#advanced-pdes
1 messages · Page 18 of 1
it's annoying at times ofc but try to see the upside
It can be easy to gloss over things when reading more passively, and it is hard to stay active when reading in general. Books written badly in this way can force you to be active to catch/repair the authors mistakes lol.
The other main roadblock I'm hitting are things like "interior sphere condition" "exterior sphere condition" and the Alexandroff Principles
Oh and contact sets
This definitely feels more like a PDE approach than what I learned out of Evans or Eskin, which seemed to ues a lot of functional/fourier to get around things
Does anyone remember an example of using Riesz interpolation to solve a PDE (strongly or weakly or whatever)
To purely solve, there is not in my knowledge, but to check out at nice properties/estimates for operators/functions spaces there is some
mostly variation of it than Riesz itself
Use of Haussdorf-Young inequalities to solve some nonlinear diffusion reaction system via Bloch Transform (which is somewhat a twisted Fourier Transform, for which we start from space variable to a space-frequency variables and keep some space information).
Hm. Appreciated. I know there are some PDEs for whom existence is dependent on energy controls but the energy controls given by Riesz interpolation are too specific it's definitely unclear to me where it's used.
I recall those properties/estimates being done in a PDEs course for minimal surfaces but the stuff escapes me right now.
See the appendix for the adapted proof :
M.A.Johnson, K.Zumbrun - Nonlinear stability of periodic traveling wave solutions
Other powerful related applications :
M.A.Johnson, K.Zumbrun - Nonlinear stability of spatially-periodic traveling-wave solutions of systems
M.A.Johnson, P.Noble, L.M.Rodrigues, K.Zumbrun - Nonlocalized modulation of periodic reaction diffusion

are there any microlocal treatments for the maxwell equations?
@quaint herald I summon you.
Hello
Are there some smooth functions that are dense in spaces like $V={ u \in H^1(\Omega); u=0 \text{ on } \Gamma_0; \frac{\partial u}{\partial \nu}=0 \text{ on } \Gamma_1}$ such taht $\Gamma_0$ and $\Gamma_1$ are two parts that constitute the boundary of $\Omega$ that's an open subset of $\mathbb{R}^n$ and $\nu$ is the exterior normal vector?
Mikahopff
What do you mean by these boundary conditions? For u in H^1 you can make sense of the first one (using the trace theorem), but as far as I know, not the second.
adter discussing with him in DM, he forgot to mention about the fact that the laplacian lies in L²
OK, that makes sense.
Do we have any characterization of the projection operator $P:L^2(\mathbf{R}^3)\to{u\in L^2(\mathbf{R}^3):\nabla\cdot u=0}$?
teafortwo
Yes
thanks to the fourier side
Functionanatolysis
curl and div on the Fourier side are just
still works for S' by duality of course
Everyone knows it, and it is nowhere explicitly written in my knowledge
Maybe in Sohr
lemme few minutes
preciate it
it is not in Sohr's book
lemme sketch you the proof
use the following identity 3-dimensional vector Identity
$$ i\xi \times(i\xi\times v)-i\xi (i\xi \cdot v) = |\xi|^2 , v$$
Functionanatolysis
which says nothing but
$$ \mathrm{curl}, \mathrm{curl} - \nabla \mathrm{div} = -\Delta$$
Functionanatolysis
this was a +
first lines are not - signs
but + signs
since I kept the - next to the Laplacian
I can’t believe ur speaking a coherent language
?
No prove above operators I introduce to you above (with the nice corrections) are orthogonal projectors on L² with value in free divergence vector fields
In particular, shows that it restrict to the Indetity on the subspace of Free divergence vector fields
Then by uniqueness of the orthogonal projector on L² free divergence vector fields
above operators are necessarily Hopf-Leray's projection
Due to this identity you just have to check that the following holds
all the other ones would be direct corollaries
What do you mean exactly ?
Did I made a mistake somewhere ?
Out of context people the average person would say he’s babbling in tongues
That’s what I mean
Like any other field of mathematics
No just a person who doesn’t study mathematics
Well, in this case that's just even worse
Is <u,v> = ∫ D²u D²v an inner product on H²₀(U)? I am trying to prove |D²u| ≥ C |u|_H²₀(U) and I am wondering if I can just use the norm equivalency theorem for Banach spaces?
To prove your inequality
just apply Poincaré twice
But would my argument work too?
Assuming it is a scalar product how do you prove the coercive inequality ?
So, then H²₀(U) is Banach with the induced norm from <-,-> and it is Banach under its usual norm. We have that |D²u| ≤ |u|_H²₀(U) trivially so by the norm equivalency theorem, there exists some C such that |D²u| ≥ C |u|_H²₀(U)
( I haven't thought about why completeness would work out, I was just concerned whether the positive-definiteness would be an issue for the inner product for now)
that's the difficulty here
and that's why your argument may fail
because your argument does not need the boundedness assumption on U
Think about what happens on U=Rn, in this case the result CANNOT be true
The positive definiteness or completeness? If completeness, is it true that under this norm <u,u> = 0 implies u = 0 (I am not sure because here u is a limit of compactly supported smooth functions)
Depends how you define H^2_0
but your approach fails for many reasons
again think about Rn
Ok so can you specify what exactly you mean is failing? The completeness or positive definiteness?
completness/well posedness of your space
It may fails
again it depends on your deifnition
and the way you deal with objects
H^2_0(U) for me means the limit of compactly supported smooth functions in W^2,2(U)
Yes
Functionanatolysis
up to there we just said crystal clear stuff
Yes. whereas my proposed alternative norm is the third quantity only. (So my question is if H²₀(U) is Banach under |D²u|₂?)
Functionanatolysis
Now by density take
Functionanatolysis
By Poincaré inequality
Functionanatolysis
Wait so u in H²₀(U) implies Du is in H¹₀(U)?
Oh okay okay, so I do understand this, but for my other question about whether H²₀(U) is Banach under |D^2u|, you contend that it is a no, where H²₀(U) is defined as stated above?
No I said it is maybe a no
depending on how you define the space
Here we assumed U is bounded smooth open set
What about In the case of limit of compactly supported smooth functions in W^2,2(U) (and U is bounded smooth open)?
Above inequality still holds by density
thus, here we have completness and equivalence of norms
but for U bounded (and smooth)
which is the very important part
You need poincaré to prove
it
Oh okay okay, then this makes sense, I guess no shortcut is being discovered by trying the equivalnecy of norm route since we still need the poincare anyways
Thanks for the help!
This shouldn't surprise you, note that if you prove the equivalence of norms (for some class of U), then an immediate corollary is Poincare for U (drop a few terms in the inequality). So you cannot expect to find some miraculous way to make your original strategy work that is not at least the same complexity as Poincare.
Can someone explain this
first equation
its from page 53 of Taylor pde volume 1.
how did d/ds change to V
Ok I understand it now, at least formally
Hey @astral vine so remember I asked about the projection $\mathcal{P}:L^2([0,T]\times\mathbf{R}^3)\to{u:\nabla_{\mathbf{x}}\cdot u=0}$.
I want to characterize an orthornormal eigenbasis generated by the operator $-\mathcal{P}\Delta$, restricted to the obvious subspace of divergence-free functions. I'm just taking this to be the Fourier kernels $\mathcal{P}\exp(-i\langle k,\cdot\rangle)$ since I'm pretty sure $L^2([0,T]\times\mathbf{R}^3)=\mathcal{P}L^2([0,T]\times\mathbf{R}^3)\oplus H$ for some subspace $H$ and $\Delta$ is linear.
This seems pretty obvious and direct to me and I just need a sanity check because it's a little too good to be true for my work.
teafortwo
There is no orthonormal eigen basis
I can take the subspace to be smaller, I don't even need it to be a basis.
Oh wait, I see what you're saying. I'm getting at the wrong thing.
Hmm.
Orthonormal eigen basis for the Stokes Operators, only happens on (bounded) domains
But If you want an exact description of the complementary orthogonal
Nah I don't really care about that :berk:
I'm just trying to get a Galerkin system for $-\mathcal{P}\Delta$ lol
teafortwo
What do want to know exactly, what is the underlying goal
On the whole space ?
We can take it to be periodic for simplicity.
Bounded and periodic domain.
Actrually no periodic
In this case there is lot of troubles I don't mention
Hm. Well if it's simpler take it for the whole domain.
the Stokes Operator involves boundary conditions
the problem is being in R³ in space
yes
There are basis on free divergence L² vector fields
but none well adapted to the Stokes operator
Now I wonder what people building finite-element methods for the basic Laplace operator have been doing.
Alright back to the drawing board, very confused.
Usually they didnt mention they use some boundary conditions
but there are necessarily underlying BC
Just people are so used to it, they do not mention it anymore
Maybe @river path knows better about this kind of stuff
You know what I'm just going to cite a paper I haven't read, they build some orthonormal basis for the Galerkin method for the Laplacian
I can work out what the Galerkin method is doing on the boundary later 
Functionanatolysis
This is no longer true on domains
I'm taking this operator as a primitive, I can deform the domain however I want.
TO match the operator.
This might sound weird but basically this operator appears in some reduction of an SPDE and it's not important the domain on which the SPDE exists, since I'm just trying to get local controls.
So I can pick any generally non-moronic domain and get something I want.
Local not in spacetime but in spacetime x probability measure on some limit.
I'm not into SPDEs/Numerics so I can tell that much
I don't do numerical analysis either, I'm just pretty sure there's a convergent Galerkin system because I saw it used in a similar problem.
I don't actually know what it is in generality.
Oh to be clear I'm trying to control an object being acted on by these operators.
So if u solves P\Delta u = f for some f I want to know stuff about u, and the approach I've seen is a Galerkin decomposition of \Delta to control solutions to the Laplacian.
Then a limit to a solution of the real Laplacian.
Using an appropriate eigenbasis.
But whatever, shelving this for now.
where f lies ?
in L² ?
L² free divergence vector fields ?
We can take it to be L^2_loc, Holder alpha for alpha less than 1/2.
L² free divergence vector fields with 0 tangential BC ?
Not really
No for my problem I'm projecting as needed.
because due to possible boundary conditions a pressure gradient may appear
Hm.
(and except for exceptionnal boundary conditions or the whole space, it ALWAYS appear)
On domains the Projection does not commutes with the Laplacian
I don't get it. But I can choose where I project for this problem because there's a theorem that says there's some weak convergence of a type I care about.
And existence of a non-projected solution.
So I actually have P\Delta u + SomeEllipticOperator u = a very badly behaved f, if I know u solves this what bounds on energy can I get and what do they look like on a limit. Ideally the limit is on u itself as I increase the resolution of my eigenfunctionspace by adding more eigenfunctions.
On what domain ?
I can choose, doesn't really matter as long as it can be increased, or it can start as infinite.
It matters
because your equation maybe very illposed
(on the whole space I buy it is somewhat well defined)
I'm sure it matters for this problem as a PDEs problem but for the general context I'm working in I don't care, I can pick out the domain that makes it easiest for me, so long as it's something totally connected.
And the boundaries aren't fractal or anything.
Assuming smoothness
We can do that.
i buy the fact you don't care
teafortwo
In fact you have to know because changing the domain/BC really change the whole structure of the equation
The behavior could be totally different
Not having smoothness on f is not really important
as long as it lies in a Lebesgue/Sobolev space
even locally in some cases
The reason boundaries don't matter for me is because I'm just trying to show (roughly speaking) that the limit of u (using an increasing resolution in a Galerkin approximation to assist) converges to a solution of something else where I can pick the boundaries too. It's actually not important what the boundary is or even if I can only show it for a particular boundary, I'm just trying to get a solution to make sense in the limit.
but the eigenbasis should depend on the domain right ?
That's why I don't get it
Yep, so I need to pick out a domain and eigenbasis that work together.
and choose appropriate boundary conditions
notice vvarious as : derivatives does not commutes with the Leray Projection
So what I'm dealing with is more compllicated than P\Delta but the claim I'm hearing from chats IRL is we can just build an eigenbasis from \Delta.
And I'm trying to work that out for the Galerkin system.
But anyways, shelved for now until I understand numerical PDEs.
To make sense of it I would recommend but I am not sure, Hodge (absolute) boundary conditions, on the unitball
The Hodge Laplacian commutes with the Leray projection
but in this case the Leray projection act the following way
Functionanatolysis
\nu is normal yes?
yes
Alright. Think if I added the zero condition to the tangential product anything would break?
Actually never mind, I'm not sure I want that.
This works for me.
Functionanatolysis
Oh huh, now I think about it I have another problem because I'm an idiot. I don't know what $\mathbb P$ does to a nowhere differentiable function.
teafortwo
there is still a definition of it as one the whole space but each involved operator have to be treated more carefully
L² functions are sometimes nowhere differentiable too
If I can understand it in the sense of weak derivatives that would be ideal.
You cannot makes sense of it for general distributions
You need at least it to be an Lp or a not too negative-index Sobolev fonctions
For many technical reasons
Yeah, I worked through some technica like that a few weeks ago, I didn't quite grasp what it was for. I think it's to keep this projection well-formed
Does it have a meaning in H^{-1}_0?
Functionanatolysis
rip
beyond that you require boundayr conditions
below that you require to be the exact dual of some Sobolev space with boundary conditions
which is somewhat very difficult to write explicitly except in the case of the upper Half space
If I have a weak solution of the form B(u,v) = (f, v) for some elliptic linear PDE operator (weak form) B satisfying Lax-Milgram, should I be able to understand Pu in terms of applications to v just by naively tossing it in the equation?
I don't think so
if v is not in Hs like #advanced-pdes message
you won't be able to makes sense of Pv
oh this is for any test function v
yes
so i can presumably pick the space to be restricted, except who knows wtf that means
Restriction of weak elliptic problems have to be treated carefully
I don't know if it could work
this is unreal, i dont understand these methods lmao, back to the drawing board
i need to talk to a functional analyst at my uni, what a mess

ruining my day
the hardest part of spdes is again the pdes part
the s part is basically trivial
Th real difficulty in this kind of problems is always about a fairly nice treatment of the linear non random part
Actually all of my woes come from the fact that my u(x,t)'s are always Holder, nowhere differentiable, and probably singular in the infinite oscillations way, which is how random fields tend to be.
When mixed with PDEs it's a recipe for tears.
Can somebody explain how does he obtain the last inequality (goes from second equality to the third inequality)? It seems like the "constant" C is doing all the work but I am not sure how to properly justify the last quantity.
V is a compact set in U and |h| ≤ dist(V, boundary of U)
the inner integral in the second line is bounded by the rhs integral in the third line for any particular t. integrating in a t interval of length 1 you get the same upper bound, then you are just summing up n such terms which you can modify the C for.
Oh right, I always forget that for Evans the constants can change in between lines. Thanks a lot!
yeah it's not just Evans, this is pretty standard practice when you don't need to be explicit about the C.
no worries
(Also you should understand why the first sentence I said is true, and this is precisely because V was chosen so that shifting it by h units in any direction keeps it inside U.)
Yes yes, my main worry in justifying the last line was why there isn't any n in the last line which as you say is because C is modified.
Right yep that is my take.
I feel this is why the various version of \leq were introduced, like the squiggly or bowed line ones.
can someone give me some help with bootstraping arguments for regularity theory on parabolic pde (specifically in mild solutions)?
I can.
Let me know
Hello.
Are there any serious, fruitful, contemporary approaches to PDE research that make usage of techniques from algebra, category theory, or modal theory?
Cohomology/Homology of Sobolev Spaces on domains are very important to study PDEs which have strong relations geometry. Sometimes even Homology Cobordism, and Algebraic Topology are also very important (especially for PDEs on manifolds).
There are also some links between Algebraic Geometry and some PDEs like Korteweg-de Vries
Can somebody tell me what prerequisites would one have to study (from Evans preferably) to be able to prepare for these topics?
The description is too vague in my opinion to give some appropriate recommendations
Cute. 🙄
Thank you.
idm vague recommendations, I just want to prepare for these topics, where prepare means that I would be able to understand the basic terminology being used in these topics. My guess is 5,6,7,8,9 from Evans should get be equipped?
Probably, you should read carefully Chapter 7, Section 7.1 and 7.4 for Navier-Stokes and it would be sufficient if you know nice properties of the convolution with the Gaussian on the whole space. Evans is quite far from Schauder-type estimates, and other mentioned topics share words at most like "Calculus of Variations" which may include very different kind of maths, and a lot is not covered by Evans.
Some stuff relies more on Numerical Analysis for instance
which is not treated by Evans
Any other textbook recommendations you have in mind? Perhaps Taylor?
Books I have in mind have too much prerequirements to be very well adapted
Like deep harmonic Analysis stuff and so on
Aah, I guess then the class itself will be first covering the prerequisites because the class that it lists as a prereq only did Evans 5,6,8,9
Probably yeah
As I said, the description is very vague and can concern like hundreds of topics and their different ways to cover them
For instance, just the Navier-Stokes strong and weak solutions
There are like at least 15 ways in my mind to cover it, depending on the class of Solution you are looking at, how you construct those, on domains, or on the whole space, if on domains what kind of BCs, etc...
The core component of what you want to look at is probably Hodge theory, but there are also approaches to PDEs using symmetry groups, and also geometric problems attacked via GAGA-like correspondences.
hi is this linear or semi linear PDE ?
It is linear in u
Is (5.1.15-5.1.16) in Jost PDE wrong
on page 91
It would be correct if the integration was written dS(x)dt
@astral vine Yet more silly questions about the space ${u:\nabla\cdot u=0}$. Is there a natural characterization for PDE operators whose evolutions that start witha state in this space remain the space for all time?
teafortwo
Er, where I have $\partial_t u= \mathcal{L}u$.
teafortwo
What kind of caracterization ?
I'm curious if there is a nicer understanding of the class of $\mathcal{L}$s that preserve belongingness to ${u:\nabla\cdot u=0}$
Domain of L being left invariant by the Helmoltz-Leray projection
teafortwo
Yeah.
That's the only thing you can say
Hm, alright.
Other wise you can build plenty of shitty different operators
you can even Build operators that keep the the divergence free condition through the evolution, with coeffcients in the W^{-1,\infty}
you read perfectly -1
you lost a full derivative
Oof. Alright, that's a good "counterexample" to my hope that these operators are nice.
Appreciated.
Notice that this is already as worst as possible in the whole space
then imagine adding boundary conditions
then on poorly regular domain
everything falls completely in the range of pure madness
Amorous aka Lucifer
@gloomy thicket this doesn't look like PDE's in the slightest
I get that $H^{s}'$ can be identified with $H^{-s}$ by taking the $L^2$ inner product of Fourier transforms, but how does that prove the boundedness of the map.
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
well I guess it means $M_{\phi}^* : H^{-s} \to H^{-s}$ is bounded
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
But formally M* = M
Assume we know that
Functionanatolysis
It's true that $M_{\phi}^* = M_{\phi}$ on $S(\mathbb{R}^n) \subset H^{-k}$.
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
well I can see $\langle \phi u, v \rangle = \langle u, \phi v \rangle$ for $u \in H^k$, $v \in S$.
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
I guess what is left is to show that $M_{\phi}^*v = \phi v$ for $v \in H^{-k}$
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
for this I take $v_j \in S$ with $v_j \to v$ in $H^{-k}$
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
hence $v_j \to v$ in $S'$
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
and $\phi v_j \to \phi v$ in $S'$
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
but from boundedness of $M_{\phi}^*$ it follows that $M_{\phi}^v_j = \phi v_j \to M_{\phi}^ v$ in $H^{-k}$
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
hence in $S'$ also
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
so $M_{\phi}^*v = \phi v$ by uniqueness of weak limits
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
Yes
but usally people don't check that
because since Schwartz function are dense in H^{-k}
there is unique bounded extension on whole H^{-k}
so that that's only possible (reasonable) meaning of the multiplicaiton by varphi
but we need to know that the bounded extension is actually $M_{\phi}$
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
so far all we could say is that $M_{\phi}^*$ is some bounded map on $H^{-k}$ that acts as multiplication on $S(R^n)$
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
Yes but since there is only one unique bounded extension
people don't care about it
it is a common thing in Functional Analysis/PDE
you are right trying to check it
but I don't yet know that $v \mapsto \phi v$ is bounded on $H^{-k}$.
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
that's what I am trying to prove
right but then I need to verify that the extension is still multiplication by $\phi$
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
It cannot be somthing else
because of boundedness
If you are worried about that, you would be worried about all PDE/F.A. papers
no one ever verify this kind of things
because non continuous linear functional are useless
(there is only few cases where it is very important)
I mean I don't even know that $M_{\phi}$ maps H^{-k}$ to itself
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Mvarphi is selfajoint on L²
I only know that it has some bounded extension that does
L² is dense in H^{-k}
Mvarphi * must be Mvarphi
On L²
on H^{-k}
etc.
If you can give a unique/canonical sense to some limiting procedure via density argument then you give the limit as the definition
always
that's like writing stuff like
$$\frac{1}{(2\pi)^n}\int_{\mathbb{R}^n} e^{i(x-y)\cdot\xi} \dd \xi = \delta_{0}(x-y)$$
Functionanatolysis
it's equality as distributions
yes
Then we don't make the disctinction on L² functions or whatever
It is always like that
if you feel bad about the fact that it is not checked, then feel free to check it
Well, usually it has been proving an estimate about a linear functional, and then silently extending it uniquely
but the thing above makes a further claim
that the extension has a certain form
but A LOT of things like that are not checked because we only we want to deal with bounded operators
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
Yes, because of the uniqueness of the extension
but the uniqueness doesn't imply the above statement
I get your troubles
and I agree, but my point is , there is no other possible sense to it$
I think that I must go through $S'$ to obtain the above
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
This might just be a simple algebra thing, but the main question is over calculus of variations
How do they get here from the variable change?
<@&286206848099549185>
pull the w' into the square root and distribute after substituting dw = w'dz

