#help-43
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11 different equivalence classes
[{}] = {y ∈ P(A) | {} ~ y} ⊂ A
[{}] = {Y ⊂ A | {} ~ Y} ⊂ A
X ~ Y <=> |X| = |Y|, for X,Y ⊂ A
[{}] = {Y ⊂ A | {} ~ Y} ⊂ A
[{}] = {Y ⊂ A | |{}| = |Y|} ⊂ A
[{}] = {Y ⊂ A | 0 = |Y|} ⊂ A
[{}] = {Y ⊂ {1,2,...,10} | 0 = |Y|} ⊂ {1,2,...,10}
[{1}] = {Y ⊂ {1,2,...,10} : 1 = |Y| } ⊂ {1,2,...,10}
I get it I think
@random path
[{1,2}] = {Y ⊂ A : 2 = |Y| } ⊂ A
hello
the problem with writing the set builder for the equivalence class
is that you need to know one representative
whatever I think i got it dude
Alright
Have you ever done modular arithmetic?
It's basically just equivalence classes on Z actually
And you use a representative from each class all the time 
I haven't
but i think I will learn about it in this course
like diofantine equations
Ooo

Like the equivalence classes are based on the relation a ~ b iff n| b- a, where n is any integer greater than 1. Turns out that's an equivalence relation.
It's also the case that you can do arithmetic (addition and multiplication) with the equivalence classes and have it make sense regardless of whichever representatives you use
anyways imma try to sleep but idk how long that'll take. Just saying it in case I don't respond to any pings.
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need help dont know where to start
do you know what vieta’s formulas are
no
Using these, you can write 2 equations from the first quadratic and 2 for the second
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how did they do the green circled bit
how do i do 15/2/3 without calculator
step 0 is to not write 15/2/3 bc nobody can tell wtf that means.
you should say 15/(2/3) here.
(15/2)/3 is not the same thing as 15/(2/3), yeah?
anyway, do you know how to divide fractions in general?
@tender pasture
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. @eager pagoda
nope
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
ok
i thought of like
writing denom at
as
x(1+x^n) and then pfd
but i dont think it will end well
soo
idk
PajamaMamaLlama
therefore (1=A(1+x^n)+B(x)x)
PajamaMamaLlama

okay let me write it

the x^n seemed scary
and i thought well maybe it doesnt works
by idea of pfd
B=0????
im not sure
Bx^2=0
B = 0 right?

,w partial fractions 1/(x * (1+x^5))
what lmao
i don't think it's the right approach since x^5 + 1 has 5 roots
oh I see the fraction bars
and in general x^n+1 has n roots
right
,w simplify 1/x-x^(n-1)/(x^n+1)
i have an idea
it works?
just rearrange for B(x) with A=1
how to do that
i see. this isn't the traditional partial fraction decomposition though.
at least not the one listed here
Probably you would end up having lots of constants being 0
.
like this book has indications for some problems at the end
oh mb didn't see it
we know A=1 so using that, solve for B(x) in terms of x and n
things should turn out nicely
ok
take x^n+1 common
where is x^2 coming form? 
dont think pfd is required tho
B(x)*X

therefore
||1/x(1+x^n) = x^-1/(1+x^n) = x^-n-1/((x^-n)+1) now take denominator = t||
start here again
1=A+Ax^n +Bx^2
no
why
you just copied it wrong
@keen granite
where is the x^2 ?
DMs
is B(x)*x not Bx^2
correct it's not
B(x) is function notation, like f(x). in this case, B(x) is a polynomial in x
ok then 1=A+Ax^n +B(x)*x
1=1+x^n+B(x)*x
x^n+B(x)*x=0
B(x)*x=-x^n
B(x) = -x^n-1?
im fine thanks
yes and it agrees with this here
ok so
it turns on
that
ok i got that
from the picture
1/x +1/x(x^n+1)
first is ln
but second
pfd again??:(
wut
its okay
you started with the bottom.
the top is the result of all that algebra pajama did
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Help
multiply in each fraction the denominator and numerator by the conjugate of the denominator
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the set made out of all the finite subsets of N is countably infinite?, what can i do about it? is the cardinality of this set 2^(Aleph null) or what?
No, its cardinality is ℵ_0
Else it would be uncountable
like usually the cardinality of a power set of a set S is 2^n where n is the cardinality of S
But what you're considering is not the full powerset
but power set includes infinite subsets, whereas here you are considering finite subsets
But actually a "small" section of it
Your set of finite sets is a countable union of countable sets(finite sets in this case)
how do you know the cardinality is aleph null
Countable union of countable sets is countable
(assuming ACC, but I doubt you'll be bothered by this)
🤔 why is it finite sets in this case? there are possibly infinite amount of finite set with fixed cardinality?
or did i just misinterpret
Each finite sequence is finite
yes infinitely many number of finite subsets of N
oh u r referring to the length of the sequence not the number of them
Yeah, the number of sequences is countably infinite
While each sequence is finite
But well, the important thing is
You can construct your wanted set(the set of finite subsets of N) as a countable union of countable sets
why do you mention sequences
Finite subsets of N "behave like sequences", but it's simply a habit, every time I've seen this exercise it mentions sequences, give it no mind
yes but as you said b its countably infinite, and you didn't explained why this subset of the powerset of N has cardinality of aleph null
Say you have a countable collection of sets A such that every set B∈A is countable
Then U(B∈A) B is countable
That's the theorem in question we are using
is this notation for index family?
Yes
which theorem
"A countable union of countable sets is countable"
how is the cardinality aleph null
Any countable set has aleph null cardinality
If you want to see it more "intuitively"
what, you serious?
n•ℵ_0=ℵ_0
Yeah
Well, countably infinite
Finite sets have finite cardinality of course
if it can be mapped one-to-one to the naturals it's aleph 0 i think?
naturals*
oops
No, that's 2^ℵ_0
Yeah
my bad
Well, essentially, ℵ_0 is the unique countable infinite cardinal
So given an infinite countable set A clearly |A|=ℵ_0
ok this explains a lot of my troubles i think, i appreciate it
any countably infinite set has cardinality aleph null
here is an example where I construct a bijection between Z and all finite sequence of naturals.
list out the primes: 2,3,5,....
for each number n, n is equal to, uniquely, as the product of primes raised to some power (possibly 0).
We can correspond n to the powers (over each prime listed above, which is a finite sequence of N). For example, since 4=2^2, then 4 maps to (2,0,0,0,...). SInce 6=2*3, we map 6 to (1,1,0,0,,,,) (its basically telling us what power we rise for each prime).
This correspondence is a bijection.
This is clever
Every time I had to prove this result, I simply constructed sets of finite sets that contained a specific natural, argued they were countable and proceeded to construct the set as a countable union of countable sets
this is pretty awesome dude... to say the very least
i 'm quite the opposite. I think of this as a proof that countable union of countable is countable.
Would such a construction be generalizable to any countable set, though?
Fairly sure if we went to weirder countable sets we'd need more machinery
you biject countable sets to N, N\times N, N^3,...
and since the union of that bijects with Z^+
Hm, so bijecting each set of the union with a power of N?
in general for all infinite sets S, S ~ SxS, and so on inductively
(this requires choice)
yeah, and you may probably need to use the Schröder–Bernstein theorem
I don't see the use of countable choice here, though
Which is odd, since the result is equivalent to it
how to prove the set made of all the finite subsets of N is countable?
This works
And this works
might be needed to show that there is a bijection between each countable set with N^k for some k ranging over all k in a formal way
The justifications are up to you though
Hm, well, yeah, I guess that ℵ_0^n=ℵ_0 requires choice
honestly idk. I just assume it
If you know that a countable union of countable sets is countable, then just as a small hint, know that a finite subset of N (unless it is emptyset) has a maximum element
regroup the subsets of N into groups that share the same maximum element. How many groups? What's the cardinality of each group?
and done
i think that don't need choice but picking it over all n need choice.
principle of induction anyone?
Actually, yeah, for finite n that does not need choice
It may be the assignment, yeah
Well, guess I'll just have to think about it
the cardinality of each group forms a one to one correspondance with the naturals
something like that?
I don't get you
"the subsets are finite"
are you talking about the subsets of N themselves, the groups of subsets?
i dont think so becaue mathbb N is wordered
there are infinitely many finite subsets of N
the groups of subsets with same cardinality are countable and infinite, no?
so... this is not what I'm asking
Yeah, noticed afterwards
Renato I recommend reading the first chapter of Munkres's Topology
so each group of subsets contains an uncountably infinite amount of subsets is what you're saying?
before he actually gets to topology
you're wrong at that if that's what you meant
That's not where choice lies, they pointed out it's probably in the assignment of bijections, like, choosing the way to map each countable set to a power of N
Take for example ${A\subseteq \bN, \max(A) = 4}$
Raphaelisius Maximus MMIII
The "group" (set) of subsets of N with max = 4
actually it's an accepted one
also wtf you can just do \bN? Ive been writting \mathbb N for so long
same
i typed \rightarrow before knowing \to exists
$\bR \bC \bH$
\bN is a shortcut for this bot, not on your overleaf (unless you define it)
gfauxpas
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oh
,, \N

theres the group of finite subsets with cardinality 1, the group of finite subsets with cardinality 2, up to k, where k is the maximum cardinality a finite subset of N can have, this are countably infinite many groups of finite cardinality
k does not exist
well not as a number
so be careful how you're getting to k
each group you define here actually have countably infinite cardinality
e.g the group of subsets with cardinality 1 has {1},{2},{3},...
so you are saying for each $i,j$ the collection of set with element bounded by j and cardinality bounded by i is finite?
qwertytrewq
there is no need for i in this case. all you need is j to say they are finite
but it works ig
actually even as a cardinal
it has a supremum but not a maximum
so your statement doesnt make sense sorry
A supremum in ON I assume you mean?
Because if we "limit ourselves" to N, then it has no supremum either
some set of cardinals large enough to cover the topics under discussion
Fair enough
So just to say renato, there are many ways you can regroup the finite subsets of IN, I specifically proposed the "max" approach but you seem to either be doing "groups of subsets with same cardinality" or "groups of subsets with max, divided into subgroups with same cardinality".
The first approach is fine, but you have to show each group has countably infinite cardinality.
The second approach is okay-ish, even you didn't need that subdivision, but then there are "IN^2" groups instead of IN groups, which is fine since the former is also countable, but more convoluted.
isn't the k they are talking about finite? and i thought finite ordinals can be intrepreted as natural numbers?
finite ordinals are natural numbers, the thing is that renato was talking about an upper bound for the cardinality of finite subsets of N
Which is outside of N
that was my second interpretation of what that k meant, are they doing a subsubdivision for groups with max = k or something?
i thought renato is picking a finite k

ig that bit is unclear
"k is the maximum cardinality a finite subset of N can have"
yes that bit made no sense
@strange pendant did you mean that exactly? Or did you mean
"k is the maximum cardinality a finite subset of N with max = k can have"
ye i just striaght up assumed he meant: "for any finite k, we restrict to where~~"
because you do understand set {1,....,k+1} has cardinality bigger than k right
and so there's no max cardinality for finite subsets
what's the difference? i think prim interpreted me correctly, sorry if it's wrong though
If prim interpreted your sentence correctly
no?
Then you believe there is some magic natural number k
such that EVERY finite subset of N
no matter which one
has cardinality smaller (or equal to) k?
Because
the famous biggest number
As I literally just stated
{1,....,k+1} has cardinality k+1 bigger than k
no matter what your magic number k is
k+1 exists
the famous biggest number plus one
infinity +1 
True, srry i guess i thought this was possible, because the subsets have finite cardinality
notice N is inductive, assume such k existed, k∈N, so k+1∈N, {1,...,k+1}⊆N has strictly larger cardinality than {1,...,k}
indeed, srry
don't feel bad for learning math btw
Everyone is finite, but some are more finite than others
Animal farm noises
Oh, and in general, let (A,<) be a poset, if A has no maximal element or no minimal element, then A is infinite
if you take a poset, then it's maximal and minimal elements, not maximum or minimum
Alright, I'll correct that
can you explain your idea? i misinterpreted it i think
I've seen the terminology used indistinctly though
ok
Let's give some names to everything
I like to call $\operatorname{Fin}(\bN)$ the set of finite subsets of $\bN$
Raphaelisius Maximus MMIII
ok
each one of those subsets
lest it be empty
each subset will have a maximum element
that maximum element, DEPENDS on the subset
(I'm clarifying this jic this was your source of confusion)
set {1,2,4} for example will have max = 4
but set {1,3,6,1999999375} will have max = 1999999375
the max depends on the subset, and can be as big as it wants, as long as it's finite
there is no "biggest" max
now that this is out of the way
Let's create our groups of subsets
$G_k = {A\in \operatorname{Fin}(\bN),, \max A = k}$
Raphaelisius Maximus MMIII
and $G_0 = {\emptyset}$ because we need to have them somewhere
Raphaelisius Maximus MMIII
G_... are the groups
yes
There is G_0, and then there is G_k for any value of k natural integer
so how many groups are there?
so wait for exemple the cardinal of R is infinit right?
Yeah, but since it seems like this'll spark an entirely new convo
a bit unrelated but R has infinite cardinality, specifically it's uncountable
if you want to delve deeper, open your own channel
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ik i just saw the pinned messg
12/3 = 4 days of mute, with ban possibly
for fuck sake
good school
Why
alright dealt with
sorry back to the subject
im confused about something we studied last week we have proven that there are series in Q wicch their limit goes to a real number so applying this we can have a bijective application going from Q to R so does that mean R and Q have the same cardinal?
Open your own help channel
I'll help you there if you want
alr mb
each group is a set made out of the maximum element present in each subset of finite cardinality of N, something like that?
Not really, it is a set of sets once again
i might have misunderstood this set builder
You're getting into a set all subsets of natural numbers that only contain elements lesser than a chosen k
G3 gathers all subsets of N with max = 3
The subsets you put in there don't
let's just start with G1
Find all the subsets of N
that have 1 as a maximum element
it means the number 1 has to be in there
and you can't have anything above 1
G1 = {{1}}
G2 = {{1,2}, {2}}
yes, exactly
you can go for G3 if you want
otherwise if you noticed the pattern already it's good too
G3 = {{3}, {3,2,1}, {3,2}}
almost
exactly 3 elements inside?
you're missing a subset
I mean it's sometimes my approach to this problem
you have already tried to prove it?
there are multiple proofs yeah
I have a latex I created on set theory w exercises
anywho
did you spot the pattern?
well guess you have to try G4
but it's a bit tiring
let's try to force you to see the pattern
starting with G1, up to G3
I want you to copy paste the groups
but for each subset inside them
remove the max
for example, if G1 = {{1}}
I take the only subset in G1
I remove its max
{1} where I remove 1 becomes emptyset
yes
G1 -> {emptyset}
G3 = {{3}, {3,2,1}, {3,2}, {3,1}}
does that start looking like something
G3 leads to this plus {2,1} and {1,2} which is exactly G2
idk dude
when you do the ‘remove the max’ step, the groups are basically lining up with the collection of all finite subsets of the naturals. That whole collection is countably infinite, since you can match each finite set with a unique number (like by using binary strings). So it’s not uncountable like the full power set, just countable
Don't you recognize G3 as the powerset of smthg...
This might help you a little
G3 itself is { {3}, {3,1}, {3,2}, {3,2,1} } = { {3} ∪ S : S ⊆ {1,2} }.
If you ‘remove the max’ from each set in G3, you get {}, {1}, {2}, {1,2} — that’s the powerset of {1,2}.
In general: removing the max from G_n gives the powerset of {1,…,n-1}.
So |G_n| = 2^(n-1). The union of all G_n (plus the empty set) lists all finite subsets of N, which is countable.
way to jump the gun 😭
You're not supposed to give the guy the answer y'know
i didn't recognuzed the pattern ngl
then rip
but if I told you that |G1| = 1
|G2| = 2
|G3| = 4
We're not considering 0 natural here so
like from here
Oh, then yeah, you're right
so you got spoiled but
you see that all the groups Gn are finite
and there's a countable (infinite) amount of them
May I ask why you say that all the groups Gn are finite? like {1,2,3,4} -> 1 < 2 < 3 < 4
Their cardinality is bounded above by 2^n-1(equal to be more specific , as was shown) for n the maximum chosen to define the group
2^n-1 for a finite n will always be finite, hence they'll bw finite
what is the point of doing this group association that are a set that consist of of sets with a maximum number n, for Gn to have finite cardinality that is?
Yeah, we want to construct our desired set from a countable collection of countable sets
In this case, a countable collection of finite sets, as you can see
the way the groups are constructed imply they are countable? because the cardinality is upperly bounded by a natural number?
Yeah
If you can bound the cardinality of a set upwards by a natural number the set is finite
then we take the union of this infinetely many countably finite groups and conclude the union is countably infinite?
sorry i might have confused things, is hard to keep track of everything
theres infinitely many possible groups
Yep, exactly
But the number of them can be put in bijection with N, map each group to the maximum element used to define it
So you have a countably infinite collection of finite sets
the union of this infinitely many groups is exactly equal to the
set which contains all the finite possible subsets of N
? i pressume then
is my first time encountering this exercise on proving this set of finite subsets of N is countable
i didn't know it was famous or anything
did you show whether P(N) was countable or not btw?
@strange pendant Has your question been resolved?
It's a common one, yeah
no, I haven't, but I presume some of those subsets are infinite,
actually this, showing that the finite subsets of N are countable was kind of related to an exercise on which i needed to count the number of distinct equivalence classes, (i think its equivalent of finding the cardinality of the quotient set, that is the set made of all the equivalence classes) for an equivalence relation on A, where A was the set of all the finite subsets of N, so because there were infinitely many equivalence classes I was trying to explain a friend that there was infinitely many equivalence classes for this equivalence relation on the set made out of all the finite subsets of N, but explícitly because the set made of finitely many subsets of N is infinite, so I was trying to explain a friend of mines this set this infinite but i think it turned out is actually countably infinite because you guys proved it forms a bijection with the natural numbers, explicity because the union of this groups is equal to the set of all finite subsets of N,
but coming back to your question, no i haven't showed P(N) is countable, but i guess that power set would contain not only infinitely many subsets but also, will contain subsets with infinitely many elements inside, which probably is enough to blow your head apart,
its my first introduction to proofs i just started university this week and I am already blown away by how difficult are things now, it will take time to get used to it most likely dude
my classmates, were duscussing that the set containing all finite subsets of N has cardinality 2^n where n is a magical biggest number, imagine bro
you also know it?
Yeah, though my solution was as I exposed above, simply considering finite sets with a specific element, much less refined
This one is much more elegant
@strange pendant
A lot of people struggle with the shift from computation-based exercises to proofs, yeah
i appreciate the help dude, sorry for the cringe I started university this week dude, I have too much stuff to learn
Nah, don't worry, nothing to be ashamed of in learning
I'm also quite the newbie btw
I did first year already but at a really bad uni, so I changed and I'm now practically going to repeat first year 😆
Though with some second year subjects mixed in
P(N) is uncountable fyi
it's really fun to show
damn good luck with that dude, for me dude classes started for me this Monday and prof already left me shit tons of homework I have been doing them tho so Hopefully im not that behind the schedule, I wish you best of luck with your university dude
Thanks, and same thing man
And don't worry, if you're doing the exercises you're assigned, you'll probably do well
I'll be starting in some days still, though, my classes start the 8th of September
i appreciate the help really raph, will revisit this after I ask my prof how to do the exercise i mentioned, and ask her about the cardinality of this set because as you guys say, it has cardinality of aleph null, basically thank you for the creativity, of doing the help and reshaping the problem into another problem, like idk if i am explaining myself or whatever
you got this dude, try to pass all the classes you didn't this time you are more experienced
thanks, i hope so dude
we didn't covered continuum hypothesis i think so idk why the exercise uses a countably infinite set or whatever
The continuum hypothesis is much more advanced, doubt you'll cover that
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if you guys had a hard time explaining this to me you should try to explaining to my classmates i don't think it will be easy by any means
Well, its statement is not terribly complex, but proofs regarding it and the stuff that surrounds it definitely is
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So, I have been seeing this kind of posts for a good while now. I wonder if what they're saying is actually true or if they're making up stories that are so elaborate, no one thinks to fact check them lol
looks like this one is partly true
but only in context
I'm going to guess it's more of pop science and heavily oversimplified
yeah thats what I think too
Even schroedinger's cat is just a saying. If what I heard is true, there never was a cat in the original experiment. It was just dumbed down for the oblivious humans like me to understand lol
I hate when they word this stuff like that
tbh, your average layperson isn't going to want to read arxiv papers or any other advanced physics textbook that is maths heavy
i mean if you go to wikipedia you would see the term hypothetical cat
then why should the matter be dumbed down? It loses its true significance imo
yeah but like 80% of the world thinks its a fact lmao
anyways sorry for ranting
why do you think pop science and math pisses me off
but ig if pop science helps motivate the public to learn about the truth, sure
i mean, i was kinda motivated by pop science and math to begin with
was there once
yeah, I guess they could be learning worse stuff than that
yeah I'm thinking it's more of providing motivation to do the actual stuff
like bill nye inspiring kids to do physics, biology, etc even if it's simplified for them
alright, question has been answered. It's just for plebs to think they know whats happening in the modern scientific front
Divulgative stuff is sometimes needed for two reasons:
1: to motivate the need for research on that discipline
2: to interest potential future students of the field
If I went up to someone and instead of the "some infinities are larger than other" phrase I started constructing the ordinals to them
I assure yoy they'd turn their brain off midway
"you lost me at ordinal"
Like for example, a lot of classical mechanics in high school have assumptions to make the calculations a lot simpler
So while I certainly find this stuff annoying at times, too, it is needed
if you started assuming air resistance and other things, it gets complicated really quick
So real
ig if it isn't outright false, it's fine
and as long as people realize there's more to it
I can conform to this perspective
That's more an approximation than anything else, though
.close
yeah
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This particular phrase, for example, though
Every time someone writes it, a little portion of hell is let loose, the amount of misconceptions it produces is absurd
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\hr \ Let $f: \mathbb R^2 \to \mathbb R$ with $f(u(x), v(x)) = (\text{something})$. Why can we say [\frac{\pa f}{\pa x} = \frac{\pa f}{\pa u} \frac{\pa u}{\pa x} + \frac{\pa f}{\pa v} \frac{\pa v}{\pa x}?] It seems as if we would get the double on the right side (if we conceptually cancel)?
Derivatives in Leibniz notation usually behave like fractions, so if you think about cancelling du and dv, we get 2 * df/dx
(I know we can't actually cancel)
Is there some intuition to why the RHS matches the LHS and it's not 'LHS = 2 * LHS'?
The cancellation doesn't make sense
,, \pdv{f}{x} = \pdv{f}{u}\f{du}{dx}+\pdv{f}{v}\f{dv}{dx}
you don't really get to "cancel" with partial derivatives
you can always say that although you should be using regular derivatives for all derivatives wrt x
Why do you make a difference between partial and d?
Can't we use them interchangeably here
(and should be using partial)
because u and v are single variable functions
ah
Why does it not make sense?
Although I realized, if you had something like f(u(x,y),v(x,y)) you could ask the question again
the whole "cancellation" thing with derivatives in leibniz notation works for ordinary derivatives but not for partial derivatives
those are still 'infinitesimal changes in u' (intuitively) and we should be able to (intuitively) cancel
oh
wait what happened here is some form of chain rule or what exactly ?
Oh you're right I remember seeing something about having a triple derivative that feels like should cancel but gives -1
Yes this is chain rule, I think you can rigorously justify it by writing out the total differential of f
Afterwards dividing by the differential of x
Maybe it helps to think of it as this
[ \pdv{f(u(x),v(x))}{x} = \pdv{f(u,v)}{u}\f{du}{dx}+\pdv{f(u,v)}{v}\f{dv}{dx} ]
realizing they are not the \textsl{same} derivatives.
Do you mean $\pa u$ versus $\dd u$ as the difference?
ILikeMathematics
example of derivatives not canceling as you'd expect they would:
suppose you have a relationship between 3 variables f(x, y, z) = 0) using implicit differentiation you can show that
Right
yep
Not only that but the right side is about different quantities
you are also holding one variable fix at one time, that should already tell you that they can't sum up to 2f_x
If you're familiar at all with matrix multiplication the familiar leibniz cancellation comes when multiplying the jacobians
[ \dv fx = \jdv{f}{u,v} \jdv{u,v}{x} = \pmat{\pdv fu & \pdv fv} \pmat{\dv ux \[1.5ex] \dv vx} = \pdv fu \dv ux + \pdv fv \dv ux ]
cloud
Oh, that's the formal proof?
well you can frame all applications of the multivariable chain rule as multiplication of the relevant jacobians
and you do get the familiar cancellation property in the jacobian notation
Ok I have a question
So we have d/dt f(x(t)) = f'(x(t)) * x'(t)
By the usual chain rule for total differentials
Now why is the jacobian of f'(x(t)) that matrix on the left
for x'(t) I agree with the vector on the right
the composition is hidden by the leibniz notation since it doesn't include where the derivative is evaluated
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confused on what determines velocity and accelleration to be increasing/decreasing and positive/negative respectively
wait i think i got it, the velocity is directly correlated with the acceleration so if velocity is increasing then accelation is positive
.close
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my work (tentative)
@hardy bramble Has your question been resolved?
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not checking ur differentiations this looks about right
i would justify some of your answers a bit more
but thats kind of a nit
u might want to justify that the higher derivs of a poly vanish
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can anyone teach me how to divide surd becuase i have a test in 3 days and that is like the only thing i dont understand
do you mean this? $\sqrt{a} \div \sqrt{b} = \sqrt{\frac{a}{b}} = \frac{\sqrt{a}}{\sqrt{b}}$
឵឵MxRgD
yea
what part do you not understand?
most of it
or how to switch the surds and when you should do it
you usually want to do it when you want to simplify the surd expression
okay becasue i had this math question that i was going to send to ask how to do it, but i left the page with the question on it at school
sure, you can post the math question if you're stuck in it
i dont have it on me
like here for example $\frac{\sqrt{27}}{\sqrt{3}} = \sqrt{\frac{27}{3}}$ and then you can see how you can simplify it
឵឵MxRgD
oh
could you get a question for me to do
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I'm stuck at this question (I'm sorry for the rough translation)
In a space Oxyz, given A(1,0,0) ; B(0,1,0) and C(0,0,1). M is any point in that space. Calculate the minimum of P = MA^2 + 2.MB^2 - MC^2?
What I did is shown in the picture (I apologize for the poor quality)
Now how do I find the minimum of P? There are..3 variables.. I don't know how..
is that 2*MB^2?
yeah
yep
There's a trick to do these types of problem
and as soon as I saw the question I know where're you from
Choose a point I, then $P= (\overrightarrow{MI}+\overrightarrow{IA})^2 + 2(\overrightarrow{MI}+\overrightarrow{IB})^2 - (\overrightarrow{MI}+\overrightarrow{IC})^2$
Alexis_Fx
expand this
;o
so the P is minimum when MI is minimum?
cuz i think IA, IB, IC is uhm.. fixed
wait but what's the location of I?
tbh yeah, that's what we want
i mean uhm.. coordinates
I would satisfy $\overrightarrow{IA}+2\overrightarrow{IB}-\overrightarrow{IC}=\vec{0}$
Alexis_Fx
By choosing point I satisfy this we simplify it to the simplest form
why is it have to be vector 0 tho-
and uhm how do you know the condition that I would satisfy (like uhhh.... how do you know I would satisfy IA + 2IB - IC but not anything else?) [If this is a dumb question to ya then im sorry, im just bad at math]
can you like, expand this for me
expand everything in the parentheses
uhm... we put I in the middle of MA? so it wil like MI + IA = MA
same goes with the rest
no don't simplify it
It can also be done purely algebraically. Just expand the original expression, simplify it, then complete the squares.
q-q i dont know i only know that u put I in the middle of MA
idk the true purpose
expand everything like you normally do, (a+b)^2=a^2 + b^2 + 2ab
I don't want to torture myself lol but yeah
i did, but the result is a func with 3 variable
and idk how to find the minimum of that func
If you complete the squares, the minimum of the squares is 0
Well the leftover constant is your minimum :p
wait what
yup
yeah he's right
Heh I should've looked at all your work earlier XD
np
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I've got a function modelling a fountain canopy. I've determined the surface area (the first integral), volume (second integral) and width (third expression). My goal is to somehow find a way to minimise the width while keeping these integrals constant. Only issue is I'm not sure how to do that. Any ideas?
heres a visual if it helps
You're calculating the surface of a solid of rotation that has that parabolic (or close to it) profile
yup
I need to keep the surface and volume of the solid of rotation constant whilst minimising the width
im pretty much allowed to change anything as long as the surface and volume stay constant
im only focused on that one stream that i have modelled, so the rest can be ignored
i think that there's a crazy enough curve that will minimize the width but aren't you interested in parabolas
not really, no. i just modelled it with a parabola right now because its what seemed easiest
So the problem could be stated like this: you have a curve gamma1 whose solid of rotation (keeping the x axis as the rotation axis) has a fixed volume V and surface area S defined on a closed interval [a,b] in the xy plane. You call b-a = w the width. Does there exist another curve gamma2 with volume V and surface area S which minimizes the width? What is it?
Yes the problem could be stated like that.
It's basically for a mathematical investigation im considering doing
Btw why are you multiplying by s inside the surface area integral
this is the formula for surface area right
i wasnt able to get ds on its own in desmos, so I just did it as sdx
which works because
oh yup u right
yes you are right
any ideas on how to proceed with this?
Firstly I'd try to think about how many solid of rotations that were made from different curve profiles have the same volume and surface area
Is it infinitely many? Is it none? Is it one?
If the problem has no restraints I think the answer is not easy to get
what would make the answer easier to get?
for example if we are looking only at a certain type of curves
oh, thats an easy restraint. assume the family of curves as parabolic
but idk maybe someone else will look into this and it ll be clearer i actually dont know if im right about what im saying
thats what ive been doing and what I was planning to do
yeah perhaps this
im honestly just not sure what to even do next. ive got the volume, surface area and width. now how on earth do I minimise this width?
assume you have y=ax^2+bx+c with width w and try to find a minimum for the width w
Calculate volume and surface area and set them equal to V and S
You'll have two equations with a,b,c,w, V,S. V and S are fixed, the rest are all variables you can change (in particular you are interested in finding for which a,b,c w is minimized)
You'll have two equations with a,b,c,w, V,S
I don't get what you mean by this. What would those two equations be?
i can formulate equations for the volume and surface area - using integrals and a b and c. however im not sure where w would come into play
OHHHH RIGHT
oh right. my current bound would also be equal to 0 to w, because its all just translations
good catch haha
so far these are the two equations I've formulated.
I've never really done optimisation with integrals before, this is quickly becoming over my skill level haha (im still in HS). What would I really have to do to proceed from here?
Do the integrals
I see the problem is quickly getting complicated
I don’t know if this way will get you an answer
i can plug the integrals into an integral calculator as long as i can support my working for later, so im not too worried. but the surface area integral doesnt seem solvable just of the top of my head
oh wat actually it might be with a u sub
right so this is the volume integral solved
and this is the surface area integral solved
can someone plss help me with alternate angles idk how to get each side
luckily seems to be fine for now. im still unsure on how to proceed tho. for the volume integral, it can just be written in terms of w since the lower bound of 0 cancels. is not the same for the lower integrla though
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Did you try getting your hands dirty into the work?
why
You’re taking a slice of the graph at z+1=0
They ask you to draw the 2D curves for all the equations at z = -1, z = 0, z = 1 and x = 0
Those are level curves at those planes
Remember how you drew the planes with me?
They now want you to use planes to intersect them with those 3D shapes
so if i intersect the level curve with the first surface what do i get? a plane, no way should be a conic section
It depends on the equations but yeah mostly it will be a conic section
Yeah
$x^2 + \frac {y^2}{4} = \frac 89$
VulcanOne
After that what do you do to make it standard form?
idk
@strange pendant Has your question been resolved?
Hmm...shouldn't you make the right side = 1?
wouldnt it be better we sketch the ellipsoid and the surface z = -1 separately to get an idea
Sure if you find it easier that way
but we inserted z = -1 now is not equal 1
Right side currently equals 8/9 right?
ye
What do we do to make it = 1?
idk
Don't you usually divide a number by itself to make it 1?
what's your point?
no
Hmm
$\frac{(x-h)^2}{a^2} + \frac{(y-k)^2}{b^2} = 1 \ \ \frac{9x^2}{8} + \frac{9y^2}{32} = 1$
VulcanOne
dude
Wait based on what you turned the 8 into 2?
Na you ain't
32/9
Ye
xD
What is "a" and what is "b"?
this will get nasty
Don't write decimal values
Alright
Now can you tell me which one of them is bigger, and thus which one represents the major axis?
,w sqrt(8)/3-sqrt(32)/3
dude
i hate this ellipsoids
@strange pendant Has your question been resolved?
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
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a word
Fantastic 😄
so do you know that identity?
its like sin^2(theta) + cos^2(theta) = 1
yes exactly.
and you sub sin(theta) into the equation?
yes, and find the value of cos(θ_1)
but before you take the square root you should stop and show us what you get
does the quadrant matter tho?
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Show if $P(A_i)=1$ for all $i≥1$ then $P\left ( \bigcap_{i=1}^{\infty} A_i\right)=1$
wai
Is this true
$P(A) =1 \iff S=A$
where $S$ is the sample space
wai
counterexample:
(and dually just because P(A) = 0 does NOT mean A = ∅)
that I know
wait never mind this is false
anyway @eager thunder's idea is good: really do look at the complements.
counterexample: suppose A_i is true when $x\neq i$.
Arnavutköy
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
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what is $\overline{\bigcap_{i=1}^{\infty} A_i}$?
Ann
empty set
or like
as an expression in terms of individual not(A_i)s
(intutively: not everything being true is equivalent to at least one of them being false)
Remember $(A \cap B)^{\complement} = A^{\complement} \cup B^{\complement}$, wai
it saddens me to say this, but [extremely loud incorrect buzzer]
$\bigcup_{i=1}^{\infty} A_i^C$
wai

you can rely fully on subadditivity on the complement sets here without worrying about what the sets actually look like
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,, \sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^{n-k} \binom{d+m}{k} \binom{n+m-k-1}{n-k} = \binom{d}{n}
bloubbloub
so uhhh
I've tried for small cases
it seems like it doesn't depend on m?
I'm looking for a way to prove this
maybe it has to do with an inclusion/exclusion principle?
@thorny kestrel Has your question been resolved?
induction?
did u try induction
induction over m could be interesting if you can show the sum for a specific value and then show that the sum doesnt change when you replace m by m+1
I was thinking about it actually
but I'd prefer a combinatorial proof over an induction one
Hint: Consider disjoint subsets $A$ and $B$ with $|A|=d$ and $|B|=m$. The right hand side is the number of $n$-element subsets of $A$. \ \ Now, consider using inclusion-exclusion to obtain the left hand side.
Civil Service Pigeon
Further hint:
,texsp ||Consider $\binom{n+m-k-1}{n-k}$ in the context of stars and bars||
Civil Service Pigeon
alright imma go poof but see what you can do with this
so uhhh I kinda went on wikipedia which told me that the stars and bars coefficients were the one of the generating function $\frac{1}{(1-x)^m}$
bloubbloub
so basically one can prove the formula by considering $(1-x)^{d+m} \times \frac{1}{(1-x)^m}$
actually no
actually yes
I'm still thinking about the combinatorial proof though
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@thorny kestrel Has your question been resolved?
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Given x,y satisfying $5x^2+6xy+5y^2=16$ and a cubic function $y=f(x)$ with the graph as shown. Let M and m be the maximum and minimum values of $P=f\left(\frac{x^2+y^2-2}{x^2-y^2-2xy+4}\right)$, respectively. Calculate $M^2+m^2$.
Alexis_Fx
the cubic function is $f(x)=x(x^2-3)$
Alexis_Fx
@molten badger Has your question been resolved?
i just use trig here
5x^2 + 6xy + 5y^2 = 4(x + y)^2 + (x - y)^2 = 16 then x + y = 2cost, x - y = 4sint etc
@molten badger Has your question been resolved?
$x^2+y^2=\frac{(x+y)^2+(x-y)^2}{2}=\frac{(2\cos(t))^2+(4\sin(t))^2}{2}$
Alexis_Fx
$x^2-y^2=(x-y)(x+y)=8\sin(t)\cos(t)$
Alexis_Fx
Okay I get it
I just don't know how can you come up with trig in the first place
5x^2 + 6xy + 5y^2 = C would be an ellipse rotated 45 deg so using x + y and x - y should unrotate it so u have smth like Au^2 + Bv^2 = C, then you know how to parameterize an ellipse, which makes extremizing f(x, y) a bit easier
They haven't taught me that
oh maybe there is an easier motivation idk
ig from the form 5x^2 + 6xy + 5y^2 you can maybe guess it can factor as A(x + y)^2 + B(x - y)^2
that seems like the case here
I guess I'm just bad
Thanks you
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guys i have a question for 1c