is in the bounds of question 7. But how can I compute the sum if it an arbitrary n.
which is why the question gives us the liberty to choose an n and not an arbitrary n lol
(and any reasonable question would give us such liberty)
Ye but how can you know which is n is the right choice
pick one that is small enough such that you dont have to compute insane number of fractions
and pick one that is boundable
No but why is that valid. Are you just saying that they will all be the same since lowering the n will increase the error proportionally
So could I not just choose n=1
how would you bound in that case
Bound what?
what changes with n is our window of uncertainty and the more n is the lesser this uncertainty window is so yes i guess sorta?
im confused
lets say you did the taylors expansion on this but used the first term and the remainder term right
$\sum_{k=0}^1 (-1)^kx^{4k} +E_1(x)$
if you pick too small the bounds of your remainder term might be too large such that when you have the bound for the actual integral itself, then
BigBen
you might not be able to prove it
What's the issue with the error term being bigger? It is simply because our approximatation is worse but either they will add up to the function
theres nothing wrong with the error term bigger you just must make sure it fulfils the question's bound thingy
like the problem with n = 1 and n = 2 is that you cannot bound them properly such that you prove the question
like in the case of this you would have 1/(1+x) ~ 1 right and thats no way to prove the question's statement
so i guess when approaching this question it's really just find the target error and make sure your integral gets bounded, try to not use an n that is too large or else the resulting fraction would be too annoying to evaluate
Ye so I'm confused about why
No matter what n we choose the Taylor polynomial plus the error will be the same
Then if we integrate them it should be the same no matter what n
yes but the problem is we dont know what the integral of the error term is specifically
our best shot is to bound the error term and integrate the upper and lower bounds
But I tried on desmos and that doesn't hold. What is wrong with my reasoning?
so that we get
a < integral of non-error terms + lower bound of the integral of error term, integral of non-error terms + upper bound of the integral of error term < b
wdym
But isn't the integral of (a+b) = integral (a)+integral (b)
yeah
Ok so f(x)= Taylor polynomial plus error
but we dont know the integral of the error term so our best shot is to bound it is what ive been trying to say 😭
yes
So no matter what n we have this sum is the same
we dont know (conventionally) how to integral x^16/(1+x^4)
But what I'm saying is if the sum never changes. The the integral can never change
yes, agree, if we pick n = 1 however, we will get an error term we dont know how to integrate
and if we bound this n = 1 error term, we would not meet the condition of
a < integral of non-error terms + lower bound of the integral of error term, integral of non-error terms + upper bound of the integral of error term < b
so you must pick an n that is reasonable to compute and meets this target error
Soemthing is wrong we this since it doesn't hold up when I have tried different n
? The highest degree in the polynomial would be 20
huh?
so therefore the remainder term must jump up to 24 no?
every single term in this specific series jumps by a power of 4 not by a power of 1
Besides the first term they are all multiplies of 4
like if
$$\frac{1}{1+u} = 1 - u + u^2 - u^3 + u^4 - u^5 + \frac{u^6}{1+u}$$
sub u = x^4
$$\frac{1}{1+x^4} = (1 - x^4 + x^8 - x^{12} + x^{16} - x^{20}) + \frac{x^{24}}{1+x^4}$$
wjs
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so instead of 21 it should be x^24 here
cell 13 is wrong
you have to subtract the remainder
it is an alternating series
Ok so then I just need to find an n where my error is possible to integrate
Or could I just do this
So we see that any n doesn't matter so could I choose an say n=1 to find the bounds of that derivative and then uses the bounds for the error because I don't see can integrate the error
Also there's no issue right for choosing some n? Since it just says it needs to hold for n+1
yes so essentially youd be using lagrange error
Well the all seem to be of 0.493958
but i dont think this would be recommended because like
this is a nightmare
for doing all the derivatives
if n here is the order of the derivative then no i think like realistically you might need much more
I'm not following?
What other way do we have? Im not sure how to integrate it we represent it as one of those fractions
Also is this not an issue? How can it fit in the bound if it is the bound
suppose you pick n = 1, you need to find the maximum bound M of the 2nd derivative on [0, 1/2]
f''(x) according to mathway is $f''(x) = \frac{20x^6 - 12x^2}{(1+x^4)^3}$.
even if you calculate that error perfectly this only proves the integral is less than only proves the integral is less than 0.493967 when the question demands it to be less than 0.493958
wjs
with increasingly large n the derivative gets even more difficult to evaluate and more notorious to compute
??
im really confused
you can use the alternating series estimation theorem, you can use the algebraic trick with n = 4 in taylor's polynomial
These are all 0.493958...
So they all must be the same
And they are all greater than 0.493958
So for the trick your saying that instead fo integrating the term we simply bound them
mhm
So why have it for n=4 though we could do that for any of the errors
because i found it convenient to bound
They are all greater than the upper bound for 7
?
0.493958051077>0.493958 no?
So he's truncating it
Ok then so then let's say the upper bound is ≤0.493958051077
For any error isn't it simply bound by the numerator
For n=4 the error is bound by x^16
the denominator also bounds it too
x^16/(1+x^4) <= x^16
Ye I mean it is always ≤ the numerator
ah, yeah thats right
But either way if we integrate that bound from 0 to 1/2 and then integrate the Taylor polynomial for n= 4 from 0 to 1/2 we break our bound
which means the question had an error
where did the denominator go to here?
also please state what the purpose of a sent image is and what the underlying thought process behind it is since us helpers wont be able to know what youre trying to accomplish
Well we used the upper bound since we can integrate it
right
The purpose of the image was to show that if we integrate this upper bound and the sum that with the intergral of the Taylor polynomial we break the upper bound for the question
but the question is wrong in the first place, like, huh??
why are we flogging a dead horse
we break the upper bound for the question, yes, because the question is in and of itself incorrect
Because supposedly it has a solution but I can't understand it
you shouldve sent this long before..
I didn't want to look at the answer
either ways, this still ignores the fact that this is wrong
His second step seems to be of the form 7.11
the integral in itself is over the bounds
So what of his solution? How did he bound the n+1 derivative?
hold on
do u see the problem
how is 0.493852 < 0.49375 😭
the second line where they define the error bound they divide everything by (n+1)! this only works when you are using the general Taylor formula but in the first line the author chooses to use the geometric expansion which does not have any factorials
so this solution is also wrong
the factorial came out of nowhere
in any case... type .close if done, commiserations for your moral luck in meeting this question
Thanks for trying to help me through the problem
anytime
.close
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“Check the relative position of gk and h depending on k.”
so im kind of confused
in the II equation
do you just pretend that if mü is also -2
Lets check if the lines are parralel first
What condition would they hsve to satisfy
kolinear
the directional vectors
Are you the german guy
and the other vector cant be on the other line
wait ur the german guy?
yes
due
im literally rushing linear algebra rn
Im the one that helped you with the grpahs I and II
Yeah
Allright
Also hier musst du dir die richtungsvektoren anschauen
Ja
Sie müssen Vielfache voneinander sein
Damit die geraden parralel sind
ja genau
aber problem ist
bei der zweiten gleichung tut man also sozusagen einfach so
das mü auch -2 ist?
Nein
weil
k muss -8 sein
nen sorry
ich meine
k muss -4 sein
accsoo
aber k muss ja nicht immer -4 sein
Ja
Korrekt
Ja also nur für k=4 sind sie parallel
-4
Dann müsstest du untersuchen ob die geraden für k=-4 identisch oder echt parallel sind
ja
alsodann einfach k einsetzen
oder ne
Ja
brauch ich nicht mal oder
Doch
kann ich nicht einfach den stützvektor von gk in h einsetzen
Ok ja
und dann sagt mirdas ergebnis ob es identisch oder echt parallelja
Ja
hä und dann
falls k nicht -4 ist
dafür gucke ich dann ob sie dann windschief sind oder ein schnittpunkt haven?
Ja
scheiße okay
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Question: Is there a specific reason why primes leave a gap approx equal to n/ln(n)?
Thats not what that is
Its not the gap between primes it's the total number of primes up to n
pi(n) ~ n/ logn
but even though its not simple, it is something that can be proved. It's not just some guess based on observation
among first n integers, the proportion of prime is approx 1/logn
And if we take the limit as n approaches infinity?
I'm also interested in the assumption of a higher order term that is more efficient and precise than it, if possible.
In mathematics, the prime-counting function is the function counting the number of prime numbers less than or equal to some real number x. It is denoted by π(x) (unrelated to the number π).
A symmetric variant seen sometimes is π0(x), which is equal to π(x) − 1⁄2 if x is exactly a prime number, and equal to π(x) otherwise. That is, the...
you can check the "more precise estimates"
I find it interesting how the error term fluctuates between -8 and +13 in the very early iterations. If I may ask; why that wobble?
Though the information you sent it quite sufficient for deep analysis. Thanks.
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how else would oyu solve the problem
Can’t you use binomial?
sure you can try
sure if you can use a calculator go for it
The makexheme doesn’t accept
My method but I Don’t understand why
no idea what makexheme is
if they don't let you use calculators then that's why you need to use normal approximation
They do that’s the thing my calculator is acceptable
where does it say you can't use binomial?
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Hiya! i have finals comming up in a few weeks, and was woundering if there is some practice i could get a recomendation for? (I am in 9th grade geometery btw)
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<@&268886789983436800>
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7th Problem.
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
My progress:
keep going with this
2nd step
consider how you can factor it
spoiler alert: ||Simon's Favorite Factoring Trick||
Okay
I ddint look.the spoiler
But
Aft that blue shade equn I did the possible factorisation right?
factorisation normally refers to product of stuff
here you're adding two quantities in x,y together
so it's not super helpful (unless I'm missing something)
Hmm so leme think
Imma check out the spoiler
Sfft
see but now you have a $y^2$ term here, so that basically gives you the same "problem" as here
Civil Service Pigeon
ideally you'd want to tack on a constant term instead of something in x and/or y
perhaps it would help if you
,texsp ||rewrote it as $x-xy+y=1$||
Civil Service Pigeon
Hmm
This?
again, same issue.
Hint: ||-(-y)=y||
Woah
Sry man I ain't that good at this manipulation and all but yeh I got.it
good

which question
See pins.
nice
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Hey But I'm getting wrong answer.
rip
!show
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
Bro
wrong picture?
Refer to" let GCD......" Part
well you got x=1 or y=1
Hmm
I'm asking how you got from that to your final answer
So
Leme speak
a=b=d
Got that?
This
See "Let GCD....." Part
$(x-1)(y-1)=0$ does not imply both $x=1$ and $y=1$. In general,
$$pq=0 \implies p=0 \textbf {or } q=0.$$
So you have $x-1=0$ \textbf{or} $y-1=0$. Aka $x=1$ \textbf{or} $y=1$.
Civil Service Pigeon
yeah there's some kinda casework
and see what happens
tbf ||the cases for x=1, y=1 are basically the same up til labeling (why?) so it's not too bad||
but it's just donkey work from here, so imma go now

Hmm bye
Can some1 tell how to make the case
<@&286206848099549185>
How to make cases for x=1 or y=1
@plucky jewel Has your question been resolved?
I mean you already have $1= x+y-xy$, now rewrite it as $x+y-xy-1=0$ and factorize it.
Annie Maqionde
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Suppose that $N = \overline_{a_na_{n-1}...a_0}$ is an $n$ digit number in base 10, for which $N = 2^k$ for some $k$. Show that any other permutation of $N$ with $n$ digits is not a power of 2.
Copter
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how do i do this?
Wait isn't n to 0 n+1 digits?
@hazy obsidian Has your question been resolved?
oh right mb
@hazy obsidian Has your question been resolved?
Can you do modular arithmetic?
This may or may not work, but consider a contradiction, by considering that a number is equal to the sum of its digits modulo 9, and that under the permutation, the sum of digits is invariant
when is $2^m \equiv 2^k \pmod 9$?
Annie Maqionde
I don't think if I remember it right but I think any numbers with base 10 is congruent the sum of its digits in mod 9.
Ah then just test the cycle for 2^k mod 9, perfect.
hmm
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how to do this?
have you tried anything?
im not sure where to start
It is 22√155
I don't think there is a particular approach, it's just calculation I think.
sqrt(a) x sqrt(b)=sqrt(a x b)
don't give the answer out immediately
ill try this
this is not true i believe 
i looked at the answer sheet i think it says 75020 but im not sure how to get there
note also that ab x cd=abcd so 11 x sqrt5 x 2 x sqrt31 = 11x2 x the square roots multiplied
I didn't give the final answer
you basically just did
they don't know how to get there, you were unclear.
Sorry.
Since it's of the form [a×sqrt(b) × c×sqrt(d)]² it just becomes [ac×sqrt(bd)]² which is just a²c²bd
Sqrt(2)*Sqrt(3) = Sqrt(6) . Try that for any two numbers whose product is the third one.
this is apparently the answer
it is shown, could you clarify what you may be confused about?
Yeah since (a×b)^c = a^c × b^c
👍
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What is this exercise asking us to do?
the codomain of the function
How is the interval the function
the function is f though?
Yeah
Also how do I write mathematic proofs because I have to be writing proofs using thereoums which is pretty intimidating for me
Note that e^x>1+x => e^x-1-x>0, now, let f(t)=e^t-1-t and f(t)>0 for t values ranging from 0 to x
Any advice would be appreciated
for 1
don't be intimidated
it's just jargon spam and logic
understanding is key
What are the rules
you can watch a video on it they probably have better analogies and stuff
I never wrote a proof in my life
Maybe if I try and do one
I should get the gist of it
wdym rules? in proof? nothing really, just don't say anything unrelated to what you're proving and don't say anything wrong or would not be a logical step in whatever you're doing
I'm saying this as a person who doesn't really write proofs
sum1 else who smarter than me correct me
-# I just spam hence and therefore
What if ur trying to prove something but your not progressing because your just writing in equivalent forms if that makes sense
most people don't do that for exams
then how do we go about it
how do you know f(t) > 0 for 0 ≤ t ≤ x
the exercise is asking you to show the inequality, nothing more
how would you answer the question if you didn't have to write a "proof" for it
Well x+1 is just a constant line and increases at a constant rate
but e^x increases at a multiplying rate
this only tells you that e^x eventually goes above x + 1
Yea
but something like 2^x is also a multiplying rate, yet it goes under the line x + 1
so the argument doesn't work
It doesn’t?
you can verify that ✓2 < 3/2 algebraically
It is bigger than x+1
(the point is we don't have pictures)
not for all x>0
sure but this is not what is asked
it's still a useful thought
you said e^x > x+1 for all x > 0 because e^x is multiplicative and x+1 is a line, but if that was really the reason, then that would mean that the same applies for 2^x which is also multiplicative
they did not say this
I said something similar but not when x>0
they don't understand what the proof is doing and so they're thinking about the problem on their own to try to motivate the proof
Yep
Or you can just explain me the proof
think about how you might use calculus to detect if there is some t where f(t) < 0
when you work with e^x the only two things you know are its power series and the fact that taking a derivative gives itself
so think about derivatives
the mean value theorem states that if $f$ is continuous on $[a,b]$ and differentiable on $(a,b)$ then there exists some number $c$ in $(a,b)$ such that $$\frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a} = f'(c).$$
melon
the proof is first defining f then stating that it satisfies the hypotheses so we can actually apply the theorem
x is being treated as a real number in the proof, maybe it would make more sense for you to see it as
consider f:[0,a] -> R by f(x) = e^x - 1 - x.
the variable in their function is t and so anything that isn't t is just a constant
i think it's just they haven't really seen the domain codomain notation before
Yeah I did but it really confuses me
let f(x) = e^x - x - 1. the core idea of the proof is that you somehow want to use the intuition that f'(x) > 0 implies f is always increasing
But I havnt seen it being defined on the interval
because you know that f(0) = 0
so firstly why is f'(x) > 0 for all x > 0
this is something you should compute
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I have to find out the slope but don't know how to approach
,rccw
the line has what condition?
is it tangent to the circle? intersects the circle at two points? does not intersect the circle? something else?
it wasnt given in the question
then for all we know this is just a random line though.
the q seems incomplete
it can be any line.
because the point of tangency isnt given
any of the answers can be right.
it possibly can't be a tangent though, but is there any way to solve it
I don't think an incomplete question can be solved.
well what if it was a tangent indeed?
tangent at where?
^^
to the circle given ofc, if only the radius could've been 2 units
yeah i understand that
yes but you need the coords
also the line can basically be anything a diameter, chord, tangent
so the question isnt clear enough
I still stand by my conclusion that this seems inconclusive.
well if the circle was of radius 2 u and then the y intercept is already given as 2, so the tangent could be possible at (0,2)
put simply: your equation can be represented as [
c^2 = 25 \2(1+m^2)
]
As there are two unknowns in the equation, we can not determine a unique value for $m$
i understand that, i was confused too
but that assumes c is also given. and that also assumes that the circle is really tangent to the circle at (0, 2).
isn't c 2?
no.
assuming tangency*
i apologize, really, the c was indeed 2, i couldnt find the exact question so i wrote it down to share
but hang on.
but
the radius of this circle is 5, isn't it?
i dont think this is doable
slope is coming negative
and it's centered at the origin.
which isnt possible
because it violates the tangency
how can the y-intercept be inside the circle?
yeah it would not work
thats the issue, i think the question is wrong, but then i didn't want to assume considering i dont know this topic well enough
@dawn elbow your problem is really badly formulated right now. Do you have a reliable source to confirm what the original question is?
actually I'll just leave it to the two of you, too many people here right now. all the best OP!
Actually no, i was shared this same info by someone else to solve it
and before concluding it wrong, i wanted advice from someone better
the info is incorrect then
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Its the rule when you have a repeated root
Like
,, \41{x(x+1)^3} = \4A{x+1} + \4B{(x+1)^2} + \4C{(x+1)^3}+ \4Dx
As an example
ah okay i see
and here why is the num s+1
shouldn't it be 1
or its been factored out
As a rule, when doing PFD, the resultant dsnominators will be of degree n and the numerators will be of degree n - 1
So if your denominator is linear, like s - 1, which is degree 1, your numerator is gonna be of degree 0
Which is a constant
Likewise, if your denominator is a quadratic, like in your problem, which is degree 2, your numerator is gonna be of degree 1, meaning a linear equation in the form of As - B
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just wondering, since our prof has abandoned us 2 days before the exam ( 😭) the solution for this exam q is convoluted. wondering if someone can check my solution
$R=f(X)\cup{(0,0)}$ is compact iff it is sequentially compact. let $(y_n)_{n=1}^{\infty}$ be a sequence in $R$. note either $y_n=(0,0)$ or $y_n=f(t_n)$ for some $t_n\in X$, so $$d(y_n, (0,0))\leq \sqrt{\left(\frac{\cos(t_n)}{t_n}\right)^2+\left(\frac{\sin(t_n)}{t_n}\right)^2}=\frac{1}{t_n}\leq 1$$
so the sequence is bounded. by bolzano-weierstrass, a convergent subsequence exists, $Y$ is sequentially compact
lyric
@echo merlin Has your question been resolved?
Im a bit confused
BW guarantees that you have a convergent subsequence, but it doesnt necessarily guaantee that the limit point is in R does it
oh good point
For R to be sequentially compact, the lmit of the subsequence must belong to R
So you gotta prove that
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<@&268886789983436800>
guess we are back in scam season after a couple of weeks
the amount of times i saw the same thing its becoming boring
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it stopped?
for a couple of weeks
X.E. on that
the last spike was roughly on the date of this message
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Erm, so you know how we can do tan as a fraction of two trig functions? @pearl elk
-# sorry to interrupt, you mean tanh right
Yep
-# Well, yes, I do, but I'm trying to intuit that response
A similar identity exists w/ hyp. trig. functions
-# oh oh ok, good strategy
-# Alternatively, use the exponential definition of sinh and cosh, because you then just have a quadratic (admittedly hidden but it is still a quadratic)
-# This would could be more helpful because you can more clearly explain why there aren't any solutions, per what the question asks of you
you can write coshx as (e^x+e^-2)/2 and sinhx as (e^2-e^-2)/2
-# em, that -2 is sholud be -x
-# And also that's what I'm alluding to here lol
-# iib has a solution?
yes x my bad
oh right mb
@pearl elk Has your question been resolved?
I did part i
I think it’s there to help u differentiate in ii
(only insofar as to remember the rule, from what I remember
)
I also think you may want to resub u and simplify that? 
Either way, beat me to it and you have the idea 
Maybe differentiate what you have again? 
Hm
or multiply the sqrt(2-x^2) on the other side first /
~~either way either a quotient or product rule
And then. I just show that they’re equal ?
Ohhh i see
Thank you so much everyone
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how do i do part d?
Find a vector that satisfies both conditions
what conditions?
for plan 1 and 2
take a vector from plan 2 for example
whaat condition it must verify to be in plan 1 aswell ?
Think about it like this. If I have two lines, if they share a point, what has to be true about those lines?
Exactly!!
Just wait….
In order for a line on one plane
gotchu
To be on another plane
What do those planes have to do
Yep
I would argue that if the planes intersected (much like our lines example) they would share a line in common
right right
Do you see how these two planes share a line (often called the line of intersection)
yeah i get that
im just trying to think about how we get a vector representation of that line 😭
In 3D, what two things do we need for a line?
well
depends on which representation
you can do it with just a normal
wait
what am i on about
sorry
you need 2 direction vectors
and a point
😭
no
1 point
1 direction vector
im tripping
How do you think we’re gonna find those two things?
The direction vector is just going to be the cross product of your normal vectors
is there a way to do it without the cross product? its not part of our spec 😭
and its one day before the exam
😄
im cooked bro
🥀
You guys didn’t learn how to do the cross product?? Are you sure?
And you don’t need to, lol. I just realized, you can parametrize one plane
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Find the range of values of y = (x^2 - x + 1)/(x^2 + x + 1) if x takes real values.
y is defined at all x as x^2 + x + 1 = 0 has no solution.
wdym ranges of values
like you want us to find like y < 0 or some stuffs like that?
I will help you...
first of all numerator and denominator both are positive
range of the function
Assume the whole equation as y
hm ic
Now cross multiply
yea this is the only method lol
x^2 (y-1) + x(y + 1) + (y-1) = 0
since x takes real values what can you say about the discriminant
Please do like this
Damn
I don't rlly think so
I believe the solution interval of D >= 0 is a subinterval of the range of y.
well yea but easiest then
ig
mb for incorrect phrasing
yeah lol
Hope it helps...
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?
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@old rivet Has your question been resolved?
the inverse of P in K?
So basically the "regular" inverse of the ideal P?
So that P(-1)P = K?
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