#help-43
1 messages · Page 30 of 1
yeah cause of the lemma right
yes
and then by the same lemma there is a unique a with x=a^3/b
so if x is fixed, there is a unique solution (a,b) to that system of equations
and there are 2027 possible values of x
so there are 2027 possible systems and for each of those a unique solution
so there are also 2027 solutions to the original equation
add the trivial solution a=b=0 and we are done
actually quick question, is x^2 mod 2027 unique? cause if its not wont you get two distinct x where the lhs is the same and b wont possibly be unique?
the b will be the same. but the a will have different signs
oh i think i just misinterpreted what unique means whoops
ohh i get it nowww
the concept atleast
fwiw, I dont think I would have come up with that solution. introducing an extra parameter x is quite something
arent we assuming a^3/b is an integer? why does it have to be one
all calculations are modulo 2027
a^3/b means a^3b^-1 with the multiplicative inverse of b mod 2027
but waes said its not a modular inverse its literally a fraction ;-;
that was wrong
ok
ok but seriously what would make one sane person possibly think of this solution? is it really the 3 hour exploration trying out 50 possible stuff until stumbling into the dividing by b^2 and the unique a and b stuff?
i mean there should be some telltale signs that point to a and b being unique wouldnt there?
yeah dunno
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Hi. What does it mean for a function to be defined or undefined?🤔
Can you share the context you're asking this about?
In calculus, some questions ask about if a function is defined at said "point". Like continuity of a function. Pleasr Correct me if I'm wrong.
oh right. What this is talking about are situations like f(x)=1/x evaluated at 0. f(0)=1/0 which is undefined. In this case, you could say that the function is undefined at 0
Oooh ok. Thank you so much, that cleared up some uncertainty 😆
"function f is defined at point a" means f(a) exists
in calculus you deal with functions whose domains are subsets of R
Right. So f in defined at any given point IF it is a subset of its domain. But, may I ask if every subset satisfies the function's domain, will all points be defined for that function? ( for all x belonging to R)🙏
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i don't get it how they did it..
can anyone help me understand this
- Let x be the number of oranges that the seller has in the morning.
- He sells 45% of current stock and one more orange.
- Therefore, he is left with (55% of x) - 1 oranges.
- Now he sells 20% of current stock and two more oranges.
- Therefore, he is left with 80% of [(55% of x) - 1] - 2 oranges.
- Finally he sells 90% of current stock, and is left with 5 oranges.
- But by previous calculations he would be left with 10% of {80% of [(55% of x) - 1] - 2}.
@lofty mountain do you understand these bullet points i just gave? if no, name the earliest one which confuses you. if yes, say "yes i understand all".
oh now i got it. ..
do i have to say those words
no, if you can say the same shit clearly with other words then you can say that instead.
but usually when i break things down for helpees, i expect the same precision in answers from them
I have been inconsistent for many days..
i hope this message act as accountability for staying active as a maths student
ohok
(and i do this to eliminate vagueness and misunderstanding, or at least to weaken it)
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can someone solve q 2
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do you intutively understand what $\lim_{x\to -1^-}$ is
Arnavutköy
gonna smash my keyboard istg
oh okay
so this requires two parts
ok
so essentially the 'separating' thing shouldn't matter
when we are calculating $\lim_{x\to c}\textbf{some function}(x)$
Arnavutköy
we are calculating $\lim_{x\to c^-}$
Arnavutköy
and $\lim_{x\to c^+}$
Arnavutköy
the value of the function at $c$ is irrelevant
Arnavutköy
if $\lim_{x\to c^-}=\lim_{x\to c^+}$, we refer to this as the $\lim_{x\to c}$
Arnavutköy
okok
Yeah but the problem is that the limit seems to be ambiguous in this example, no?
explain?
yes, the limit is undefined
Ah never mind, I did not do the calculations before making that statement
I wanted to point out the lack of - and + but it's irrelevant for this question, my mistake
wait so because (1 times 1) doesn't equal (1 times 2) its
undefined?
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A given sinusoidal function has a period of 3, an amplitude of 7, and a maximum at (0,
2). Represent the function with a sine equation and a cosine equation
okay so for the cosine equation i got y = 7cos (2pi/3 x) -5
is this correct or did i go wrong somewhere?
Seems correct
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okay thank you
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In linear algebra, what is the property that implies that a matrix M having no nonzero eigenvalues h means that there is no vector v such that Mv = vec(0) ? See the underlined sentence:
I guess what throws me off in the sentence is that it says that the formula "..." reveals why the last two statements are equivalent. It then shows why the |M| != 0 makes sense, but it doesn't show a connection between that and the implication of the empty nullspace.
In other words, I understand the Invertible Matrix Theorem state that they are equivalent, but I expected that section to show that, but it just seems to re-state it.
Do you recall what an eigenvalue is?
It's the diagonal compents of an eigendecomposed matrix.
Well, I guess that's technically correct, but it misses the intuition entirely
It's a scalar, lambda, for which there is some non-zero vector v satisfying Mv = lambda v (this v is the associated eigenvector)
An eigenvalue is a value associated with an eigenvector. And an eigenvector is the interesting thing.
If we have a matrix A with an eigenvalue λ and associated eigenvector v, then Av = λv
In other words, the vector is special with regard to A, because its direction does not change(!)
Now imagine that λ=0
What would that imply of the above equation?
-# it's like me: degenerate
Av = 0v
Can we simplify 0v?
Now an interesting question:
What if we replace v with ξv with ξ being some scalar
Does the equation still hold?
The original one, Av = λv
Yup, which means if an eigenvalue λ has an associated eigenvector v then any scalar multiple of v is also an eigenvector of λ
These eigenvectors form a space
Generally, 1 dimensional, but they can be larger if you have repeated eigenvalues.
And if we have an entire space of vectors v such that Av = 0, then that space is also called what?
nullspace
It's getting me closer, but I haven't felt the eureka yet. So, I'm gonna go over the discussion and think about the implications.
@fallen frost Has your question been resolved?
still thinking
Ok, so this is what I've come up with:
If none of the eigenvalues of M are zero, then that implies that none of the columns of M are zero. Thus, when M multiplies any non-zero vector, it would always result in a non-zero vector as output. Only the zero vector as input could result in the zero vector as output. So, with the eigenvector equation Mv = hv, h=eigenvalue, the equation wouldn't hold if the eigenvalue is zero and the eigenvector is non-zero. It would only hold when both the eigenvalue and eigenvectors are zero.
@brazen quiver ^^
Not quite. You can have an eigenvalue of 0 even if no columns are nonzero
For instance, the matrix {{1,1},{1,1}} has a zero eigenvalue
I'm gonna put that matrix in my notes as an example of that.
I feel like I'm close, but it's not 100% clicking. I'm gonna put this away for now, cause I've spent too much time on it already. So, I'm gonna have to come back to it at another point in the future.
I appreciate the help, though. Thanks
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Hello, Rational Inequalities.
(2x/(x-4))≥1
Note that you're dividing two things and the result is non-negative. What does this tell you about the signs of the numerator and denominator?
this i dont get
if result is non negative then signs of numerator and denominator should be equal of signs
but if result is negative, the numerator or the denominator could be negative
I only am confused on how to do the graph
so you wanna graph (x + 4)/(x - 4) ?
bcs when -/- it results to positive, same as +/+.
and when -/+ it results to -, same as +/-
yes
but not in the Cartesian plane
the line graph
wat dos that mean 😭
num and den can be either both positive or both negative
so x + 4 >0 and x - 4 > 0 OR x+4<0 and x-4<0
idk maybe its defined in your country but not in mine
ows
we just call them open and close circle
well for now atleast
anyways continuing further
yes
so (4,-4]?

whats up with your reaction 😭
That is correct 💯
i suggest you write it down and solve instead of doing it mentally
Wait how will we know what is
a and b?
ex. (a,b)?
by solving the ocnditions
wth they have conditions
how do you solve an inequality
no idea, we just started today and immediately got confused on the graphing part
before we continue, do you not know what wavy curve method is
look at this
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in the xy plane, the point (2, 9) is a solution to which of the following systems of inequalities
x<3, y>7
x<3, y<7
x>3, y<7
x>3, y>7
the < has its smaller end towards the smaller number
so 2 < 3 is true instead of 2 > 3
oh wait i get it
i misunderstood the problem
i was thinking of smth else
yea
thanks 🙂
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np
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Hii, im not quite sure on how to prove the left side of the equation
this is my progress
let A be x-y+z
let B be y-z+x
the only thing I can see is you just expand them all and you get some cancellations
it's tedious though and there's most likely a better way
i feel it could be done with some trick though like all x^2 terms are positive for example
wait looking at it you are at the last step
Hmm yeah, that's true
aren't you already done with it from what it seems like
actually yeah it does look like it's done
oh what
maybe just cancel the y-y and z-z and you'll be done
would've been funny if someone really did that and wasted ~3 minutes
My dumbass would've probably done that 
same here
i was going to do that tbh 😭
😭
:3 but it looks done
just undo the sub and that's pretty much it lhs=rhs
Well the left side is really an expression in 2 variables once you make the substitution a = y-z
ohhh okk
OH YEAHH
$x-y+z+y-z+x=2x$
qimmah
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hello in limit definition can we also use c* ε instead of ε where c is a positive number?
how can it be the same
What do you mean?
why is that the case
Because the function that Maps epsilon to c*epsilon is bikective from R+ to R+
The définition of Limit is for every epsilon strictly positive, blabla
bikeactive?
Well c*epsilon goes through all of r+
Bijective sorry
Oh what?
Saying for every epsilon positive, we have P(epsilon) is like saying for a certain c and for every positive epsilon P(c*epsilon)
alr
thanks
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Can I get a tip forthese type of questions? I would assume that the function isn't trigonometric since there's no factorial in the denominator so I would try to derive the function by starting with series of x^n by deriving or integrating it, is this a good approach
Reindex and compare to arctan
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Is there a way fit a function onto another curve? x axis of function will become curve
!original
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
um maybe non-Euclidean geometry?
What do you mean by this
@exotic marlin Has your question been resolved?
I mean take an arbitrary function like sin(x+y) and fit it onto another curve like x^2 or a bezier curve
Graph doesn't belong to me and I don't know math behind it
hmmmm
maybe if $(x(t), y(t))$ is a curve then $(x(t), y(t)) + f(t) (-y(t); x(t)))$ should do it
bloubbloub
you might need to normalize the second term
Does it work on desmos?
let me try
@exotic marlin Has your question been resolved?
it's definitly something like this, but I can't figure out how to normalize t
Can you explain so far
so you're taking the original curve, then adding a scaled version of its normal, according to your function f
the tricky part is to make f depend on the distance travelled along the curve, not t
here $(X(t), Y(t))$ is the original curve, $\int_0^t \sqrt{(X'(t)^2 + Y'(t)^2) }dt$ is the distance, and $(-Y'(t), X'(t))$ is the normal (which you need to normalize)
bloubbloub
in 3D it's a bit trickier to get the distance right I think
Thanks
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not getting any ideas how to start with this
observe that one of p-1, p, or p+1 is a multiple of 3
right
and if p-1 or p+1 is prime, then dividing by a power of two still makes it a multiple of 3
i didnt get this
lets say p+1 is a multiple of 3
so p+1 can be written as 3a where a is a pos. int.
thus (p+1)/2 is 3a/2, right?
which is the same as 3 (a/2)
yeah
so then what must p be?
3
yes
so p can't be a multiple of 3
now let's try p+1 is a multiple of 3
aka (p+1)/2=3
so what is p, then?
5 then
which is not prime, right?
yes
oh then p is 13, and itll also satisfy
yep!
how do i make myself get these ideas 😭
if the problem mentions 3/5/7 some number of consecutive integers, you know that at least one of those integers is a multiple of said number
does it matter that a/2 may not be an integer
if a/2 is not integer, then p+1/2 is not integer
ahhh okay right
because the 3 and 2 are relatively prime
right that makes sense, ive been literally getting stuck on basically every problem on number theory
thank you so much tho
np!
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can anyone give me a hint on this problem? this is what i currently have (it's problem #2):
- Notice that all the points are part of one big web
- There are three subsets of the vertices: The first one has vertice 1 (call this S1), the second has vertice 2 to 511 (call this S2), the third one has vertices 512 to 1023 (call this S3).
- We can break up the second subset into more subsets: The first has vertices 2-3 (call this SS1), the second has vertices 4-255 (call this SS2), the third has vertices 256-511 (call this SS3).
- In SS1, there is one endpoint in S1 and two in S2. In SS2, there are three endpoints in SS2. In SS3, there is one endpoint in S2 and two endpoints in S3.
There are six methods of deletion:
- Delete 1 edge that is S1-SS1 and 1 that is SS1-SS2. (+1 of degree 1)
- Delete 1 SS2-SS1 and 1 SS2-SS2 (+1 of degree 1)
- Delete 2 SS2-SS2 (+1 of degree 1)
- Delete 1 SS2-SS2 and 1 SS2-SS3 (+1 of degree 1)
- Delete 1 SS2-SS3 and 1 SS3-S3 (+1 of degree 1)
- Delete two SS3-S3 (-1 of degree 1)
The current place I am stuck on is calculating the probabilites of each amount of vertices of degree 1. Also, I think it would be helpful to establish an upper and lower bound, but I'm also not sure how to do that. All help is appreciated! Thank you
you need to use linearity of expected value
how so
uhh. idk
it depends on the node
yea
suppose we're in S3
okay, then it's 1/2 right?
right
because the edge can be removed or not be removed
okay
wait. gimme a sec lemme write this down
I'll let you find P(A_i) for S1 and S2
ok, now we're interested in the random variable $X_i = \mathds{1}_{A_i} ~ B(P(A_i))$
hmm that's not what I wanted
wait
bloubbloub
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
what does B(P(A_i)) mean
I meant the indicator function of A_i
which follows a bernoulli distribution of parameter p = P(A_i)
oh
yea sorry about that
basically X_i = 1 with probability P(A_i) and 0 otherwise
yea i know what indicator functions are
do you see what to do?
nah I couldn't get it right
it has multiple notations but the one I'm familiar with is a "fancy" "1"
anyways it doesn't matter
wait, i'm still confused on how to use linearity of expectation tho
so recall how we have X_i = 1 when vertex i has degree 1
wait, X_i is the indicator right?
yeah but you should think of it as 1 with proba P(A_i) and 0 otherwise,
okay
we want to calculate the sum of all the X_i right? more precisely its expected value
yes'
$E(X_1 + X_2 + ... + X_{1023})$ any ideas?
Oh.
bloubbloub
it's actually not that intuitive
because you'd expect the X_i to depend on each other
in a way, it's feels magical that we can calculate the expected value of the whole thing by considering the vertices one by one
yea
even though this problem made me go through psychological warfare, i think it's pretty interesting
Just use independence of expectation? Lol?
you should definitly keep in mind how using indicator functions and linearity of E can be powerful
thing is the X_i are NOT independent
okay thanks
so after the computation, the answer is ||446.75|| right?
hmm i didn't do it, but it sounds reasonable
just 1/2 + 510(3/8) + 510(1/2)?
since there are 510 vertices in S2 and 510 vertices in S3 that have the same probabilty for X_i to be 1
it should be right yeah
np
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can someone give an example or like explain this please
I learned epsilon delta def for limits but forgot it
if that's relevant^
do you understand the epsilon delta definition of a limit, or is it all abstract for you?
Take f(x) = 1/x, and the sequence a_n = 1/n
yeah I just forgot the def. if u said it ill rmbr tho
the definition of limits at infinity are the exact same definition for sequences
there is no |x - a| < delta
okay so f(n) = 1/n. a_n = 1/n. lim x to infinity of 1/x = 0. so the limit of {a_n} = 0 also?
Yes
hmm, I see
so what's the +- infinity at the end of the sentence? "where L may be +- infinity"
lim x —> inf f(x) = L <—> for all epsilon > 0 there exists N such that for all x, if x > N then |f(x) - L| < epsilon
f goes to L at infinity if it's arbitrarily close to L and remains there after some point
L doesn’t have to be a real number
same thing when we consider f being a sequence
other than swapping N for M these are identical
It could be infty or -infty
there are separate definitions for the limit being +/- infinity but they are also identical for functions and sequences
when we say the limit is infinite we just replace the |f(x) - L| < epsilon with f(x) > M
I mean one way of thinking about this is that the sequence in this case is just a subset of of the points for the limit of the fucntion
and a similar statement for -inf
a more modern definition doesn't require N to be an integer. you can always make it an integer by taking the ceiling of N, but allowing it to be a non-integer is often less annoying
js
I see
yeah everything you all said makes sense
I'll make note of everything. thanks everyone!
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idek if it's worth looking this deep into terminology
but like what is nondecreasing and nonincreasing?
seems redundant
It’s the difference between strict and non strict
what's that?
If I have a(1) = 1 a(2) = 1 and a(3) = 2 you can see that it’s not always increasing however it’s not decreasing
increasing: each term is greater than the previous term
nondecreasing: each term is greater than or equal to the previous term
So it’s non decreasing 🤷🏻
ohh
yeah right
makes sense yeah
tysm!
Like a constant function is nondecreasing and nonincreasing
yeah
You can check its variations by doing a_n+1 - a_n
but it's not increasing and it's not decreasing according to this
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1a . If f(b)=f(a)=0 , then f <= 0 on [a,b]
!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
1
If I just replace I get that f(a+b/2)<= 0
But that’s not all
Nvm got it
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when is $a^n\pmod{p}=a^{n\pmod p}\pmod p$
DaveyLovesSocks
i heard it was something to do with squarefree but im not sure
Hmm actually if we used
Fermit little theorem
To state that
$$a^{p-1} = 1 \mod(p)$$
Then we can say
$$a^n = a^{n \mod(p-1)} \mod(p)$$
Sherif Player
That only applies if gcd(a,p) = 1 though
i suppose so
but i saw a problem a long time ago that went something like
compute $a^n\pmod{\text{some number i forgot}}$
DaveyLovesSocks
and the solution was to take n mod that number
a and n obviously had actual values here i just forgot them
Are you sure the answer is to take modulo p not p - 1
(modulo*)
From Fermat Little theorem I would say that what you say would only work if
$$n \mod (p - 1) = n \mod (p)$$
Which would happen if n is in the form of
$$n = p^{1+k}-p^{k}$$
Where k is a positive integer
let me see if i can find a similar problem
(also - Ferm__a__t's* Little Theorem)
ah i was probably thinking of eulers theorem
It's a related theorem, yeah
Ok thanks : )
Sherif Player
But that's specifically:
(where the phi, "Euler's totient function", means "however many integers from 1 to n inclusive are coprime to n")
but this implies $a^n\pmod{k}=a^{n\pmod{\varphi(k)}}\pmod{k}$
DaveyLovesSocks
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@bright bobcat hey u still there
Since the sides of the triangle are only 6 each, A(S) would be 18 no?
you'd still have sqrt3 in the bottom
So,there a few things to note . First of all are you sure that each side of the triangle has length 6?
Next, assuming that they are 6, are you sure that area A(S) of the triangle would be 18 and not the perimeter ?
well I mean upon projection to the xy plane
I didn't know you could take the area of the parallelogram like that, that's more sensible
Well even without taking the parallelogram thing
I was thinking of doing a double integral after having found the surface normal, over the xy projection with bounds 0 6-x for y and 0 6 for x
Find the sides of the triangle
then you can find the height since the triangle is equilateral
After that use the usual hb/2
so for example find the length of the segment with (0,0,6) and (0,6,0) as it's endpoints
that's sqrt(2)6
You can do this for the other 2 sides using the corresponding coordinates too, or you can notice that since eacl vertix has only one non-zero coordinate (which is 6) and so all sides are equal in length
So you got the side
you'd do sqrt(2*36-((sqrt(2)/6)/2)^2)
Why do something like this
you have the hyp and the base is one half of another side
the triangle formed by one of the original triangle's sides , the height and half another side of the triangle S is semi-equilateral
so the height has length hyp sqrt(3)/2 , where hyp=6sqrt(2)
I mean this is a consequence of pythagoras' theorem but maybe it is already saved in your mind because you use it frequently in hs geometry
At least that's the case with me
yeah that's clean, you can still do what I did tho
just take sqrt(hyp^2-a^2)
where a is 3sqrt2
Sure
double integral works too
But thats not the same thing as this
The numbers you plugged here are a bit different
aren't you taking the height of the eq. triangle at the base
Yes
the side of the triangle has length 6sqrt(2) (that's the hyp)
The other side is 3sqrt(2) (as you mentioned later)
oh i had a /6
So where does the 2*36 and the other term come from
Ah you directly did the calculation I see
Mb
Yeah for the other term you had the 6 on the bottom instead of the top
Other than that you are correct
I worked it out with double ints
Ohh so you converted from surface integral to double integral and then computed it?
just taking the explicit parameters of the tangent plane makes it easier, you dont have to normalize since you can take the parallel normal vector to <36,36,36> as <1,1,1>
you can do this by stokes theorem
surface integral is just projection times the "scaling factor" which is the curl
rly? I think this is shorter
cuz you just take a point like (6,0,0) and write teh tanget as (x-6)+y+z=0
then you have that as z parameter
I mean after you reach the place where you need to find A(S), you just need to compute the area of the parallelogram and divide it by 2
Which is just the magnitude of the normal vector divided by 2
And you already have the normal vector
So there is no need to compute the length of the height and the sides of the triangle
So if you try computing the area of the triangle using a double integral then you would probably take more time
yeah that makes sense, im visuzalizing if you take the vectors along x and y and find the cross, then half of of that would be the triangle you're solving for
or am i seeing it wrong
By the vectors along x and y, you mean the vectors constituting the sides of the triangle which are in these directions?
yeah like the vectors supporting the bottom side of the triangle
cuz the cross product of that gives you the <36,36,36> normla
the magnitude of which is double the area youre solving for?
Yeah that's exactly what you do, the magnitude of the cross product of 2 non-collinear vectors gives you the area of the parallelogram made by these vectors
And the area of the triangle made by these 2 vectors is just half the area of the above parallelogram
or you can think of it as the surface that you're solving for the double integral
and just keep the curl
right
Yea you can transform the surface integral into a double integral and then find the bounds of that double integral to solve it
isn't half the mag of the normal <36,36,36> equal to the double int
It should be, otherwise you would have something wrong with your computation of the integral
shouldn't need a double int then?
No, in this case you only need to transform the line integral into a surface integral and then simplify till you reach the thing with the area of the triangle
yeah yr forced to take a dp then integrate
Then the area of the triangle would be computed directly using the magnitude of the cross product/magnitude of the normal made by the cross product
just a minute im trying to understand this
Alright take your time (that's just restating the thing about half the magnitude of the normal that we talked about earlier)
I see how they're equal, just not how they're expressed in the curl (dot) normal integral
Wdym by this
you're saying all we do is do a dot product between the flux and the normalized unit vector, then multiply by half the magnitude of the normal?
that makes sense act
Well the first part is a consequence of stokes' theorem, the second one comes from the fact that you are left with a scalar multiplied by the surface integral of 1 with the surface being the triangle
Now the surface area of the triangle is the same as it's area
So you either compute the surface integral normally and reach the answerq
Or notice this and then use the fact that this area is just the area of the suitable parallelogram divided by 2 which in turn can be found by calculating the magnitude of the cross product (our normal vector in this case)
So you calculate this magnitude and divide it by 2
yeah makes sense, kinda 3-step here, first finding the flux, then dotting it with the normal using a double int or halving the normal again
Yeah that's the process done here
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please tell me the answer of the following question. My answer is coming 16u^2
lemme verify
if possible pls tell me the steps tooo
unit
oh
its 16unit square
what were your steps
ye
i have written them in paper how will i show you??
you can take a photo and send
but can u first pls try??
i have no clue abt where to go
it'll probably be easier to fact check your answer if you show your line of thought
ye
j
what were the steps?
wait a sec
i took this
its r-1/2 BTW
and r-1
pls ignore my handwriting
then i took a^2 + b^2 = c^2
and wrote: (r-1)^2 + (r-1/2)^2 = r^2
then a quadractic equation came
howd you get r-1/2
see i have taken r-1 from the centre of the circle so. one side of the square = 2(r-1) +1
= 2r -2+1
r and r-1 look good, if you use pythagorean you should have the last side turn out to be 2r-1
=2r-1
yeah
Not quite
x² + (r-1)² = r²
x² + r² - 2r + 1 = r²
x² - 2r + 1 = 0
x² = 2r - 1
x = sqrt(2r-1)
yeh i know tha
i made a damn mistake
alright i made a mistake
but now can u all show me how to solve it
pls
tell me one thing first
does the diameter of the circle bisect the square?
looks like it
nope
oh
i think so
no proof either, we cant assume
nonno i doesnt
@native bridge Has your question been resolved?
,w 4r^2 -12r + 5 = 0
@native bridge Has your question been resolved?
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can any one explain the permutation formula
there are n competitors in a race, and you want to find the number of rankings for the top r of them (1st, 2nd, 3rd, ..., rth)
k
on one hand:
there are n choices for who comes in 1st, because there are n competitors
yea
as the 1st place podium is already chosen, there are n-1 choices for 2nd place
yea
n-2 choices for 3rd, and so on, up to n-(r-1) choices for rth place, following the pattern
hence there are n(n-1)(n-2)...(n-r+1) ways
that's the first equality
another way to think about it:
there are already n! outcomes for the race altogether
yea
it's just the same idea as before: n for 1st, n-1 for 2nd, etc. down to the last being forced
hence n(n-1)(n-2)...(2)(1)
um
but you only care about the top r racers; you do not care how the remaining n-r racers finish
I recommend you to watch this video: https://youtu.be/s8sm8garNkQ?si=vayJb1Q2khArcK44
k
this is slightly different because this notation addresses choosing, not picking
this is combination, not permutation btw
oh sorry
binomial theorem
anyway, n! total races, with (n-r)! ways to order the losers
lmfao
mb guys i thought they were asking for combinations
me wait
ok cool
(n-r)! possibilities of position after rth position
correct
now, each of the n! race outcomes does prescribe an ordering of the top r, of course, but how many of these permutations prescribe the same ordering of the top r?
wait
what
i didnt get it
ohh
oh
for example, with n=6 and r=3, we could have
(1, 2, 3), 4, 5, 6
(1, 2, 3), 4, 6, 5
(1, 2, 3), 5, 4, 6
and so on...
i get the question
but not the answer
this too
can u elaborate
consider a fixed permutation of the top r competitors, something like (1, 2, ..., r)
how many of the n! permutations give this exact top r ordering?
well, since the top r is already fixed, there's 1 choice for 1st, 1 choice for 2nd, ...., 1 choice for rth
so really, we're just asking how many ways there are to permute everyone beyond the rth position
beyonf
beyond
would be
(r+1)st, (r+2)nd, (r+3)rd, ..., nth
but we already know how many ways there are to do this; it's (n-r)!
so the upshot is, for every choice of top r, exactly (n-r)! of the n! total permutations present this top r as well
top r u mean top after r
I don't, I mean top r: 1st, 2nd, 3rd, ..., rth
every choice of top r, exactly (n-r)! of the n! total permutations present this top r as well
present this top r aswell
i didnt get it
e.g. for the top r (1, 2, ..., r), there are exactly (n-r)! permutations that start off with (1, 2, ..., r)
(1, 2, ..., r), r+1, ..., n
(1, 2, ..., r), r+2, r+1, ..., n
...
does that make more sense?
the two listed permutation examples are "presenting" the same top r
well isnt (n-r)! permutations beyond rth position ?
it is
so
exactly (n-r)! permutations that start off with (1, 2, ..., r)
what do u mean by this
the permutation (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6) begins with (1, 2, 3)
the permutation (1, 2, 3, 6, 5, 4) also begins with (1, 2, 3)
they aren't the same permutation, but they agree for the first 3 terms
since there are 3! ways to permute the set {4, 5, 6}, I'm saying there are 3! permutations that begin with (1, 2, 3)
they are, explicitly,
(1, 2, 3), 4, 5, 6
(1, 2, 3), 4, 6, 5
(1, 2, 3), 5, 4, 6
(1, 2, 3), 5, 6, 4
(1, 2, 3), 6, 4, 5
(1, 2, 3), 6, 5, 4
does that make sense?
basically, fix the top r positions
yea
but i have one question u can call (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6) this set as a whole permutation ??
isnt the ordered set called
permuttation
yeah. I'm using parentheses to group things together, but if the ordering doesn't matter, I call it a set and use set brackets
shiii ben getting called by relatives sorry
hope all is well
soo
this the order of things outta that set is permutation
but we only count non repetitive ordered
things (objects) from the set
no
that notation
set's diffrent
a permutation of a finite set is just an ordering of the objects in that set
instead of commas, we could use < signs
1 < 2 < 3 < ... but it gives off a different vibe
order can be of single and in pairs both right
we like to imagine permutations as like, a way to list the elements
in ordered pairs of distinct objects
this is kinda getting out of scope and asking for a level of precision that is perhaps not required. I need to say that my notation here is not necessarily sanctioned or agreed on in all contexts
but
in my world, I'm saying that (4, 6, 1, 3, 2, 5) and 4, 6, 1, 3, 2, 5 are equal, and they represent a permutation of the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} that designated "4" as 1st, "6" as 2nd, and so on
a permutation has to address an entire collection; is that what you're asking?
you cannot call (1, 2, 3) a permutation of {1, 2, ..., n} , because what happens to the other objects?
no i mean of nth object set the permutation should include all n objects
i was just saying
there are n! ways of ordering
or permutation
isnt it right ??
yeah, they're the same
n! ways to order a set, n! ways to permute the set, n! permutations of the set
!
lemme read again
ahhmm i didnt get it
ohhh
one number was missing lol
wait
ohhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh
dang
good?
yeah
good enough to go back to the original argument?
yeah i hope so
the statement is, for each possible "top r" in the race, there are exactly (n-r)! of the n! permutations that present (i.e. agree with) this top r
in the example with n=6, r=3, and "top r" = (1, 2, 3), exactly 3! of the 6! permutations present (1, 2, 3) as their top 3
no maybe wait
n!/(n-r)! permutations for the top r of n item set
(n-r)! permutations for top after rth position
so u are saying there are (n-r)! permutations that agree or share the one possible order of (n-R+1) permutation
the first line is wrong
what is
the first line
but also in that adding a factorial doesn't correct it
n!/(n-r)!
yea
!!
now >??
the conclusion we're trying to arrive to is that the number of "top r" choices is n!/(n-r)!, and I believe it's two sentences away
idk u hold those sentences
k k
here are the two sentences
each top r is presented in exactly (n-r)! of the total n! permutations
thus the total number of top r choices is just n!/(n-r)!
...dividing like this is essentially choosing a representative for each top r
it is like finding a single exemplar of each possible top r
lemme digest something
by "each top r" u mean one order of positions is contained in each (n-r)! of possible positions
algebraically,
\begin{align*}
n(n-1)\cdots(n-r+1)&=n(n-1)\cdots(n-r+1)\cdot\mathcolor{red}{\frac{(n-r)(n-r-1)\cdots(2)(1)}{(n-r)(n-r-1)\cdots(2)(1)}}\
&=\frac{n(n-1)\cdots(n-r+1)(n-r)(n-r-1)\cdots(2)(1)}{(n-r)(n-r-1)\cdots(2)(1)}\
&=\frac{n!}{(n-r)!}
\end{align*}
sorry if im not getting it right because its my first time into the topic
ye
algebrically
let me fix it lmao
my book has it
Flip
we can obtain an algebraic explanation from one via a combinatorial explanation of the other
the n!/(n-r)! representation is more concise, so however you obtain that is good
so to summarize: the number of all possible combinations is n! , and to find all combinations of the top r, we need to remove the duplicates. for each top r, there exists (n-r)! ways to order the remaining items, so we divide the number of all possible permutations by (n-r)! to get one item for each top r.
well cant we just say that of n! of possibilities for position dividing it by (n-r)! which gives possible positions after rth position the numerator and denominator cancel out in such a away like
n(n-1)(n-2)...( n-R+1)(n-r)!/(n-r)!
I don't know how to parse the english
huh
idk what you're saying lol
combination or permutation
??
isnt it permutatiomn
it's clear by now that they're permutations from context
combination is being used loosely here
(n-r)! means the possible positions of the under top r for the same ordering of the top r positions, so the number of the same r in n! ; dividing by it gives us the number of all the possible top r positions
i meant permutations, sorry :0
!
this gives total possible top r positions
I can't tell if the math in the message is correct because the sentence itself is hard to read
maybe it's my fault, I saw it a little better just now
after some reconsideration, I think you mean to express something that is equivalent to the image above it
yeh
I did it because, looking at n(n-1)...(n-r+1), I want to make use of factorials to express the same thing, and it's just missing terms (n-r)(n-r-1)...(2)(1) to make it happen. so, I multiply it by this number, while also dividing it, to not perturb the equality
if there are n-(r-1) choices for rth position then n-(r-1) -1 for position beyond r continuing it we go down being small as 3 2 1
is it
??
yes
kaay
i think
i gotthe proof
but i will reread what two of u said of that another proof
thanks for now
thank u so much for taking ur time
bye
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help
@digital trench I would start by looking at a graph of tan(x) and x+1
why is that so
Because setting them equal is the same thing as asking for an intersection.
makes sense
damn
@fathom basin
Yes. So, you can see that there are an infinite number of solutions for tan(x)=x+1