#advanced-pdes
1 messages · Page 14 of 1
maybe an instance of this should be that on a compact Riemannian manifold M, the spectral theory of the Laplacian should be related to the representation theory of Isom(M). But I'm not sure what the right theorem should be right now
actually no ig, because isom(M) can be very small. Maybe this sort of thing will only work for homogeneous spaces (like S^2)
Hey guys, have there been any “attempts” to make something like $\partial y=f_{x_i} (x_1,…,x_i,…,x_n)\partial x_i$ made rigorous?
Integro-Differo-Topo-Algebro-Cat
Differentials in differential geometry I think is probably what you're looking for
tbh I haven't seen representations of this group really discussed anywhere. Most of the time, there are operators that are symmetries already at the classical level that should form a Lie algebra and then you quantize them. This is what happens for the hydrogen atom and gives an so(4) action. But of course there's no general quantization scheme
No, I mean literally have “that”, as it’s written.
I mean literally write the partial derivative by itself.
That's just notation
it's just not the right way to think about it imo, you should instead think that d(y1, ..., yn) = Df(x1, ..., xi) d(x1, ..., xi)
it gives a more complete picture of how input changes relate to output changes
is this supposed to be Einstein summation notation
maybe a book on non-commutative harmonic analysis if you're interested in how this works for L^2 of some homogeneous space. The thing is that when your space is non-compact, L^2 is now a direct integral over the space of unitary representations of G. this is essentially the non-commutative Fourier transform. I don't know about the general properties of the group U that you descibed though. I think you have to put some strong properties on the operators for this to give you something small enough to be meaningful
For the Hamiltonian part, microlocal stuff is kinda doing this for R^n things
Vaguely
yes, but what about the spectral theory of the laplacian
btw do you have a nice reference for this noncommutative fourier transform theorem (in the noncompact case)? Deitmar references Dixmier which is in French
wait maybe this sort of thing is better known in examples like SL2(R)
uhm but I'm not sure when we should expect an intimate relationship between spectral theory and representation theory. That probably happens in like symmetric spaces of finite volume (like H/Gamma where H is the upper half plane and Gamma a fuchsian group of the first kind, possibly with cusps). I have seen the spectral side, but I'm not exactly sure how it relates to the representation theory. I'm sure this is well written somewhere
On a Lie group G, if you choose a right-invariant metric, then your Laplacian will commute with right translations. Then the point is that you can study the Laplacian on each irrep of G x G separately (sorry, I forgot the relevant rep theory statement here, but I'll try to remember), and then further break it up in terms of right irreps, and it'll act as a scalar on each right irrep of G. On a homogenous space G/H, the situation is different, you still are able to study the action using this decomposition, but now you will stick to looking at left irreps of G, and since left multiplication doesn't commute with the Laplacian, it won't be a scalar on each irrep. sorry, I hope this isn't too confusing, I just woke up
I learned this from Taylor's book on non-commutative harmonic analysis
oh didn't know that book existed, cool, thanks
so the point I forgot was that right invariant vector fields generate left translation, and this will essentially let you bash out that your Laplacian in fact preserves the decomposition of L^2 into left irreps. From there you can look at the action of the Laplacian on each left irrep separately, if you can figure out nice expressions for these, the spectrum will be much easier to compute
you should compare this to the Fourier transform of the Laplacian on R, it's the same idea
always. whenever you have symmetry, it will simplify things.
The difference between homogenous spaces with finite volume and general homogenous spaces is that direct sums are replaced with direct integrals. Think like the Fourier transform on R/Z vs on R.
These are a little harder to work with, but the same ideas still work
I think Taylor works some of this out in his book but believe he doesn't give a complete proof
shouldn't there be integrals anyway in the finite volume noncompact case? Because there's nondiscrete spectrum (coming from the Eisenstein series I think). Maybe I'm miswording
right, I might be mixing things up slightly. In the compact case, things certainly simplify to direct sums.
a priori, there's two ways you can pick up indiscrete spectrum. The first is from a direct integral over irreps, and the second is if the operator on the irreps has an indiscrete spectrum
for non-compact groups, your unitary irreps will generally be infinite dimensional. I don't know of an explicit example where the spectrum on an irrep is not discrete, but that could just be because I know very few examples
I think on a compact Lie group G with bi-invariant metric, the Laplacian is the Casimir operator of the bi-regular G×G representation, and Peter-Weyl gives $L^2(G) \cong \widehat{\bigoplus}{\pi \in \widehat{G}} V\pi \otimes V_\pi^*$, with the Laplacian acting as scalar $c(\pi) = -\lambda(\pi)$ on each block. On a compact homogeneous space G/H, the G-invariant Laplacian commutes with the left G-action by definition, so it acts as a scalar on each irreducible G-subspace of $L^2(G/H)$ by Schur's lemma. When (G,H) is a Gelfand pair, each irrep appears at most once and the scalar completely determines the representation
Beluba
On G the laplacian is the quadratic casimir coming from the chosen bi-invariant metric, so the exact scalar and sign depend on normalization, and on G/H it acts by a scalar on each irreducible G-isotypic summand because it lies in the commutant of the left G-action. in the gelfand pair case the spectrum is multiplicity free, but the eigenvalue determines the representation only if different spherical irreps do not share the same casimir eigenvalue, which can fail in general if I recall right away
no, it doesn't quite work. to define a nice Laplacian on G/H, you need to start with a right invariant Laplacian on G, since it needs to commute with the action of H. but the action of G on G/H is on the left
On compact groups, things are much simpler because you have bi-invariant metrics
but in the compact case G/H, with G noncompact, what is the representation theory side
I've been learning about non positive-integer Sobolev spaces (things such as H^{-1/2}), defined through the Fourier transform (or Fourier series, when working on tori. In what context are these used? Their definition feels a little bit convoluted
You'll still have the decomposition of L^2(G/H) as a discrete direct sum with multiplicities as far as I can tell
If I consider the compact riemannian homogeneous case the laplace-beltrami operator is G-invariant and can be realized from a suitable G-invariant metric. It might be satisfied 
At this point it matters more if H is compact, and previously we could say something on SL(2,R)/SO(2)
They are a pretty nice description (good functional analysis properties) of some amount of regularity - H^s is -s derivatives away from L^2 etc, in many contexts it is natural to have to consider non integer spaces because you want a sharp result or are interpolating. Also see Schwartz kernel
tbh many proofs pass through the fourier transform, so it shouldn't be a strange notion
and like there's many instances of theorems of the form: if s>=n/2 (say) then H^s has this property. n/2 need not be an integer
Yes non-integer spaces exist for W^{s,p}, p\neq 2 as well, and also stuff like Besov. Interesting to note that proving equivalence of fourier definition and "norms weak derivative" definition of H^s spaces requires some nontrivial machinery
Given your H^{-1/2} case I find this cool excersie for the invscid SQG equation quite resonant.
Prove that for any $\theta_0 \in L^2$ of zero mean, there exists a global-in-time $L^\infty_t L^2$ weak solution to the Cauchy problem of the SQG Equation.
Beluba
This is a different excersie but it quite demonstrates that SQG system of equation we're talking about in the other problem stated earlier
For such proof a special structure of the nonlinear term may be invoked. You may wish to first prove that smooth solutions of the (2.55) equation conserve the quantity $|\theta(t, \cdot)|_{H^{-1/2}}$. One then notes that weak solutions may be defined for any $\theta \in L^\infty_t H^{-1/2}$, by using the $H^{1/2} - H^{-1/2}$ duality pairing.
Beluba
It was originally proved by Resnick for the T^2 case
Oh the S in SQG is for surface?
What an interesting equation to call something quasigeostrophic....
if G is compact then G/H has a G-invariant metric, but this isn't true in general for non-compact groups. It is true if H is compact, because you can average your left invariant metric on G by the action of H on the right, and then quotient by H.
But it's generally not true if your quotient G/H is compact. For example, there is no SL(2) invariant metric on RP^1
When G is compact, things simplify considerably, but this simplification is mainly because your irreducible unitary representations are finite dimensional, not because of the G-invariant metric.
When G is non-compact, it is still useful to consider how L^2(G/H) decomposes as a direct integral of irreps. The reason is that the Laplace-Beltrami operator is an element of some "universal enveloping algebra", and a unitary representation of G induces a representation of this algebra. So you can compute how the Laplacian acts on each irrep that appears in the direct integral
It's funny how the QGPV equation (Quasigeostrophic Potential Vorticity) is more well behaved 
What is the QGPV equation
I don’t know why you’d ever want to use a definition other than the Bessel potential for H^s,p fr but the W^s,p haunt me
Mostly because of skill issues though
“Can compute” in a general sense, not necessarily in a way enough to be useful always though 🥀
Everytime, I think it's QSG
It's just the tendency equation written or derived in conservative form to describe this Rossby waves propagation in atmospheric things
Beluba
This is just the $p$-derivative of $f_0 \mathbf{V}_{\mathbf{g}} = \mathbf{k} \times \nabla \Phi$
Beluba
I don't see the point of deriving it here further. But q is completely determined once the 3- dim distribution of geopotential phi is given.
The inviscid multi-layer quasi-geostrophic equations are considered over an arbitrary bounded domain. The no-flux but non-homogeneous boundary conditions are imposed to accommodate the free fluctuations of the top and layer interfaces. Using the barotropic and baroclinic modes in the vertical direction, the elliptic system governing the streamfu...
Some people just call the general case "multi-layer quasi-geostrophic" Equations.
Ok so if you have vortex stretching then this is a 3d equation set?
Tbh this feels a bit odd to me
A multilayer vorticity equation
Wait but if you have geopotential, that has to modify the potential vorticity
I don't think it's strictly 3d in a sense. each layer is still 2d horizontally, maybe quasi-3d (forgive the terminology) in the sense of stacked 2d layers with vertical coupling, but not fully 3d; the stretching term should let qgpv capture baroclinic effects in a reduced model 
It feels so odd 
But the geopotential thickness has to change to balance changes in the velocity to the thermal wind relation
So there has to be vertical motion, no?
yep. to actually extract some information you need to compute what your Laplacian is in the universal enveloping algebra of Lie(G) (the easy part), and then find simple models for the irreps of G (the hard part). plus these also need to be useful
Yes there has to be vertical motion even if we can neglect its smaller effect comparatively to the horizontal one so we don't generally violate this balance change. There's this whole Omega Equation in the QG theory that deals with the vertical velocity calculation.
(the hard part) kills me
Better to just use (multi layer) shallow water
The numerical versions of QG and RSW models generally have completely different implementations too. There's a certain paper I've seen trying to formulate the former into the latter using projection to acquire a slightly similar implementation. So I generally agree
I know for some perturbation function $\Theta (x)$ it must be zero on the boundaries ($\Theta\vert_{x=0,L}= 0$), but is there any restrictions on its derivative(s)?
KySquared
What context are you working in?
I have a coupled system with an initial temperature profile of $T(z) = 1-z$ on $z\in [0,1]$
Im then adding the perturbative term but I just want to think about all conditions $\Theta$ must satisfy
KySquared
I'm afraid i still don't understand what \Theta is supposed to be>? Are you doing a variational calculation?
Hey, does anybody know where I can read about Sobolev space extension theorem? During my sobolev spaces class we only covered the case of C^l class domain, but the lecturer mentioned that it's very tight restriction and that in reality one only need the domain to be Lipschitz. I'd like to read about it a bit more
Leoni, Adams & Fournier
I think the Lipschitz extension theorem is in Stein’s singular integrals book
guys, thank you very much, I'll look into that
It’s also probably in Evans-Gariepy
is there always a spherical harmonic H so that it is orthoganol to f1,...,fn but not g? Here the functions are all L2 on the sphere
what are f1, ..., fn and g?
L2 functions on the sphere
can just assume all are linearly independant
no, and the spherical harmonics aren't important here because they are an L^2 basis for the sphere so so what youre asking is just reducible to a countable infinite dimensional hilbert space and the e_i as your orthonormal basis, there are vectors f that aren't orthogonal to any e_i
thats pretty much what i figured, basically any function that has no zero fourier coefficients should be a counter example right?
yep
ty, but also rip 🙁
☠️
Never would I expect to see universal enveloping algebra in pde wth
I mean, this is the rep theory side of harmonic analysis, so it makes sense
isn't this a bit weird as a definition of the adjoint? (L being the second order eliptic operator)
coz our base space is H_0^1, not L^2
so $\langle v, Lu\rangle$ does not equal $\int_U v Lu$ but rather [\int_U v_{x_i} (Lu)_{x_i} + v Lu]
DarQ!
yea, I'm very confused
Adjoins is always defined through bare integration though, not the specific inner product
bruh
? H^1_0 just has the gradients
But this doesn’t matter
It’s not how you define the adjoint anyway
You are looking at the pairing of a distribution with Lu, not an inner product
yea, I mean, if Lu is in H^1_0 then the gradient exists
Underscore zero doing the work
I checked, and H_0^1 has the same inner product as H^1
in brezis at any rate
this is
Notice that Evans is using \langle, \rangle here instead of ()
right
This means that you are not pairing two functions in H^1_0, but pairing with something in the dual space
When you pair a Sobolev function against someething in its dual you always just do this by integrating - without taking any derivatives
Does this make sense?
ok, now I'm very confused 
maybe it's lowk just a typo?
It's not
ok, no, I'm so silly, evans doesn't use the < > coupling at all, I did

anywho, I think it'll make more sense why we are using this choice of the definition of the adjoint once I see the subsequent proof
It should make sense now

I dunno, I don't see it, obviously by using ( , ) we're considering H_0^1 as a subspace of L^2 but I don't know why
Like if you just pair $\langle u, Lv\rangle$ this is equal to $\langle L^* v, u\rangle$ if you use the right defintiions
zeke
You don't want to use (,)
the ( , ) coupling is the definition which gives us (v, Lu) =(L*v, u), though
(u,v) being \int u v
Where is it defined this way?
.
That's not what this is saying
where ( , ) denotes the inner product in L^2(U)?
.
evans is distinguishing between <, > and (, )
You are just wrong though
bruh
You are pointing to a completely different statement
what, why would (, ) two different things in the same chapter? 😭
are you suggesting (, ) and < ,> switched definitions mid chapter, what
Where is the adjoint defined using (,)?
it's not defined using (, ), I'm saying it satisfies (v, Lu) = (L*v, u)
where L* is this
I think this is "wrong" - it is correct in the end, but it misses the point of what is happening
and Lu is this
Lu is in (H^1_0)^* so we should be using the dual pairing
However the pairing just happens to be integrating against each other
Huh this perator is weird
are those partial derivatives?
$Lu = \sum_{i,j} \partial_j (a^{ij} \partial_i u) + b \cdot \nabla u + c u$
TC159
I wonder how to simplify the sum, I assume it can be done
$Lu = \nabla \cdot (A\nabla u) + b \cdot \nabla u + cu?$
TC159
Perhaps its the transpose, but oh well I don't wanna write it down
looks like it's this
Oh god this notation is horrible
It’s that up to a different A fr
I fucking hate it when shit is written in terms of sums
like this
also you have Poincarés-inequality, you can just define the inner product in H^1_0 in terms of the gradients
It’s handy sometimes
Yeah, but it being used as default is fucked up
some shit is basis / orientation independent but sometimes obfuscated by the sums
$L^u = (-\div A\grad u + b\cdot\grad u + cu)^ = -\div A\grad u - b\cdot \grad u + (c-\div b)u$
Sharp, Archon of Severing
Meanwhile I look at this expression and I'm thinking about "oh shit, what are shit shits like the divergence theorem and shit, I can probably use this to derive a weak form for duality with u"
(I am horrible at remembering the multivariable integration theorems xd)
Real
Everything is just integration by parts in some way or just stokes'
You assume the boundary is smooth until you write the proof, that everything is good, and then you see what you actually need
Anyway
Doesn’t work if the point is to get past that easy regularity case
See above complaints about how some embedding norms blow up
Things being false
I'm starting to think that you're interested in low regularity boundary conditions
Shocking I know
But yeah there’s terrible things that happen outside of L^2
Like complete failure of some desired well-posedness results
Ok well, first of all Lp means p in (1,+infty) with the cases 1 and infty being dealt with separately
I mean there’s some stuff for the wave equation that’s true iff p = 2
mfw results in the weak topology, and then you have Linfty and you have to deal with weak star topology
which one is the wave equation?
I really have a hard time remembering PDEs by name xd
$\pdv{^2}{t^2}-\Delta$
Sharp, Archon of Severing
I mean yeah the laplacian is kinda L2 based
I'm sure you have some results with a version for p-laplacians
or something
Weak star is not that terrible for L^\infty, it’s L^1 that turbo sucks
I believe no due to some exponential weights?
I just mean it's annoying to write
"for all 1<= p < +infty this converges in the weak topology. In the case of p = +infty this converges in the weak * topology"
lmao
And nonlinear issues
Anyway yeah that makes sense
In everything except 1, it’s all weak*
Geometric objects, not interacting well with non-geometric objects makes sense
They're reflexive so of course weak is weak* 😭
1 is always the problem child
I dunno, C(X) for me is closer to Lp than Linfty
I don’t think it’s too fair to say that L^p is non-geometric
Sure, but you can't expect Euclidean operators, like the Laplacian to interact well with non-Euclidean objects
maybe I should've written it more like that
Where everything is meant to be interpreted in an intuitive way, without formal justification
I mean it does work well enough for the laplacian though
Just not with the two t derivatives
Works fine with one t derivative too iirc
My PDEs knowledge is mostly due to one extremely intensive calculus of variations course I took last year
But there’s usual positive/negative t slop
We finish the whole book and started going to Brezis and Evans after 
Parabolic regularity doesn’t work for hyperbolic etc
So like PDEs appeared in the context of like EL, and the professor discussed how the modern approach for uniqueness and existence in PDEs is to associate it with a functional
Pretty dope classes, the professor just gave an intuitive understanding of things but we were off to fend off on the book by ourselves
I remember one time I proved a functional was lower unbounded without computing a single value by proving that boundedness contradicts like Poincare or something using a similar in spirit argument to bootstrapping. Mostly because I was lazy to actually evaluate the functional though
Does anybody know a reference for this theorem? I could find the original article here https://www.mathnet.ru/php/archive.phtml?wshow=paper&jrnid=mmo&paperid=97&option_lang=eng, but it's in Russian
here H_N is the N electrons, Z protons schrodinger operator
Is it EL?
Euler-Lagrange
I'm not sure if it's literally euler-lagrange, but there's some variational principle relating (4) and (5), as they say
Anything that's basically "modify an operator, so that you have an expression which integrates 0 against test functions" I call EL. That being said I have not read it. I'm not sure what H_N is
ok?
yea
I think so, yea
Hello, I am looking for a name for functions $f: \real\to\real$ with the property
[
f(x) \leq \limsup_{y\uparrow x} f(y) = \inf_{r>0}\sup_{0<x-y\leq r} f(y) \quad \forall x\in \real
]
This is weaker than left lsc. Under some additional more assumptions it allows for the left continuity of $g$, where
[
g(x) = \sup_{y\leq x} f(y)
]
I think, if we assume $\Gamma(x) = {y\geq x,: g(y) = f(y)}$ not being empty at every $x$, then $g$ has to be left continuous. Similar statements hold for $\sup$ replaced with $\inf$, and ${y\leq x}$ replaced with ${y\geq x}$.
what are you working in @vagrant merlin
There isn't one universally standard short name, but in analysis literature these are usually described as:
Left upper semicontinuous functions
or
Upper semicontinuous from the left
because the inequality mirrors the usual upper semicontinuity condition but using one-sided limits.
So the most common phrase is:
left upper semicontinuous (left USC)
I am working in stochastic control theory
one second i may have something let me work this out ill write it in latex
The condition is strictly weaker than left LSC
Recall that USC implies
[
\limsup_{y\to x_0} f(y)\leq f(x_0)
]
Your image is about upper semicontinuity (USC), while earlier discussion was about delta functions collapsing variables in the Klein–Gordon commutator. The logical mechanism is similar though: a limit condition or constraint removes extra terms.
WildNapkins
Stop using AI
you posted what seems to be AI slop completely unrelated to the discussion
What does this have to do with Klein Gordon
No problem at all — thank you for the clarification. I appreciate you taking the time to correct that. Interpreting it in terms of lower semicontinuity is helpful, and I agree that the condition under discussion is strictly weaker. It’s completely understandable how that mix-up could happen across multiple threads.
<@&268886789983436800> wildnapkins chagpt

ok, why is the very first proof of regularity I ever see which uses energy methods is like
5 pages long
chat is it joever?
take u\in H^1(U), and suppose zeta has this condition:
take $v=-D^{-h}_k(\zeta^2 D^h_k u)$
DarQ!
What is sigma?
the first equality here comes from the fact that \zeta^2 D_k^h u is in H^1 so difference quotients are bounded
zeta, sorry
where does the 2nd inequality come from?
is it poincaré or smth?
this is the difference quotient if that's necessary
I'm rather sure these are the only assumptions you need on u and v
but feel free to ping in case more context is needed
(this is the 5 page proof in question btw 😭)
product rule, first term differentiates the cutoff
You get to go to W bc of the support of \zeta probably
oh right, I'm fucking high
ugh
this whole proof makes no sense to me
each step makes sense ig but I have no idea how we came to find these steps
and why they prove the thing we want ot prove
Does the set up make sense at least? \
yea, you're just trying to prove the quotient differences are bounded in norm
Yeah I mean the idea is pretty typical - we want to get regularity, but we will start we interior regularity so we need to take a cutoff, in addition, since we only have a weak solution we need to use some sort of mollification of the derivatives - here a difference quotient, get the estimate uniformly in terms of the mollifying parameter and then take a limit
IMO difference quotients are annoying but skill issue maybe
[this regards elliptic equation theory]
does anyone know how i could potentially convert a problem like[ \begin{dcases}-u''+p(x)u+x\int_0^1 y u dy=f & \text{almost everywhere on } (0,1)\
u(0)=ku(1), u'(1)=ku'(0) & \end{dcases},]
where $f\in L^2(0,1), p\in C([0,1]), k\neq 1$, and apriori we know $u$ is in $H^1(0,1)=W^{2,1}(0,1)$ (sobolev space), for which we've proved it satisfies the weak form of the above problem, such that the left side is a linear differential operator? We have a theorem that tells us if the first line in the above is a second-order differential operator, then not only does the weak solution (the one concerning the associated bilinear symmetric bounded coercive form, see Lax-Milgram) satisfy the strong problem, but also is more regular, $u\in H^2=W^{2,2}$. I just don't see how i can apply this, since the above functional is not immediately obvious to have the form[ L=-\Delta\underline{\phantom{m}}+\langle b,\nabla\underline{\phantom{m}}\rangle+c\underline{\phantom{m}}]for some function $c$ and mapping $b$.
🇵🇸μ🔆
Why do you think this is elliptic
i mean it basically is, right.
like from what i was supposed to do (namely apply the L-M thm) all is very suggestive to somehow manipulate this problem to turn it into the 2O diff operator form
keep in mind analysis is not my field i only do this cuz i have to.
Is this a homework problem
idk how that helps[-u''+pu+x\int_0^1yudy=-\Delta u+pu+x(\tfrac{1}{2}u(1)-\int_0^1u'\frac{y^2}{2}dy)]
i just have a different integral form
🇵🇸μ🔆
You can do the integral
am i just stupid, what am i missing
u is a solution of a form i don't necessarily have
My bad I’m wrong
so like
i know that i have a solution to the weak problem)
i can get a solution by using a bilinear form associated to this
but i just don't know about the better regularity since this functional is not differential.
sry
ik what you mean now. to prove u is in H^2
i haven't had much sleep, apologies
let $\zeta$ be a cut off function on $V\subset\subset W\subset\subset U$ and $u\in H^1(U)$. And suppose $a^{ij}\in C^1(U)$.
DarQ!
is that supposed to be A_2 or A_1
A_2, sorry
most of this makes sense except for why \zeta_x_j disappeared
coz as far as I can tell we have no other assumptions on the cut off function
yeah because im pretty sure you just use smoothness to deduce all the a_{ij} factors are uniformly bounded and whatnot
so most of the junk just gets absorbed into C
yes
also, \zeta^2<\zeta so that's also figured out
I'm able to justify everything except \zeta_x_j
is there any reason you cant just bound \zeta_{x_j} in the exact same way
you could be then the C would depend on our choice of \zeta
we want the C to only depend on U, V, and the coefficients
and \zeta_x_j could be arbitrarily large so that's not very useful
the choice of \zeta itself really depends on U, V though no
it depends on the choice of W
if W is super tight then \zeta_x_j is large
im aware of this
but my point is that all your choices ultimately boil down to whatever U, V happen to be
hmm
I'm trying to make sense of C only depending on U, V, and the coefficients ig
I think you're right
maybe C does depend on our choice of W but there is a smallest C which gives us the inequality we desire
and that does not depend on W
i remember reading this exact proof and i think i wondered something similar myself, but in a sense W and \zeta both depend on U, V so idk if it really matters
this proof is lowk killing me lmao
for example you could take W to be "halfway" in between U and V, then \zeta only depends on those two
I hate regularity proofs
yeah i slogged through that regularity proof and was like "im good" after seeing the next one ngl
i need to get back to it at some point though
i think after my sieve theory experiences i will be able to tolerate what im looking at a bit more
anyway maybe im wrong about this but its the conclusion i came to alone, if someone else has another opinion im willing to hear it
LMFAO
yea, like, interior regularity looks disgusting enough
boundary regularity sounds 
yeah i think i skimmed it and was like "wow this looks awful"
maybe i will just have to read all the regularity proofs in evans to get a handle of what they are actually doing
like none of the steps individually is unreasonable but you cant help but wonder why this is the method being used
yea, exactly
in this particular proof ig the idea is to just bound the norm of the quotient difference
and then use this characterization
but like
how you come to bound it is distressing
even if someone gave me the choice of v I need to use and the inequality I need to prove it would still take me weeks to come up with a proof like this
yeah now that i look at it (2) is really the key
thats the actual regularity thing which allows you to get an extra derivative
the computations well
i know there is a lot of integration by parts and other nonsense but i will have to digest why this is a good way to proceed
i should probably just read the other regularity proofs and look for similarities
that's actually a good idea
I want to verify whether using this is like
the only idea to get an extra derivative
or more generally proving u is in H^2 instead of proving it's in C^2
and then using some sobolev embedding
a fair question, unfortunately i have no clue
thanks for the sanity check btw!
no problem, we are all suffering together
just to make sure I understand what theorem 4 is really saying
so theorem 1 tells us u has a 2nd weak derivative on all of U
but we can't conclude u is in H^2 since we're not sure its norm is finite
and that's exactly what theorem 4 says
it says the C in theorem 1 actually can be chosen to only depend on U and u is bounded in H^2
is that correct? like, is that the actual significance of theorem 4 or am I missing something?
Are you interpreting it as all of U upto the boundary?
well, u is in H^1 so derivatives on the boundary don't make any sense
also, U is open so it doesn't include its boudnary
yeah more or less
if V approximates U in the first result then you could have blowup of the constant C so you cant really conclude anything nice
This dependence is right to notice yes
I know. I just meant the loc regularity part as on how you interpret it even if u isn't H^1 (it appears non relevant or trivial to you but I wanted to know your interpretation)
Beluba
This implies that, in the generic case, solutions of (ES) can not remain bounded in any high Sobolev space, which embeds into W^{1,\infty} and stating the proof makes the argument clearer.
Almost all of the cases I'm intrested in are answered negatively in low regularity but affirmatively in high regularity. Like those nonlinear invscid damping results that has certain unknown regularity dynamics still
The literature reaches it from low regularity first as a treatment. That's why getting the low regularity bits initially is very reasonable @quick pagoda
It is initially reasonable to read the work of Mouhot and Villani concerning the the Vlasov-Poisson system such as this paper
Going beyond the linearized study has been a longstanding problem in the theory of Landau damping. In this paper we establish exponential Landau damping in analytic regularity. The damping phenomenon is reinterpreted in terms of transfer of regularity between kinetic and spatial variables, rather than exchanges of energy; phase mixing is the dri...
Makes sense
Then one could read the Bedrossian and Masmoudi paper for the invscid damping for infinite channel, and could then follow it with the Ionescu/Jia paper with a boundary/finite channel. The negative low regularity results is primarily in the paper by Lin and Zeng
Low regularity has false things, high regularity only happens locally…..
Yeah it gives pretty false things
You would find a survey of this and other advanced results in the fluid text of Vlad & Bedrossian which is quite nice for beginning stuff
If you see a book named Galdi don't open it until you've been prepared a bit
Noted
Noted noted
Right, there’s a lot of problems that seem to occur
I haven't mentioned Majda and Bertozzi or Temam etc
Things blowing up is bad, but if there were something handy like some particular weighted/orlicz-y global in time solution stuff that would be also curious
I have thought in this direction a while ago but it would just require to explicitly resolve the boundary layer which is kind of weak
Yeah understandable
Anything like upper bounds on how the norm can blow up at infinity, when possible, is always fun
This is indeed fun. You'd have a nice opportunity raising and thinking of solutions around the next case at the end of this paper https://arxiv.org/abs/1506.04010
In a previous article, \cite{Zill3}, we have established linear inviscid damping for a large class of monotone shear flows in a finite periodic channel and have further shown that boundary effects asymptotically lead to the formation of singularities of derivatives of the solution. As the main results of this article, we provide a detailed descr...
Curious but I doubt I’ll get much materialized from it, something to look into though
ig just u\in H^1(V) for V \subset\subset U
are all papers this big?
the average paper being like a hundred page in the least? 😭
Not necessarily lol
There are many short papers but that doesn't mean less dense
I see 
Usually papers this long have a lot of the theory/background developed within it
Shorter papers usually just assume familiarity with the recent literature it's citing
Stan Palasek, Mimi Dai, and Cheskidov have a paper of this instantaneous blow up of solutions to Navier-Stokes equations from the right hand-side
It's like 50 pages, with 20 pages just being the intro. The actual arguments don't last too long, but are incredibly dense
I remember this paper it came in my mind when I was talking with sharp about the BMO^-1 space (in the work by Koch and Tataru which was a quite short paper communicated by Charles Fefferman)
Yeah, it's a decent paper. But hard to follow
Every time

I remember that it was being discussed at your Fluids Seminar when you were supposed to be speaking, and if I recall your advisor and a postdoc were getting stressed just by the title or the very beginning of the paper? It seemed strange to all
Yeah this is what I said in that discussion back then. I've gone through it in depth more but it's still quite dense
Yeah! I was presenting on Roger Temam's paper proving existence and uniqueness to the 2D euler equations
I've now read the Instantaneous blow-up a couple times, each pass going through more detail with a professor that specializes on regularity issues
It's a very opaque paper, that seems to assume familiarity with many strange looking decompositions; and the geometric set up is not clear at all
<@&268886789983436800>
Does anyone know of the derivation for the Allen-Cahn or Cahn-Hilliard equations? I can’t seem to find anything online about it
Have you read the 1958 Cahn Hilliard paper
No
Could you provide the paper’s title?
Does that paper derive the A-C equation?
Ik the C-H equation is an extension of the former so ideally I’d like to work my way up
Really? I didn’t know that
Ig in that case, A-C is a specific case of C-H, right?
the proof of this lemma is straight up delirium 😭
the lemma itself is lowk random af 
i think the lemma itself is reasonable but the proof technique is a bit odd
What is c here
But yeah, on a contrapositive pov, 0 normal derivative at x_0 -> u(x_0) cannot be greater than everything in U
So it's odd conditions but, put another way, it's a way to control u based on boundary normal derivative values, which is a strong way to say things cannot vanish everywhere while u does not (if Lu has some comparison principles, nice properties, etc whatevers)
It's just phrased in a curious way to separate the u conditions from the normal derivative conditions
c is the constant in the elliptic operator L I think
I see I see, makes sense? I guess? Seems odd for that to be zero
Or maybe I'm imagining a different one than intended
hi, a basic question about McKean-Vlasov equations
to work in this setting, we must presume we're working 1) with large populations of whatever (people, neurons, particles, asks and bids in a stock exchange etc) and 2) we should presume that as the amout of interacting objects we're describing goes to infinity, the influence of any object towards another object is negligible, so we can treat the whole population using one mean representative, right?
yes exactly, also included in the latter point is exchangeability, swapping the identity of two birds or two particles doesn't change the distribution because every part of the system is "anonymous"
which is why studying the empirical measure is justified
the influence between any particular objects becoming negligible is called "propagation of chaos"
thanks
ive been trying to understand what the difference between HJB+FPK coupled equations machinery and McKean-Vlasov equations is
it seems that McKean-Vlasov describe this mean representatives behaviour whereas FPK describe the whole population distribution denseness here and there, and HJB is describing the most optimal way for an object to reach the desired goal
every mckean vlasov process has a FPK equation
adding on HJB turns it into a mean-field game system, it encodes the assumption that every agent tries to rationally maximize their utility (with perfect foresight)
so HJB part implies that every agent wants to reach some goal?
and shows how its done if it chooses the optimal path
yea exactly, if you know about dynamic programming from an algorithms class, HJB is just dynamic programming, trying to optimize some goal function
nice
and if i may
how does it interact with the mean field control tools?
hjb is used there a lot i believe?
the optimization problem each agent is trying to solve is an optimal control problem
each agent finds an optimal policy (whatever actions the agent can take over time) in the sense of maximizing their goal function
mean-field game theory is just combining optimal control with mckean–vlasov diffusion
i mean ive seen mean field control being described as a holistic area of research, sorry if i brought a non existent thing into the conversation
there was a mention of MFG and MFC being distinct areas of math
somewhere
so i thought that was a thing of its own
yea they're both things
here's a paper on mean-field optimal control: https://www.numdam.org/item/COCV_2014__20_4_1123_0/
we address the situation where the individuals are actually influenced also by an external policy maker
I don't know too much about mean-field control, but there seems to be a nice introduction to MFGs and MFC here https://www.pnas.org/doi/10.1073/pnas.1922204117
Mathematically, MFC models are similar to potential MFGs. The key difference in MFC is that a central planner devises an optimal strategy
ill look into both
btw ive heard that Carmona & Delarue 2 vol set on MFG is the most comprehensive treatment of the subject as of now
do you think its a good point to start? in the prologue they state they were trying to make it self-contained and as pedagogical as possible
thats actually pretty sick, i was just thinking of how we can solve it using ML tools
I've read a little of it, it is pretty great but long
all of the papers on MFG in general seem to be pretty recent too btw
yea definitely
if you go to my thesis, I link a good number of sources at the end of each section
those are the best ones I found, for each topic
the whole field started only in the 2010s
yeah
also ive just looked into your thesis and you mention Pierre Cardaliaguet there whose lecture on MFG ive found just a few hours ago lol
the field seems to be quite small huh
Yup he's one of the original inventors
He has the influential paper about the master equation and systems with common noise
master equations look scary
i found out that Lions is considered one of the founders of the theory
yeah lasry and lions were the starters
carmona & delarue, and cardaliaguet are the other big names
in Carmona & Delarue they mention his L-differential calculus and Lions derivatives in the very beginning
carmona & delarue work more on the stochastic control side I think
yeah they mention they work in the probabilistic setting
yea
(idk which other setting there's though??)
like looking at MFG through PDE lens solely or something
yeah
something I enjoyed about mean-field games is that it unites a lot of distinct areas of math together
and a huge ton of applications lolol
I was mostly using it as an excuse to learn more math rather than the specific theory or modeling aspects
haha
I'm not convinced by the applications, I think there hasn't been enough time passed to assess how useful they've been
but I gave a few in my thesis anyways for fun
the idea of looking how large amounts of agents interact with each other and sense the mean feel of the population rather than their immediate neighbours influence seems to me rather plausible and applicable in nature
anyways I've read somewhere that the mathematical framework came from statistical physics initially
so I'll just think it was motivated by nature processes themselves lolol
thats partly why when i learned that such an area of math existed i immediately became interested
anything involving different kinds of cool math is great if its not connected to algebra
hahahahaha
yes, mean-field theory came from studies of particles in a gas
david tong has some nice notes on a two-semester course in statistical physics
and mit ocw also has lecture videos on it
the assumption that all agents interact "anonymously" with identical strategies feels very strong, combined with the assumption of perfect rationality
I'd be interested to see how evolutionary game theory fits into the picture
isnt anonymous here equivalent to treating any agent interchangeably with another? or what new information does the property of being anonymous bring
and perfect rationality seems to be how cells act (thats the application im most interested in)
Yeah, I'm thinking about for example human social networks: I certainly don't interact with my friends the same way I interact with random strangers
It's unclear to me empirically how much you can reduce e.g. epidemiology on graphs down to these mean-field game systems
I imagine cells mostly interact locally though, right? like it's strange for the action of a cell to depend on the action of cells in state space that might be located very far physically
yep they act based on what cells surround them, so distribution of cells in space matters
oh i think ive seen it under the name of weighted agents or something, when you entitle some with more influence than others
That being said, I think it's really nice as a normative model so that you can compare the behavior of biological systems to predictions from rational agents and see if it matches up or how it deviates
Normative models are always welcome in biology
what area are u working in?
I wrote my master's thesis as an introduction to mean-field game theory
the coefficient of u in L
What are tips to non dimensionalising a pde?
in my exams its just annoying because i cant seem to get their answer
Can you give an example of an equation you're struggling to nondimensionalize
tensor train decomposition 
viscous burgers equation
how do i solve this btw?
you could use the method of characteristics since its a first order PDE
<@&268886789983436800> clear gpt response
and the account is just advertising their tutoring service
(sorry, I'm on my studying account)
wikipedia is enough, i think. you can find pdfs from stanford or cambridge too, that are very good
i was gonna reply with "gpt slop" but wasnt sure so i didnt
I dont understand distributions im not sure how to prove how something is a fundamental solution to a PDE using the definition Let $\Omega \subset \mathbb{R}^n$ be open and let $a_\alpha(x) \in C^\infty(\Omega)$. Consider a linear differential operator $L = \sum_{|\alpha|\leq m} a_\alpha(x)\partial^\alpha$. We say that a distribution $E \in \mathcal{D}(\Omega)$ is a fundamental solution of L in $\Omega$ if $LE = \delta$
n
Okay so lets say you havea pde
is LE "multiplication" of the solution and linear differential operator (which im assuming is the pde we are tryint to show E is a solution to)
im just in general confused how to show that you obtain LE is equal to the dirac delta like if you are using a test function to define LE for example, (E(x,t) is the heat kernel) - like LE is defined as following but why as an integral $-\int_{\mathbb{R}^{n+1}}E(x,t)[\partial_t\varphi(x,t)+\Delta \varphi(x,t) ] \ dx \ dt$
n
It is delta as a distribution in the sense that you need to apply it to a test function
ive been looking at the wikipedia page for distributions but idk its more or less helpful
yea i guess i get that but how would i prove such thing
like show this integral ends up being the dirac delta at the origin
Usually it involves some sort of integration by parts and special properties of your kernel
It’s not just something you can do completely abstractly
oh
hmm
Can anyone please help me to solve it, really urgently needed it....
I understand the maximum principle will be used but don't understand how?
What have you tried
Take some v(x,y)=e^2x cos(2y) then consider like u(x,y)-\epsilon v(x,y). Butdid not work really it is not my idea gpts but i find the error there.
can someone check my proofs please? with showing that the heat kernel is a fundamental solution to the heatoperator
using the theory of distrubutions
Don't use GPT, try considering your maximum principle argument
What stops it from just being "apply maximum"
maybe you could try v(x,y) = cosh(cx) * cos(cy) and search for a fitting constant c. I guess c = 2 fits the condition from Omega
ok, so huge technical proof incoming
I want to make sure I haven't glossed over any underdevelopped technical conclusion, so (25) is true because, first, D_pL(Du, u_k, x) is a linear functional on (L^p)^n
since it's bounded on G_\epsilon and U has finite measure
and then we're implicitly using (iv) here, right?
this is the only reason why I could explain our choice of F_\epsilon and E_\epsilon
to make D_pL(Du, u_k, x) converge in norm (as a linear functional)
Urgent help needed a problem please.
yeah i guess that does work, my notes have a different justification
please do say
why is it so urgent?
is your deadline drawing near or smth?
It was some part of posdible question in exam, and professor asked however possible try to solve this before coming to exam. I tried nothing clicked sent it here.
i had some comment about uniform boundedness but frankly i dont know what the intent of this line of reasoning was anymore
i like your justification better anyways
when i read this proof initially i think my main gripe was with (24)
(24) is just the DCT, right?
wait, no, not precisely, hmm
i remember (25) also gave me a lot of trouble but (24) raised an eyebrow because in principle you dont need uniform convergence of L(Du, u_k, x) to L(Du, u, x)
uniform convergence doesnt necessarily behave well under composition
it doesn't? even if L is continuous?
with uniform continuity its fine, but i think regular old continuity is technically not strong enough
right
i think for this proof its ok because uniform convergence implies (u_k) is uniformly bounded, so if you restrict to some large enough compact set then L(p, z, x) is uniformly continuous
yea, that's what I'm thinking
I mean, you don't even need uniform convergence of L(Du, u_k, x), right?
you just need a.e. convergence
and then, since L(Du, u_k, x) is bounded and U has finite measure then you just use the DCT
now that I think about it, same for D_pL(Du, u_k, x)
you dont' need uniform convergence for convergence in L^p'
yeah i guess DCT is fine
i cant think of any reason it would fail
i think the main point is that (u_k) is uniformly bounded
and then the other coordinates are checked by definition of F_epsilon
well, now I'm confused
if we didn't use uniform convergence in (24) nor in (25) then why did we use egoroff to get a uniformly convergent subsequence?
as far as I can tell, we just need F_\epsilon
uniform convergence of u_k -> u implies (u_k) is uniformly bounded and therefore so is L(Du, u_k, x)
if you didnt know it was uniformly bounded then DCT could fail
i got too stuck thinking about uniform convergence => interchange of integrals
but DCT is easier for this
uniform boundedness still matters though
yeah if it did not this argument fails terribly lol
What have you tried
Try converting the setup into weak form and plugging in a test function that would imply the result
I do not understand the line "If uε attained a local maximum at an interior point then Δu≤0."
the laplacian of u is the trace of its hessian, and at any interior local maximum the hessian is negative semidefinite
so the trace and therefore the laplacian is <= 0
thanks!
Tbf the sentence also is weirdly written
<@&268886789983436800> spamming across many channels
Dont spam your message, use one channel.
Are the messages in the other channels going to be cleaned up?
The Allen-Cahn equation is the result of L2 gradient flow on the Giznburg-Landau free energy for a given potential function
wtf is the "standard approximation argument" in question here? 
like, if Du_k converged to Du strongly
why does det Du_k converge to det Du?
I checked chatgpt and it gave this answer
and I'm sorry but like
???
amd I supposed to know this off the top of my head or smth?
It doesn’t mean uniform, but det being continuous is the reason
no, as in it converges in L^q/n
It is useful to know that the determinant and inverse of a matrix are polynomial in the entries for stuff like this
That’s all this statement really is
Ok I guess you can also just say the determinant is a polynomial so it’s differentiable and hence Lipschitz
Or locally lipschitz
Like you don’t need to write the estimate like that, though I guess that’s more or less obvious from the proof of differentiable implies locally Lipschitz
but Du_k doesn't necessarily converge to Du a.e.
🥀
just in L^p
No but it’s good to make this clear to show that the constant depends on the norm of the thing
I mean kinda
that's just how polynomials work
You aren’t using a.e. convergence - you are presenting both sides of the identity as two continuous functions on your function space and then since they are equal on a dense set, they are equal on the whole space
That’s it in spirit, the details might be slightly different
well, sure, but how do I show they're continuous
this should boil down to bounding both operators
but I don't know how to do that
this doesn't follow from det simply being continuous
Bruh
Where in evans is this/what are the assumptions on p?
Well it's not linear
page 449
This is why something like this is very helpful lol
section 8.2
Anyway, if it works when you converge pointwise a.e. then you always do
Because like, take sub sub sequences
Do you remember the Sobolev chain rule?
Chapter 5 ex. 17
well, now you need a bound to use DCT
Pointwise estimate
yes, well, sure, I'm just saying this may or may not be off the bounds of "standard approximation argument"
Which sure seems doable given the integrability exponents involved
Idk it seems pretty doable to me, the only trouble is write out a bound for the determinant thing
And that's kinda a polynomial
Lipschitz-y bounds and all that
yea, I'm not sure how to get this using just lipschitz bounds ngl
tbh, I did get my answer
I know how to prove the equation holds for every funciton in W^1,q
I just don't see how it's as easy as yall make it seem
wth is the sobolev chain rule?
Oh just the chain rule
what book/paper is this?
oh evan’s?
yes
I don't understand this very well
how does this show the critical point is not a saddle point?
and I dont see how u(.,\lambda) for any lambda is different from u(., 0) = u(.)
this is such a weird theorem for me
ok, and the proof of this fact is fucking bonkers lmao
The other functions in the family are minimizers as well
In this sense
I think the point is that saddle points are extremal in some way
wdym?
I'm not sure this is necessarily a saddle point
u(., lambda) could just be a family of local minimizers
that's in way the whole reason why I'm confused coz how does this show u(., lambda) is not a saddle point
coz this theorem (the only theorem here!) does not seem to answer the question posed at the intro of this subsection
The u_{\lambda} > 0 condition sort of means that the family gives some sort of nondegeneracy which allows you to write small variations as admissible ones
I mean that it is not a saddle. Saddle points are extremal in that they cannot be surrounded by such a family
from what book this is ?
i will just say that the cases of saddle points usually are excluded because of geometrique properties of I[.] ( convexity / coercivity )
Question: When interpreting some PDE (for example, heat eq) as a gradient flow over Wasserstein space, the W space is of measures, what are these measures, what do they define in the context of the PDE?
They represent the distribution of some conserved quantity, eg the distribution of heat/probability density of particles acting under pure brownian motion for ur heat equation
In general we can look at the actual energy functional that the gradient flow is minimizing and interpret the PDE as the continuity equation that results from how our prob mass moves across the domain to find its lowest energy configuration as efficiently as possible
So again for the heat equation our energy is just the negative entropy and so this forces our measure to spread out evenly
evans
sure, but that doesn't answer why the theorem is significant
I thought the whole point of this section is to show when a critical poiint is at least a local minimum but that's not what's been shown
Did you see this
I did. I'm sorry, perhaps I'm not communicating myself properly
like, first of all, functions of the form w can be very small
indeed, I see no reason why u_lambda can't just be constant
and indeed that does seem to be possible
even if u is a saddle point
u_\lambda is the derivative w.r.t to lambda right?
oh, I thought it was u(., \lambda)
hm
No I think it's the derivative, which gives a nondegeneracy condition on the family
yea, you're right
so u_\lambda is positive everywhere
so at any point x, we can infer that u(x, \lambda) is within an epsilon neighborhood of u(x)?
I would phrase it as for any x, there is some $\epsilon > 0,$ for any $y$ s.t. $|u(x) - y| < \epsilon,$ there is some $\lambda$ such that $u(x,\lambda) = y$
zeke
ok, this makes sense
yea, ok, sure
but now I'm thinking isn't the condition u_lambda>0 super hard to meet?
maybe it's not in practice ig
I mean I think it is
but like, if you take your typical saddle point in R^3, say x-y then the only critical point around (0, 0) is (0, 0)
I think the point is that it is very hard to show that critical points are minimizers
perhaps, tho I would say evans made a very poor job of showcasing that point 
I thought this was just like "here's an easy criterion to verify a crit point is a local minimizer"
but now my question is, why didn't evans just calculate the 2nd variation
I think it's supposed to be an extension of classical statement - which is the jacobi condition
like it was hinted to in the beginning of the chapter
I mean you just have a weak solution - why can you differentiate further?
you can make assumptions about regularity before you prove regularity ig
coz if you don't show your critical point is a local minimizer there really isn't a point of showing it's regular?
for the record, evans in thie subsection does assume u is at least C^1
and not just a weak solution
otherwise he wouldn't be able to swap u_\lambda x_i and u_xi lambda
is it just me or is this like
way too weak
like, the euler-lagrange would just be uhh
like a quadratic on Du
well, not necessarily a quadratic but I suppose for any i, u_xi^a where a<= 2
for any a>2 this would fail 😭
@river path am I getting this correctly
is it just hopeless to get some regularity theory on general lagrangians?
The purpose of this section is to provide a basic example, it’s not meant to cover general elliptic pde theory
But these are the most common types of functionals you will see anyway like -div(A nabla u) = f
But you can try to run the Degiorgi Nash Moser iteration on any Euler Lagrange equation you get
inchresting
I literally just saw this for the first time 5 minutes ago on some random notes on some random PDE course website lmao
they don't seem to be covered in evans tho
are these a standard technique?
Yes but you would need to find a book on elliptic/parabolic pde
It is probably the most famous/important result in divergence form elliptic/parabolic pde
Essentially they say that the mean value inequalities for harmonic functions work for divergence form equations
The iteration schemes also work when q is not 2 so you can run them on p-Laplace type equations as well
inchresting
currently, I'm not super interested in learning more about 2nd order PDEs tbh
out of curiosity
what's the usual "next step" after evans
You decide which type of pde you like and find a more advanced treatment of that subject
makes sense lmao
and I'm assuming after that you just start reading papers?
Yeah you can but evans doesn’t really prepare you yet to read papers
But yeah after you maybe do one more book you should be good
an exciting propspect
or perhaps a dreadful one
can't really tell from my vintage point
currently, after evans I think I wanna go into optimal transport and gradient flows
and hopefully after 1-2 books there I'll be able to read papers too 
Nice, I have no background in this so I wouldn’t know lol
but yea, gradient flows do intersect PDEs heavily so I might shift back
Is monge ampere related to optimal transport somehow?
Some masters student told me this a couple years back but I don’t really see the connection
monge ampere came from optimal tranport originally
they're basically the PDE satisfied by the optimal transport map
but they're more like PDEs for the sake of optimal transport
Of course, there's the other way around
wherein optimal tranposrt allows you to model evolution PDEs as some sort of geodesic or a gradient flow in the space of probability measures
first instance of this was due to otto felix, he did it for porous medium equations
it's pretty cool
thanks! so the space where we are decaying the energy functional over is the "possible distributions" of some continuous density?
im trying to train neural networks to perform gradient descent, though right now i havent tackled the wasserstein space
Yes
Is there a specific NN structure ur trying to optimize if I may ask?
actually its just an MLP, a physics-informed MLP specifically that, at the n-th training step has to predict a function (neural field) that satisfies the PDE (contunuity eq.): the twist is that I force the NN to monotonically decay the energy functional, "ensuring" (really moreso, nudging) convergence
Sounds interesting. Do u just kinda slap the energy functional onto the loss function with a Lagrange multiplier?
Thats what normal PINNs do (except they slap the PDE residual into the loss), I may do that but I want there to be a "global clock", and at the n-th "time"-step, the NN is trained to satisfy the PDE, and the constraint is that the energy of the predicted solution has to be lower than that of the n-1th "time"-step
What is this perspective usually used for? Does it help you get new estimates or help with regularity/existence
that's a good question
I have no idea
I'm yet to read otto's paper
but it's supposedly quite successful
it spawned the whole JKO scheme thing
which is quite a hot research topic rn
Based on just reading this introduction it seems like yes, it can give new estimates https://cvgmt.sns.it/media/doc/paper/7085/lecturenotes Chania Santambrogio.pdf that’s pretty cool!
as I recall from a talk, looking at a PDE as gradient flow on wasserstein space is great because a new definition of distance => new topology => things that were not convex in R^n may be convex under our new definition of distance. Which i guess would give some good guarantees on existence/convergence as you said above. not to mention we can use new discrete schemes like JKO
ah and i just saw the PDF is about JKO!
im trying to learn it too
How do we compute what a^{ij}(x) is if we don’t know what u is?
Like, sure, it’s a solution to this equation
But how do we know the smallest eigenvalue goes to 0?
Like it’s definitely positive, but not necessarily approaching 0
Typically in the case when you have a^{ij} = a^{ij}(x,u,Du) you want ellipticity bounds independent of x, u, Du - though maybe there are cases where you can assume some weak form and then bootstrap a stronger condition
So here it is zero as that is just the only bound you can prove a priori
I hate these notations, but like uhhh write out the Nabla • thing a bit more, and use that the divergence is zero to see that that eigenvalue drops
Since that minimal surface thing constrains those a_ij
I don't know a good slick intuitive argument offhand to why this works out tho
This is very nice though
Im trying to derive the variational form of Possion’s equation, but I’m missing a 1/2 factor and I can’t figure out why
\begin{align}
-\int u(x)v(x) dx &=\int f(x)v(x)dx\
\text{let } v(x) &= u(x)\
\implies \int \left(u’(x)\right)^2 dx&= -\int f(x)u(x)dx
\end{align}
KySquared
There should be a 1/2 on the LHS on line 3 but idk how that comes up
Are you sure (1) is right
What's up cool people
Where do you all recommend learning di giorgi-nash from
bonus points for parabolic stuff as well
Imbert has some notes that go over it in some linear settings but for elliptic, parabolic, and kinetic
Looks excellent thanks!
Specifically linear stuff so no iteration in nonlinear stuff, but I dunno anywhere else that covers kinetic
In that same flavor anyway
I also like “An Introduction to the Regularity Theory for Elliptic Systems, Harmonic Maps and Minimal Graphs” by Giaquinta and martinazzi, they have 3 or 4 proofs (de Giorgi, moser iteration, and some others)
Only for elliptic equations though
Includes system-y things though
Second

Yes. By elliptic existence/uniqueness theorems, there exists a solution to $\begin{cases} \Delta u = u & \textrm{on } B_1 \ u = -u & \textrm{on } \partial B_1 \end{cases}$. We define $0$ to be any value in the image of $u$. We claim that $0$ is well defined.
yo this is new too
bruh
isn't that cyclical
ryc
I'm a bit confused here, how can the solution to the BS PDE be AS?
Am I missing some obvious algebraic trick to force it to be true? I don't get how you can turn Kexp(-r(T-t)) into that
?
@atomic maple aren't you the resident math finance guy, why haven't you forced them to make a channel for you yet 
what does it mean for the underlying to not pay out dividends?
The stock S has no dividend payments
i was told that's what advanced probstats is for
So won't impact the option price
lame 😭
:/
Is this Q really obvious? It's the first exercise in my notes but I don't get it
How can the option price be A * S?
isn't the black scholes equation $$\pdv {V}{t} + \frac 12 \sigma^2 \pdv[2]{V}{S} + rS \pdv{V}{S} - rV = 0$$
Steakanator
Missed S^2 by the 1/2 but yea
well in this case it doesn't matter so 
huh?
that term is 0
Sure since AS partial differentiated against S twice
The main issue is partial AS against t
I assume you are proposing just set V = AS and see what happens?
quite so
$$A\pdv {S}{t} + rAS - rAS = 0$$
Sam W
Sam W

yeah that's about it
How does that show that it is a solution though?
or well hmm
guess I was just overthinking it
it's a solution if it satisfies the pde
The summands are the coordinates of the gradient
And the gradient is zero, so all the summands are zero?
(I'm sleepy I might've chain rule'd wrong in my head)
What's the context btw?
But they're multiplied by partials of phi
this is about envelopes for nonlinear 1st order
evans page 94
Isn't that the chain rule?
You're composing with u with (Id,phi)
The first term of the rhs of the first equality is what comes out of Id, the second term what comes out of phi?
yes but why is the second term 0
I think that term might be (10) by definition pretty much?
Sorry I'm really sleepy and I don't have paper at hand 😓
Let me see if I can figure it out
(12)*
Ok, D_a is just taking the gradient on the A part of the coordinates
So if you just restrict to that part of the space, the summand is pretty much just (12) expanded by using the chain rule I think
It's a bit confusing cause one would expect the non-A coordinates to not affect it, but it does cause now a is phi(x), ie depends on the first few coordinates
but phi(x) is a
The a in D_a is not phi(x) fwiw
It just vaguely represents the fact that you're considering the gradient restricted to A
so it's still gradient wrt x
It's a part of it
Not the entire gradient
Like in the heat and wave equations but more general, if that makes sense
When you ignore the t part of the gradient, you're similarly ignoring the non-A part here
Thinking about this proof with the heat equation might actually be a good way to get some intuition for it I guess
Like, in heat equation terms, the hypothesis of this theorem would be somthing like saying the temperature is constant across all space for fixed t, but depends on t
I think
Basically, the second summand is evaluating the A-gradient at the vector D_x phi(x_i)
Well not exactly evaluating it
More like taking the inner product?
But since the gradient is zero that will be zero too
is this out of evans?
yes
I skipped all the characteristic and envelope stuff
I can tell you what not to do
Anything by Thomas Liggett
I chose a rather technical paper to present on, and it was just
Not good
👀
well she said we can just pick whatever's in the book that she hadn't talked about in class
or something else
and specifically anything that isn't algebra lol
so I'm thinking something about Hamilton-Jacobi
Sobolev spaces are really cool
So is regularity theory
There's also lots of fun stuff in calculus of variations
Like energy methods
Taking minimizers
we went through sobolev tho
Ah ok, so that's all about weak formulations, Lax-Milgram
Regularity, etc.
That stuff is kinda fun
Gorgeous channel
That's exactly the point
I need to get back to work in Evans. I only solved like 2 or 3 problems in chapter 6
and it's been a good while
It's a little annoying to have harmonic and PDEs in different channels since I'm at the intersection of both
But eh
I think they're cursed tbh
As I was reading that section of Evans I was like "ok sure I've got an intuition here" but all the while I'd just been thinking about functions from R to R
And ohhh boy will that lead you astray
Fun fact, my first PDE class started with sobolev spaces
Evans has just two cute examples to leave you in utter horror at what a function in Sobolev space can look like, and it's more than enough
A nice corollary, it's that one can send its Functional Analysis questions, or Applied Functional Analysis questions in both channel depending on the goel

