#advanced-pdes
1 messages · Page 12 of 1
ben
this wil be a while because i need to rigorosly clarify the rankine condition
with $f \in C^2(\mathbb{R})$ and initial data $u(x, 0)=u_0(x) \in L^{\infty}(\mathbb{R})$
ben
then what is the issue @unkempt wharf
i've stopped typesetting, waiting fr the exact confusion
hope this helps f′(u)=v(u)+uv′(u) is the character speed
where v = f / u
and this is same as v when f = C u
btw there are rigorous proofs fr these, as you prolly know
in diff geom sense
i only used the wordline thing to call a param curve because i hv a string theory back
Are fractional sobolev spaces related at all to fractional derivatives in the sense of this article: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fractional_calculus ?
Fractional calculus is a branch of mathematical analysis that studies the several different possibilities of defining real number powers or complex number powers of the differentiation operator
D
{\displaystyle D}
D
f
(
x
)
=
…
@neat spoke can you be slightly mr sepcific
like there are cnnection bw frac sololev are where the riez derivs are
but then are lioville derivs which arent the same
if you're more precise i can help
I mean, the H^s Bessel potential-y spaces are kinda exactly designed to work with the Sobolev multiplier-y fractional derivatives (with maybe mildly sussy details for 0<s<1 and bad domains)
Since it’s like the space where (1+Delta)^s/2 is nice
it is never "truly defined" as such on domains even smooth, because it involves compatibility boundary conditions. Only holds for R^n and manifolds without boundary
Well yeah but nothing can be nice on domains
It can but not that way
concerning this wikipedia article with such definition it necessarily restrict to the analysis on the half-line [0,+ infty), or [0,T], T<\infty.
Functionanatolysis
note that the restriction s in [0,1/p) is mandatory, in general it does not hold as such for say s in (1/p,1]
However, one can define such fractional derivative on the whole line instead of the half-line, for which I won't give details here
Functionanatolysis
What is meant by the $\simeq_{p,s,n}$ notation? That the two norms are equivalent?
MisterSystem
Yeah $A \simeq_{p,s,n} B$ means $A < C_{p,s,n} B, B < C'_{p,s,n}A$
zeke
Zeke did answer well. Note that on the whole space case the restriction on s has been removed, but CANNOT be removed on the half-line.
Finally proving this kind of result is highly non trivial and requires deep (but very well known) harmonic analysis.
And on the whole space case the definition IS NOT the same has the one in your Wikipedia article (but still has a form close to this one)
I assume it's because on the whole space you can apply a dilation argument?
Like, how you guess correctly for which q you have an embedding W^1,^p(R^n) -> L^q(R^n)
Maybe this is not the issue here because R_+ is closed under scaling by posite reals
Not really
It's just the first thing that comes to mind nowadays when thinking about proving embedding results
Guess for free it holds for p=q
Then dilation argument
It holds q=p*
Then it holds for q between p and p*
Isn't this kind of counterintuitive?
I would guess that the bigger the k, the bigger the subset (in terms of dimension) that could serve as a domain to evaluate f.
Because the bigger the k, the more regularity you have.
I got a question
When we're trying to solve the poisson equation for a C2 function u in a domain U, we derive a representation formula for u using the fundamental solution for the Laplace equation.
Now we do this via applying the Green's formula on U minus a ball.
My question is, when we apply the Green's formula directly on U and not U minus a ball, we do not get an additional "u" term, which we do get after applying green on U minus a ball and taking the radius of the ball going to 0. Why is that?
I mean, can we apply the Green's formula directly on U anyways? It does have C1 boundary
Is it because we're correcting for the point where the fundamental solution of the Laplace equation would not be defined? If so, then the integral should be over U minus that point, not U, right (I mean, even if it is, it doesn't change anything really, right? Coz like the integral doesn't change over zero sets? Am I going right or am I confusing stuff?)
But even after correcting for it, why couldn't I just apply Green's formula on U minus the point? I would still not get the additional "u" term? Why does it only come after working with U minus a ball and then approximating the point by the ball?
Maybe the problem could be that I cannot apply green directly on U minus the point, but I dont know why.
This is kinda a follow up to my question yesterday, can someone please tell me what’s being “added and subtracted” here?
Here is the full page for context:
(Im looking over lecture notes, not a textbook, that’s why there aren’t equation numbers)
Wdym by "what's being added and substracted"
So you have [\tau_{ij}=\frac{c_1}{2}\left(\pdv{u_i}{x_j}+\pdv{u_j}{x_i}\right)+c_2(\nabla\cdot\mathbf{u})\delta_{ij}] and you write $\mu=\frac{c_1}{2}$ and then you split [c_2(\nabla\cdot\mathbf{u})\delta_{ij}=-\frac{2}{3}\mu u_{k,k}\delta_{ij}+\lambda u_{k,k}\delta_{ij}] so $c_2=-\frac{2}{3}\mu+\lambda=-\frac{c_1}{3}+\lambda$ so $\lambda=c_2+\frac{c_1}{3}$
守沢 千秋
So we’re defining the c_2 div(u) term in terms of mu?
$c_2(\nabla \cdot{\mathbf{u}}) := -\frac{2}{3}\mu u_{kk}\delta_{ij} + \lambda u_{kk} \delta_{ij}$?
What do you mean
KySquared
The c2 div u term is already in tau ij
Right
But what “split” is going on? The div?
Yes
I think(?) they should be matrices as the i’s and j’s from the identity dont get contracted w/ the k’s in u
But i can easily see how these could also be vectors since vI = Iv = v
I have no clue what you've written
$\mathbf{u} = [u,v,w]$, so $\nabla\cdot \mathbf{u} = \partial_x u + \partial_y v + \partial_z w$
KySquared
…
How on EARTH did i switch div with grad in my head when I got to the next step

$\mathbf{u} = [u,v,w]$, so $\nabla\cdot \mathbf{u} = \partial_x u + \partial_y v + \partial_z w$\
\begin{align}
c_2 \left(\nabla\cdot \mathbf{u}\right) \delta_{ij} &= c_2 \left(\partial_x u + \partial_y v + \partial_z w\right) \delta_{ij}\
&= \left(\lambda -\frac{2}{3} \mu\right)\left( u + v + w\right)
\end{align}
KySquared
?
Oh
When i did this I was thinking if the div was some scalar multiple of the field’s sum, guess that’s wrong
Im just gonna go back to square 1 so i stop looking like a fool
I mean, if it makes sense for k=1, iterating that should be pretty similar
Anyone familiar with this proof from Jost? I don't see how the energy of b_{\lambda,t} is related to the d^2 between two lifts of c_{\lambda}. Also how is it related to the L2 distance between g and g_{\lambda}?
I am talking about the non-simply-connected case of course.
Probably better to ask this in #diff-geo-diff-top
I feel like in this server, PDEs ppl are more likely to have read Jost than diffgeo ppl.
Is there a flow which preserves the uniform lower bound on a manifold with say sectional curvature >= c
Say a Euclidean submanifold
Hi, I am reading Hormander's first volume on Linear partial differential equation. In this proof I am not able to see where are they using the fact that (y_j \not\in f(V)), can someone please help me with this. Thanks a lot.
Keshav
Since the things are supported off the image of V under f, you’d have the v terms all equal to the u_eps terms
And those terms don’t go to zero
Whereas the v ones get some cancellation-y stuff going to 0
You mean, under f they are same i.e. v \circ f = u_epsilon \circ f...
I see, did not notice that earlier... I was thinking it was used in construction somehow... but now I see its fact its equal to u_epsilon \circ f there its used. Thanks a lot...
Hey,
I'm trying to solve $-\nabla^2u=f$ with $\left.u\right|_{\partial\Omega}=g$ on a cube $[0,\pi]^3$ but i'm somehow struggling
I split $u=v+w$ such that $v=0$ on $\partial\Omega$ and $w=g$ on $\partial\Omega$. It gives me the now homogeneous problem $-\nabla^2v=f+\nabla^2w$ with $v=0$ on $\partial\Omega$ which is not so hard to solve analytically.
But then comes the coarser part, finding $w$. I thought of defining $w$ on every cube's face and them summing the different contributions. Each contribution is such that it is evaluated at $g$ on its face and $0$ on the opposite face.
The general form of the $x=0$ contribution (for example) is defined as $$W^{(x=0)}(y,z)=\sum_{p,q\ge1}a_{pq}X(x)\sin(py)\sin(qz)$$ with $a_{pq}=\frac4{\pi^2}\iint_0^\pi g(0,y,z)\sin(py)\sin(qz)\mathrm dy\mathrm dz$
Processing $X$ i find it to be $$X(x)=\frac{\sinh(r(\pi-x))}{\sinh(r\pi)}$$ where $r=\sqrt{p^2+q^2}$
I can do that for every face and sum up the contributions. Another problem arises, on the edges i have twice the contribution and even 3 times on corners.
Is it one right way to obtain a pure analytical solution with no prior knowledge on $g$ or am I in the wrong ?
Hokkaydo
on a cube it is not possible to construct such a w in general. There are deep issue with the trace theory and the ability on lifting trace, due to the corners
especially if g is not periodic
The 3-dimensional Torus IS NOT equivalent to the cube in terms of regularity theory for PDEs
people did wrote a lot of bullshit in the literature concerning this fact
For instance the best you can have for solvability of the bilaplacian with 0-boundary condition and RHS in L², on the cube is u in H^{7/2}.
while on the torus it is H^4
People should stop consider cubes/square/hypercubes as the torus. both theory coincide only in the case of an interval
So just stop pls
Teachers/Supervisors do have bloods on their hands
This is very curious and still has the point of nasty differences, but I would wonder if that nabla^2 is meant to be the laplacian that is not bi
Alright thanks aha
I figured another approach, i you have some spare time, maybe could you validate it ?
Yeah, i mean $\nabla^2=\frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2}$
Hokkaydo
Oups my bad, I fully brain farted. Lmao
For the Laplacian itself, yet it is not exactly the same to consider the bidimensional Torus or the square.
Oh yeah I wasn’t saying they’re the same there, but that it’s a good point and that I think it was a different operator 
where did you get this from btw ? ref?
Cannot right now, ping me in exactly 24h if I forget
@astral vine
9 minutes early
If f: R x R^n -> R^n is periodic on t (f(t+w,x) = f(t,x)), then the solution 0 is stable iff it is uniformly stable. Does any one have a reference for this result?
We are using lyapunov stability here
Anyone of y'all well versed in partial integro differical equations?
Dealing with heat memory equations rn
Something doesn't add up
Ima crash out
Could use any tips to make my life easier with them accursed inverse Laplace trasfroms like wth
I know analytical methods don't always work and its compelling to make use of numerical analysis sometimes but i just have a feeling that...my analytical part could use some work..
What is your actual question
So I'm having trouble with the inverse laplacian trasform
It's just pissing me off
I don't think I'm missing out on any theory, i was just wondering if there is a particular way to think about them that I'm missing
Like you know? Certain things seem easier when you think in the right direction
I was asking that
For inverse laplacian transforms
It doesn't haven't to be in the context for IPDEs because the mechanism of the inverse laplace transform is identical in any context
Like have you seen those questions with wierd rational approximations because the denominator is a absolute nightmare
Hi. Can anyone give me a hint as to how to approach part b) of this question?
In this case, $\delta$ refers to the dirac delta function.
Good Luck HSC Students!
Use change of variables
How so? Like x = f(u)?
yeah
If f: R x R^n -> R^n is periodic on t (f(t+w,x) = f(t,x)), then the solution 0 is stable iff it is uniformly stable. Does any one have a reference for this result?
What is f, what is your ODE/PDE problem ? Afaik we do not read in minds
@nova vault @grave matrix Theorem 7.2.2.3 from Elliptic Problems in Nonsmooth domains gives that the solution in the square/cube/hypercube for the bi-Laplacian is NOT H^4, and gives exactly why.
The precise statement concerning the fractional regularity is more involved and combines the results of several advanced papers
x' = f(t,x), we are assuming f is continuous and the solutions are unique
I think this is not true and there are counter examples
Unless I am missing something
Okay, can you point me to any counterexample? This statement is in my book and I didn't agree with an step of the proof
This is from Hale
I am looking for it
Okay my bad the coutner examples I had in mind were for something close but different
I apologize
(it was still for ODEs, and closely related, but tied to the linearized vs non-linear behavior (a bit more than this but still))
Interesting
do you guys have tips on learning pde stuff? I am recently learning basic energy methods and lax milgram stuff for sobolev spaces (poisson equation) but am kind of new to pdes
thx fr ref
Sorry for the late reply. I thought about it for a while, and I think I got somewhere. If you have the time, could you look at my reasoning?
[ \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\delta\left(x-a\right)dx=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\delta\left(f\left(u\right)\right)f'\left(u\right)du ] We use the substitution $x - a = f(u)$, just because if $x=a$ then we can set $u=a$ too. \
Then, because the delta function only contributes at the root of $f$, we can evaluate $f'$ at $a$;
[ \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\delta\left(x-a\right)dx=\left|f'\left(a\right)\right|\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\delta\left(f\left(u\right)\right)du ]
We have the absolute value sign so we don't "swap" the integral bounds. \
Then, we can remove the integral sign because of the properties of the delta function (not too sure on this).
[ \delta\left(x-a\right)=\left|f'\left(a\right)\right|\delta\left(f\left(x\right)\right) ]
As required???
Good Luck HSC Students!
"because of the properties of the delta function"
Kinda made up this sentence, but I think as long as the delta function on the left and right hand side has the same 'root' (i.e in this case, x = a), then it should be fine, right?
to do this rigorously, you need to pair $\delta(f(x))$ with a test function $\phi$ and show that it equals the pairing of $\frac{\delta(x - a)}{|f'(a)|}$ with $\phi$
L
The main challenge here is how to even compute the pairing $\langle \delta(f(x)), \phi(x)\rangle$
L
Because composition with a smooth function $f$ is only defined when $f$ is invertible with smooth inverse.
L
Here you need to sort of isolate a neighborhood around $a$ and then use linearity of the pairing and the usual definition for invertible f
L
How do I isolate a neighbourhood around a? Also, I'm not sure what the "usual definition" for invertible f refers to.
Computing the pairing... is that figuring out what phi(x) is?
It would help if you gave some context for this, i.e. the course you are studying and the way that $\delta$ and operations involving it have been treated in your notes. Some courses treat it pretty informally, so it is not obvious from your question whether you are expected to work with distributions rigorously or play a little fast and loose, like "changing variables" in integrals that aren't actually integrals.
The proper way of making sense of objects like $\delta(f(x))$ is through the notion of the \emph{pullback of a distribution}. You can always pull back distribution by smooth submersions, and for diffeomorphisms, the formula is what one would expect by naively writing the pairing with a test function as an integral and changing variables purely formally.
grobmez
Sorry for the late reply. The course I'm taking right now is a PDEs course. We had just covered fourier series, heat equation, laplacian PDEs, and now we have been introduced to this topic. The course is based off Olver's "Introduction to Partial Differential Equations" where he talks about generalised functions. What you mention as distributions, smooth submersions and diffeomorphisms are completely foreign to me.
Cool, I am glad I asked because indeed this treatment is quite informal. It is a bit hard to prove an identity for $\delta(f(x))$ if one does not first define what this even means. Because of this it is unclear exactly what your prof wants. Avoiding any advanced terminology and concepts and treating $\delta$ informally by writing things as ``integrals", the idea is as follows:
grobmez
If $f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ is a smooth bijection with smooth inverse, then we can change variables" in the integrals" to write
$$\int_\mathbb{R} \delta(f(x))g(x),dx =\int_{\mathbb{R}} \delta(y) g(f^{-1}(y))\left|\frac{dx}{dy}\right|, dy=\frac{g(f^{-1}(0))}{|f'(f^{-1}(0))|}$$
$$=\int_\mathbb{R} \delta(x-f^{-1}(0))\frac{g(x)}{|f'(f^{-1}(0))|},dx $$
where $g$ is a test function. Examining the terms at the extreme LHS and RHS we see that $$\delta(f(x))=\frac{\delta(x-f^{-1}(0))}{|f'(f^{-1}(0))|}$$ because they produce the same result when ``integrated" against an arbitrary test function $g$ (and indeed this is the correct formula if one approaches these objects a little more rigorously).
The above is still valid if you weaken your assumptions on $f$ a bit, for example as in your question. There it is assumed that $f$ has a unique root and the derivative is nonzero there. The idea is that for $x$ near $f'(0)$, $f$ is \emph{locally} a smooth bijection with smooth inverse, and the part of the first integral in my first equation where $x$ is far from $f^{-1}(0)$ is zero, because $\delta$ is supported at $0$, so you can break your integral into two pieces and argue as before for the piece that is not zero.
grobmez
Got it. So for now I will just have to keep in mind this idea of 'changing variables' in the integral, and then trying to equate the integrals using delta and various test functions. Thank you!
Does anyone understand how I obtain the integral of du/dn in the second line ?
Also why do I have $\int_{\partial B_R}f dS rightarrow 0$ when R goes to infinity ? (And f is integrable)
Léone
I solved this question
My bad
It rendered well in my editor when I exported the file
Here is the fixed version
I have this proof by induction for an estimation for harmonic functions (evans page 30), but whenever I try insert the k-1 estimate into the k one as done in the proof, I am left the almost the same as in (31) but a factor of k^n/(k-1)^n which is bigger than 1, so a more loose estimate. Am i missing something? How to get rid of it
I think it works if you dont use $||u||{L^1(B(x_0,r))}$ as estimate for k-1, but keep the induction at $|\int{B(x_0,r')} u(x) dx |$ (applied to $r'=\frac{k-1}{k}r$ ) with absolute value outside the integral and then you can use $\int_{B(x_0, \tfrac{k-1}{k}r)} u(x),dx = \left(\tfrac{k-1}{k}\right)^n \int_{B(x_0, r)} u(x),dx$ following from mean-value property
Knechterich
Don’t worry about the constants too much. You can always get them from scaling
The point is you are controlling a higher order derivative by a lower order one
should i audit my grad level applied pdes as an undergrad (ive only taken intro analysis) - is this a safe bet? im also planning on taking an analysis and geometry class with a focus on PDEs
Do you have the syllabus
yea
the instructor just said it requires intro analysis like the class im taking would be sufficient
but im an undergrad so there might be more hoops for taking it for simultaneous grad and undergrad credit if i want to get a masters at my current institution
otherwise it just appears on my transcript without a grade
I can ss
the prof also has this analysis and geometry class
\
he said he can meet in person to discuss but idk what his schedule is
like he said he's supposedly less busy after early october and well i guess we're almost at november
Oh yeah I think this should be doable
like as an undergrad
Yeah
idk i am also taking quantum 1, classical 1, and physics math methods and possible intermediate abstract alegbra like ringa dn group theory
physics math methods is just applied pdes
so maybe just workload wise it might be better to audit one or the other
Well don't overload yourself
Physics math methods is a fake class don't take it
real but im doing a physics degre
Oh
Well
Having difficulty establishing the bound $\norm{\langle x\rangle^k e^{it\Delta/2} f}{L^2(\R^d)} \leq C \langle t\rangle^k \norm{f}{L^2}$. Not quite sure what tools are needed/what direction to go in.
zeke
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should i just talk in person with the prof teaching with the math pde classes
Ask your school's admin/advisors
yea i have an appointment with them i also may meet with the prof too
i need to study my ass off for my coming analysis exam though like
i hope i will be ok if i do
for the time being
this is for next sem
The pde course feels a bit more vibes-y, the analysis-geometry one seems nifty
idk what is monotonicity like monotone convergence
like strictly increasing or decreasing
omg lol we learned about hugyens principle in physics
well he said the analysis and geomtry course might be more rigorous so why do i not audit that what idk
idk what else about his class structure well idk i might just talk in person
No very much so not
It definitely looks more “real”
If we do not have the japanese bracket and let k=1, we can consider the fourier transform inside the L^2 norm $|x|^ke^{it\Delta/2}f,$ which gives $|\nabla_\xi|(e^{-it|\xi|^2/2}\hat{f})=e^{-it|\xi|^2/2}|\nabla_\xi|\hat{f}-(it)|\xi|e^{-it|\xi|^2/2}\hat{f}$, which transform backs to $e^{it\Delta/2}|x|f-ite^{it\Delta/2}|\nabla_x|f$. If you are assuming the L^2 norm |x|f and f to be constant, I think this gives the bound. Maybe you can look into this direction.
Garlicfrog
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Yeah sorry the norm on RHS should be the weighted one.
Sorry i dont quite get it.
Like it should be $\cdots \leq C (\norm{f}{L^2} + \norm{\langle x \rangle^k f}{L^2})$
zeke
Or something similar
If you are concerned about the japanese bracket, I think after you fourier transform the left hand side, then it follows from sobolev product rule on the frequency domain. the <t>^k term comes from calculating the quantity $\norm{e^{-it|\xi|^2/2}}{H^k\xi}$
Garlicfrog
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Is this finite?
obviously not lol mb I think i did things wrong.
Doesn't this fail at t =0?
Or is the first norm in t as well?
If the norm on RHS is the weighted one, then it does follow: go on the Fourier side where the multiplier <x>^k is <par_xi>^k which amounts to bounding the 0-th norm and the k-th norm. The 0-th norm is trivially bounded and for the k-th, you can take derivatives on both terms and bound.
Hi! I have a little doubt. Do someone know in which spaces H^{s,p} (Besse potential spaces, including negative values of s) can i solve the heat equation u_t-\Delta u = partial_j u, with Dirichlet boundary condition, for instance. Thanks!
how much computational ode and vector calculus would I need for studying PDEs (applied for physics and theoretical using analysis) i sadly don’t rlly remember much
multi variate/vector calculus
i know
And may you tell me?
For instance. Although I would also be interested in the case of bounded domain
okay
wait lemme ask before i anser in r^n ya mean ya wabt an snwer in direchlet domains
cuz i was gona talj about semigrps H^p(r^n)
but then since ya want bounded domains; like c^1
it's a diff kinda issue
For which domain ?
And what does interest you the full Cauchy problem . Or just the initial value one, or just the forcing one ?
What do you aim to have in Hsp, the solution u itself ? The initial data u_0 ?
The answer is certainly yes.
But you need to provide more info about your meaning of "solving"
In general for a bounded Lipschitz domain, I can say that -∆-Dj generates an holomorphic semigroup on Lp for all p between 1 and infinity (included)
It even has the BIP property so that you can identify the domains of the fractional powers of its operator with actual Hsp.
For C¹ domains you can reach the identification more Hsp (a wider range of indices s,p) spaces than for Lipschitz
anyone here has experience working numerically with the KP equation? or good literature references?
Kadomtsev–Petviashvili?
Oh also numerics go in #numerical-analysis
yes
<@&268886789983436800>
Let's please keep shitposts out of the advanced channels @remote falcon
Please don't do that again
can someone give me a hint regarding this exercise? Applying the general Sobolev inequality first leaves me with powers of |u|, I don't know how to elegantly finish the proof. 2* here is the critical Sobolev exponent 2d/(d-2)
First try to cook up a Holder to control the Lq norm by the L2 norm to a power and the L(2n/n-2) norm to a power
How do I use Hölders on a non-L1 norm? And how do I get 2 and 2d/d-2 as exponents? Sorry, I'm not really used to working with Lp inequalities yet and this was supposed to be an introductory exercise 
Since q is between 2 and 2d/d-2 then there exists theta such q = 2theta + 2d/d-2(1 - theta). Then apply your usual holder inequality
ohh I see, thank you

ok so
i've been tasked to solve the heat equation on an elipsoid with $u_t-\Delta u=0$ on $U\times(0,\infty)$, $u=0$ on $\partial U\times[0,\infty)$, and $u=c$ on $U\times{t=0}$
cat bread
where $U={(x,y,z):\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2}+\frac{z^2}{c^2}\leq1}$
cat bread
<=1 or =1
leq 1
If it's <=1 I would say inside an ellipsoid
U is an elipsoid
Ok
obviously this is an easy separation of variables problem and $u=c_1e^{-\lambda t}w(x)$
cat bread
and we use known solution of hemholtz on $\mathbb{R}^3$ where $w(x)=\frac{e^{\pm i\sqrt\lambda|x|}}{4\pi|x|}$ to obtain eigenfunctions
cat bread
Ok let's consider the simpler case of the ball
I would not start with helmholtz
I would instead by finding an appropriate basis for r<=1 that satisfies the boundary conditions
Then solve the pde in that basis
wait why would i not start with hemholtz when this is a separation of variables problem
because i just need to find a basis that satisfies $-\Delta w=\lambda w$ in $U$ and $w=0$ on $\partial U$
cat bread
Well, how do you turn the free space solution into a solution with a boundary?
oh
ohh....
i'd try pulling a solution solely based on the radius because of symmetry
but i'm not really sure how that'd transfer over to an elipsoid?
Well, try doing the spherical case with a non-uniform initial condition
wait a minute
this looks like it just
boils down to heat equation on a rod because of radial symmetry

lmao i was thinking way too hard
i think this also works to the elipsoid too then?
yeah ok this was pretty trivial in retrospect because it boiled down to cookbook ODEs but i'm not sure how carry it to the ellipsoid
Can you do a change of coordinates so that you have a sphere
And then do the appropriate change in the pde
Hi, can anyone explain why this highlighted part is true?
Hmmmm how do I prove this?
I know there's that hint below, but how do I "evaluate the derivatives"?
The integral of the delta function is the Heaviside step function function which has a jump discontinuity of size 1
Hi! How do I get the integral of the delta function here though?
ok so i'm actually not sure how we can bring boundary conditions into the mix with change of variables
If it were a neumann boundary condition then it would be complicated
But it's a constant dirichlet boundary condition
The change of variables turns the ellipsoid into the balls and preserves the boundary so the boundary condition stays the same
so i have the change of variables $x_1=ax,y_1=by,z_1=cz$ on the ellipsoid $U={(x,y,z):\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2}+\frac{z^2}{c^2}\leq1}$ and this obivously reduces it to the ball and our heat equation turns into $u_t+\frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x_1^2}a+\frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial y_1^2}b+\frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial z_1^2}c=0$
Are you sure about those scaling constants
oops should be xa
cat bread
Anyways, once you find the correct PDE in transformed coordinates in the ball, then you consider an appropriate set of basis functions for the ball and proceed from there
damn so i cant appeal to the radial solution with the laplacian anymore
Indeed not

ange's
is terrifying
Does anyone here know about unique continuation/ nodal sets for parabolic pde?
@sonic olive what is the op?
There is a parabolic version of the almgren frequency formula for global solutions, I would like to know if it is possible to get some localized version where I’m integrating over possibly a parabolic cylinder or heat ball, not the entirety of R^n. I haven’t really seen it in the literature and my attempts haven’t been working
is learning multivariable real analysis (like proofs based) better for the study of pdes
im distraught between taking multivariable real analysis or undergrad pdes
only single variable real analysis and lin alg and multivar calc for engineers and physicsist is required for undergrad pdes
what's multivariable real analysis? Like proof based multivariable calculus?
i guess
this is our multivariabel real analysis class
then you should self-study it
PDE class: A basic knowledge of the Riemann integral, including the
improper Riemann integral. Some exposure to the Lebesgue integral will be ideal, but it is not
strictly necessary as I plan to give a “soft” introduction to its essentials. Familiarity with the basics
of partial differential equations (PDEs) is helpful, but not mandatory. A good working knowledge
of advanced calculus and of the notion of partial derivative will be very helpful. Exposure to
integration by parts, aka the Divergence Theorem, will not be essential, as I will provide a crash
introduction, with lots of examples.
can't you take both courses? Learning multivariable calculus is essential for PDEs, so if you had to pick one I'd go for multivariable and learn it very well (also learn Stokes and all that)
I feel like the two courses would complement each other nicely
this is actually grad pdes
idk you only gave the prerequisites
the multivariable real analysis and the undergrad higher level pdes
they're at the same time and day lol
mmh I mean you don't need to go to class I guess. If few students enroll maybe you can ask the prof to change the day/time of lectures
yea the math department is being dumb next semester
cuz why are they both 9 am classes and overlapping
i might just sit on the grad pde lectures tbh
not officially enroll just sit
ehhh i can enroll in the grad pdes
i have another problem im also doing physics and the applied pdes and physics math methods are at the same time as multivar real analysis, and undergrad pdes
i kinda wanna get out of the applied pdes
maybe you can try contacting the professor now, maybe other students have the same worries as you do. It seems reasonable to take both courses at the same time. but idk
department doesnt allow that
already spoke to them
maybe i just sit on grad pde lectures if prof is ok without actually enrollin g
oh I see. Yeah that's fully idiotic
mmh let me change my answer. If you really like PDEs, then yeah it seems alright to just go for the PDE course, but keep in mind that you'll have to learn multivariable calculus anyway if you don't already know it
isnt stokes theorem also taught in differential geometry
Stokes theorem is really a multivariable calculus fact. Going from open subsets of R^n to manifolds (with some adjectives) is a straightforward patching process
hmm
i dont remember much of my engineering and physics multivariable calculus im tbh
we applied many of these theorems
it was about a year ago and i was going through some things that weren't conducive to my learning
Is anyone here an expert in asymptotic expansions?
If you have a question, just ask
I'm not an expert on PDEs/spectral theory, but it seems to be useful for what I'm doing, I'd like to check that I'm not doing anything insane.
Let $L_s$ denote a family of linear second order elliptic operators with nonnegative eigenvalues on a vector bundle $E$ over a compact manifold $X$. (by Weitzenbock, my operators are $-\Delta + D$ where $D$ is some first order linear differential operator). Suppose $L_s$ depends real-analytically on $s$. Let $m$ denote the multiplicity of the 0-eigenvalue of $L_0$. Then I think analytic perturbation theory gives me that locally, I have $\lambda_1(s), \dots, \lambda_m(s)$, which are eigenvalues of $L_s$, and these depend real-analytically on $s$. What I would like is to show that the smallest positive eigenvalue depends real-analytically on $s$, which I think I can show using a spectral gap argument. Is there a more direct approach to any/all of this?
shingtaklam1324
Is there anyone that can point me to a reference for an extension theorem from $H^{1/2}(\partial\Omega)$ to $H^{1}(\Omega)$? Thank you.
emphatic_wax
Proof of surjectivity of the trace operator is in Taylor's PDE book 1. He gives the argument for the half space, which is rather direct using Fourier transforms. The claim for domains should follow in some way by using coordinate charts
i will look into this thank you
Im stumbling over this in evans pde page 284.
I feel like I am misunderstanding things, since I don't get where the u is on the RHS?
What’s (2)
Well, for a given f, you know there is some u_f where <f, v> = (u_f, v)
And u_f is in H^1_0
So what about applying <f, u_f> = (u_f, u_f) = \int |Du|^2 + |u|^2
yes. The LHS makes sense to me
but why is there no u in the right side. Shouldn't u be in place of the g? Why are there two g's
Cauchy Schwartz and then reabsorb into the left hand side
Yeah I think that might work too, since it’ll look like L^2 inner product between the g and f functions
Maybe
well i am still puzzled
You can also AM-GM
Write down what you get then apply an inequality to the rhs to match terms with the left hand side
Ok so, suppose we bundle the f^i, g^i together as F, G for a sec
<u, u> = <f, u> = <F, G> \leq (<F,F><G, G>)^1/2 or wtv right?
If by <,> for these lists of functions means like pairing up corresponding indices
Unless I’m messing up Cauchy Schwartz because I’m an idiot
But <F, F> = <u, u> in H^1
So divide by that <F, F>^1/2 and you get like
<u,u>^1/2 \leq <G, G>^1/2
Square
This gets the desired inequality below (4), in your book’s numbering
I think
If it doesn’t work or isn’t clear then idk yell at me
I think I understood it. I also wrote some stuff down and better got the relation between u and f here. Thanks.
Nice nice
dull
oof

Hi! I don’t understand how to do this problem. I know you have to assume that G = G0 + H, where G0 is the free space Green’s function, I just don’t understand how to get H.
In general, I have no idea what the process for finding planar Green’s Functions. If anyone could recommend a guide/resource/textbook, that would be greatly appreciated!
There is no reason to expect a technique that works for an arbitrary domain. But in simple situations such as the ball and half-space, a powerful idea is to exploit symmetry. The free space greens function F almost works as a greens function for half space, apart from the boundary condition. So you need to add a harmonic function H whose boundary data (Neumann in this case, but it is the same idea if Dirichlet) cancels that of F. Consider the composition of F with a reflection about the boundary. What happens when you hit it with the Laplacian? What is its boundary Dirichlet and Neumann data (compared with that of F)? Now conclude by choosing H appropriately.
(If your domain was a ball, the symmetry is instead inversion through the boundary sphere, rather than reflection through the boundary hyperplane).
Hi! Thanks so much for your reply! And sorry for my late reply. I saw it earlier but I didn't know how to respond, so I kept working on it.
Yes, I see now that if you reflect the Green's function over the boundary, it disappears when you take the Laplacian. Is this always the case for half planes? I could see it happening with y = x, because reflecting it gives an argument (x - eta)^2 + (y - xi)^2, and doing the calculations make it seem like it cancels out.
Just to clarify, what do you mean by "inversion through the boundary sphere"?
No problem.
Yes, the Laplacian is translation/reflection/rotation invariant, so translating/reflecting/rotating a free-space harmonic function will produce another one. Same for Greens functions, the singularity will just get translated/reflected/rotated.
By inversion, I mean the map on R^n \ {0} that maps x to x/|x|^2. It is like "reflection through the sphere |x|=1". You can show by a simple calculation that harmonic functions remain harmonic after you act on them by inversion, so you can use the same idea to solve boundary value problems on the ball in R^n.
Got it, I'll try attempting a question with a boundary condition on a sphere. Thanks again for your help!
should i take undergrad or grad pdes
undergrad pde is at 9am and grad pde is 12pm ... the grad pde professor seems chill
idk if undergrad pde will be more computational but it requires introductory real analysis but the grad pde will definitely more advanced
Do you have more detailed course descriptions? What is your background?
yes
im not sure of the specific of the undergrad class
but i did email the grad prof
im taking a course on "advanced linerar algebra" which we're using linear algebra a second course by helene shapiro
and introductory real anlysis using understanding analysis by stephen abbott
here is the grad class description
undergrad class- prereqs are computation lin alg and diff eq and introductory real analysis
i spoke to the grad prof and he said he can give me resources for the prereqs if i decide to enroll
im like confused cuz i was gonna take multivariable real analysis but the professor for multivariable real analysis has not responded
If you've taken any multivariable I would definitely take the graduate one, looks very solid and approachable
Like not even multivariable analysis - just calc 3 type of stuff
i see i have done that in the past i just need a big refresher
which i can probably do over my winter break
would be doing grad and undergrad pdes at the same time be too much probably
im ngl i rlly dont wanna be studying pdes at 9am lol
Yeah I sympathize. Somehow the two only courses I want to take next semester are at 9 MW so I have to decide between them
well
im dropping classical and math methods 2 for next sem so i should supposedly have more time
for physics
well he said i may need to know the proof of the divergence theorem and the definition of partial derivative
is lebesgue integration hard to learn
These are not bad
IMO some aspects yeah. The way that it is used in the basics of pde stuff is fairly intuitive I think though
i think they talk about lebesgue integration in the multivariable real analysis but that prof has not responded and idk if i should email again
i think i would take the multivar real anlysis or the grad pdes
cuz ik multivar real anlysis is gonna be also very difficuly
the grad pde professor was actually answering my emails
That’s typically a good sign, though it doesn’t hurt to email the other professor again
would it be too much to be enrolled in both lowkey
i need to manage helath issues
im dropping math methods 2 and classical to take in the fall
well a grad class is worth two undergrad classes so prolly a bad idea
multivar real analysis
I think if you have seens 1 dimensional rigorous calculus and multi it is fairly simple to extend your knowledge to the multivariable setting
so i may not need to take am multivar analysis class rn
so
ive kinda heard more positive things with pde prof
is it better to get a letter of rec wtih a prof for a grad class or undergrad idk
as an undergrad who may apply to grad school in fall 2028
well it's more about what they can say about my abilities i guess if i do well
im also take the grad profs analysis and geometry class
The prof from the PDEs class has already demonstrated to be communicative and willing to word with you, so if you engage heavily with their class that will probably make for a good letter
yea i met with him in person to discuss the content
his research is in geometric analysis
yea im scared fro the multivar real analysis ill have trouble waking up on time well not that much but idk i have to walk 20 min
It's the same prof for both courses?
yes for pde
pde and geometric analysis r same prof
I would take both
they’ll prolly compliment each other i guess
hmm i can take the real analysis sequence like
next fall i guess
hopefully not at 9am
Here's an interesting paper that just came out on the arxiv
"Instantaneous Type 1 Blow-up and Non-uniqueness of Smooth Solutions of the Navier-Stokes Equations"
For any smooth, divergence-free initial data, we construct a solution of the Navier--Stokes equations that exhibits Type~I blow-up of the $L^\infty$ norm at time $T_>0$, while remaining smooth in space and time on $\mathbb T^d\times([0,T]\setminus{T_})$. An instantaneous injection of energy from infinite wavenumber initiates a bifurcation fr...
Yeah that's it!
We were just discussing this at my Fluids Seminar when I was supposed to be speaking. Instead of me speaking on a paper, my advisor and a postdoc were getting stressed just by the title, the abstract, and theorem 1.1
What are their takes on this?
It seems very strange. They didn't quite understand what the statement is, or why it works. It seemed to not agree with their understanding for 2D. In particular, the solutions exist for all time in 2D, but they have a blow up at any time T_* < T. It seems very strange indeed
How odd
I agree that I don't quite understand the statement
And why it doesn't conflict with the previously established 2d existence results
Hmmm.
Yeah I thought navier stokes is globally wellposed in 2D for smooth initial data.
Ummmm
Hmmmm
Something about non-uniqueness of weak solutions?
No but they are saying that the classical solutions blow up
Yes, this is the crux of the issue
If the initial data $u_0 \in L^2$ and the vorticity $\omega_0 \in L^1 \cap L^{\infty}$ then the weak solutions are unique. This is Yudovich's result. But when you try to weaken this from $L^1 \cap L^p$ then things get messy. Chapter 8 of Majda and Bertozzi go through this, I think
MoonBears-C-
I think non-uniqueness is for Euler in 2D; whereas Navier-Stokes Equations in 2D will be unique. I've been trying to sort this out for a bit now
I haven't fully read it yet. But in Euler there's a certain richness to the weakened solutions over the strong ones at least from what I absorb from the work of Greg Eyink.
I won't be happy with any results contradicting this section of Majda and Bertozzi
Yeah this paper by Cheskidov, Dai, and Palasek seems very strange indeed
Indeed
the multivariable real analysis professor let me into his class
uh
idk if I should properly enroll into the grad PDEs then cuz it’ll probably be a lot of work
should i just ask the professor i can sit in his grad class
the term is about to end
Why are time-varying domains so stinky
Hey guys! Can you help me solving this problem? I got it in university at calculus of variation course and have no idea how to solve it. The task is to find extremums of J[u]. It looks like Sturm–Liouville problem, but it lacks condition on u(1) and isoperimetric constraint acting only on the interval [0, 1]. Do you know any tips for solving this?
Can you latex this
Ok what have you tried
use lagrange multipliers in banach spaces to absorb the L^2 constraint into the functional. Then use Euler-lagrange
Thanks!
In Hamilton's book on Harmonic maps on manifolds with boundary, he ends up with an inequality of the form
$$\norm{f}{L^p{k+1/2}} \le C(1 + \norm{f}_{L^q_k})^{q/p}$$
for $q \gg p$, by working with polynomial differential operators and things like that
shingtaklam1324
Is this some general result?
Here, $f$ is a function on a compact smooth manifold $M$
shingtaklam1324
(and $L^p_k$ seems to be the geometer's notation for $W^{k, p}$)
shingtaklam1324
More generally, I would be happy with any result which says that a $L^q_k$ bound for all $q$ implies a $L^p_{k+1/2}$ bound
shingtaklam1324
So I met one of the authors, apparently their notion of weak solution is "very weak"
Weak enough such that the well known theorems do not apply
You know, this is what I think too. But when I'm at the table as a fucking 3rd year PhD student, I am not speaking up against authors, their collaborators, and experts in the field
I just smile and wave
Speaking of, we have a PDE seminar today
Double DE Seminar: Nonuniqueness of Leray--Hopf solutions to the unforced incompressible 3D Navier--Stokes Equation
are PDEs at the graduate level more based on analysis than basic ode computation - how much ode should i know? i just took a computational engineering ode class with some mentioning of theorems
im taking real analysis rn
and also linear algebra
also multivariable calc?
what’s a good book for multivar calc that i can manage in a month
the grad pde prof just sent me some resources on analysis not necessarily ode or multivar calc like Riemann integral and lebesgue measure and integration
I think it is enough to mostly have seen existence, uniqueness, gronwall that type of stuff. PDE is mostly based around analysis because in general you can never actually get an explicit PDE so you have to do a lot of work to show that a solution exists in a suitable sense. This requires a lot of heavy analysis to deal with function spaces because the "simple" function spaces are in some sense not the amenable to using analysis or not natural for the PDE.
If you want to know the formal proofs maybe something like Spivak calculus on manifolds, but tbh I don't have good references. For quick stuff I think the appendixes from Evans PDEs (the earlier stuff not the functional analysis) are pretty good at getting you up to speed - in that you can use it as a list of things to know and try to learn most of the stuff (some of it is not necessary)
hmm
This is the exercise one of the profs I worked with when I started learning pde told me to do to make sure I knew "enough" about ODEs
did u see this?
yea the professor also has a chapter on L^p spaces
Yes, this type of analysis is the most fundamental in some sense and is very necessary for a good understanding of PDE. Understanding L^p spaces will be fundamental
he said i should know divergence theorem
i need brushing up on these
i took multivariable calc in a tough time in my life
Yeah the statement and the corollaries in Evans appendix C (integration by parts stuff) will likely be enough (when I first learned this my prof joked to us "most professional mathematicians don't know the proof of this"). I think spending more time with the measure theory stuff will ultimately be more rewarding. The multi stuff we be bashed into you during the class by the computations you need to do
You've asked some variation of this same question multiple times now
What reference shows the asymptotics of the spectral function $e(x, x, \lambda) = \sum_{\lambda_j \leq \lambda}|\phi_j(x)|^2$ for the Laplace Beltrami operator on compact manifold with Dirichlet or Neumann boundary conditions? If easier, what reference shows $e(x, x, \lambda) = O(\lambda^{d/2})$? I found this from a book, but I want to verify it with some other reference.
L
Asymptotics for this are called the pointwise Weyl law. A seminal paper is Hormander's "The spectral function of an elliptic operator", although there were some earlier works by others. (And there are subsequent results sharpening the remainder estimate under various dynamical hypotheses on the geodesic flow of the manifold.)
If you merely want a big-O bound and not even the leading order asymptotic, there may be a cheaper method than usual arguments involving wave/heat traces. I haven't seen one myself though.
But Hormander's paper assumes no boundary. The formula should be different if there is a boundary right?
Like for Dirichlet conditions, the function has to be 0 on the boundary
I think the asymptotic is of the same form (same leading term involving volume) but the proof is harder. I don't know the references off the top of my head, but will have a quick look. I know Ivrii has some of the sharpest results in the boundary setting, but I am not certain they are established for the pointwise spectral function, so I will doublecheck.
Check out the references mentioned at the bottom of p18 onwards in the text "Mathematics past and present: Fourier Integral Operators" (an awesome book btw, I have a hardcover copy).
I don't really feel like going through the refs right now, but they are the main developments in the proof of the Weyl law on compact manifolds with boundary, and I'd imagine that at least some of them (if not all of them) proceed via a pointwise Weyl law.
This stuff gets very technical if you want the asymptotic and sharp estimates on the remainder.
is it easy to prove just the $O(\lambda^{d/2})$ bound uniform in $x$?
L
Agmon proves that $e(x, x, \lambda) = O(\lambda^{d/2})$ uniformly in $x$, but he assumes a bounded domain in Euclidean space. I'm under the impression that this implies it is true for general compact manifold with boundary, even though I'm not sure how to prove this.
L
Well I don't know an automatic way of porting the result from domains to that on manifolds with boundary, but perhaps the proof can be ported with minimal changes. Otherwise you will have to look at other references.
I did PDE 1 without ODE and it was ight, but i did like PDE theory not a class on solving them yk?
i think it’s more pde theory tbh
If it’s more theory is just a completely different world
Functional analysis is like the basis of that theory like for the basics at least
Maybe ODE knowledge is more used on Fourier transforms but it’s still pretty easy ODEs
Ok, it's not a Leray-Hopf weak solution. They only get instantaneous blow up in finite time by a non-local fourier mode/energy cascade argument, through a discretization
And their blow up is only from the right-hand side because the non-local interactions on the non-linear terms are from higher frequency things interacting with lower frequency things; however it's done in such a way that lower frequency things can't be decomposed to interact with higher frequency things
So there's an asymmetry in their method giving rise to the "Type I Instantaneous blow up"
I will go read the paper when I have time, but that was my conversation with one of the authors
Are there different ways to obtain H^{-1} inequalities?
I want this but for Lp
I think there are some Sobolev einbettungen idk how that’s called
But look for Sobolev inequalities
Thanks!
It has two different names: Necas negative norm theorem, or (Generalized) Wirtinger-Poincare inequality
This c, is it well known?

I would like to find c independent of dimension, but this may be a lot
Oh no, in Necas negative norm theorem (the first paper I see) it has some constant c
I dont know where to find a good source on Necas negative norm
What other papers have you read about it
Do you have a recommended source on this in a book? Or is it mostly just from literature
Look for "Necas Lemma" also. But it cannot be dimension-independent. Just because it involves the diameter of the unit ball at least.
I'm interested in the very specific case where the measure is isotropic
dimension free poincare inequalities have been a big study as of late and I wanted to experiment with this
I truly don't know then
Yeah no worries
Was just looking for that kickstart! Cause we are snagging a lot of stuff from this field
One way to prove it is to use bogovskii operators
So looking for the continuity constant of Bogovskii operators on thos isotropic Sobolev spaces (sounds like nightmarish, since Harmonic Analysis for differnet-measure Sobolev spaces sucks a lot)
lol damn
yeah
This is the paper at hand that uses dimension free H^{-1} inequalities
L^2 is always a bit apart it terms of estimates and accountances on other quantities for continuity constants.
The whole scheme a lot of the time is to introduce a random process on your measure, which converges into a Gaussian with a bit of work. Then analyze this process of integrals and use the "niceness" of the Gaussian.
In case you were curious
Always good to improve my superficial knowledge
@quick pagoda if you check on Arxiv. It is finally available.
oooooh
I'll see if I can find it
located, thanks for notifying, I wont be able to catch errors but very cool
If you have questions on the content feel free to ask. :)
Thank you, though I doubt I'll have anything interesting to ask given my passing skill
On a compact Riemannian manifold M of dimension at least 2 whose geodesic flow is ergodic (for example, if M has strictly negative curvature) prove Quantum Ergodicity: show that along a subsequence of Laplace eigenfunctions of density one the associated semiclassical/Wigner measures converge to the Liouville measure on the unit cotangent bundle S*M
I saw this question in a paper but I'm not sure if it's correct
Wdym by "I'm not sure if it's correct"? This is the quantum ergodicity theorem, and is famous and has had many papers written about it in various contexts.
A pretty standard proof is in Zworski's semiclassical analysis text for example.
Yeah I know the quantum ergodicity theorem is the standard result I just wasn’t sure if the phrasing was correct because It originally was actually the unique ergodicity version which is still a conjecture in general negative curvature I meant to ask for the QE statement not full QUE
The "density one" weakening of the conclusion, and the weaker assumption of "ergodicity" rather than strictly negative curvatures makes it the QE theorem, rather than the QUE conjecture.
Oh right
The original wording accidentally stated the full QUE conclusion With the density one subsequence and just ergodicity of the flow it becomes the standard QE theorem thanks for the clarification
No worries.
So just curious, but is this what people would call a "regularity" estimate extending to L_p?
Just curious, PDEs isn't my main study.
anybody who can explain caccioppoli ineqs?
This is something else but not completely unrelated.
what is the common term then for "extending" results to L_p?
One way is by interpolation
but I only have an L^2 estimate, shouldn't I also need another estimate to interpolate?
yeah, like an L^infinity or L^1 estimate.
This does not work for any type of estimate.
Do you have references/text about applications of weighted sobolev spaces to parabolic pde?
See the work of Lorist, Veraar, Roodenburg, and Lindemulder.
And most importantly the references there in
like Krylov etc.
thanks
which krylov? I read chapters form his book on pde & sobolev spaces, but I want to understand better the weight approach. My problem here is that I am studying short time existence for quasilinear parabolic equations on compact riemannian manifolds. In the paper by Huisken and Polden on Geometric evolution equation, they use weighted parabolic sobolev spaces with exponential weight. My question is why they choose an exponential as weight, why not a power weight or something else?
ok got krylov refs
thx
Hi, i need some help with a wave equation problem
The boundary conditions u(x,0) and u_t(x,0) are intended to hold for all x in the real numbers
I know this can be done with alemberts formula but i want to solve it using forier transform
Still haven't done any paperwork yet, am gathering info
Yea i have an idea
I just wanted to see if anyone has a maybe cool method to do it so
Is this channel friendly?
I hope so
So I know about the existance of Green function in the comapct with boundary case using the spectral decomposition of the laplacian i.e. if $v_j, \lambda_j $ is the spectral decomposition, then we $\Gamma(x,y) = \sum_j \frac{1}{\lambda_j}v_j(x)v_j(y)$ would be a green function satisfying the conditions 1,2,4. Does this construction also satisfy condition 3? Or is there a different construction that insures that 3 holds too?
Co-aerA
I'm pretty sure it doesn't satisfy 3 exactly, but it may satisfy it after multiplication by a constant. I know that 3 is how the Euclidean green function is defined, so condition 3 says that locally, the green function behaves like the Euclidean green function. This seems not easy to prove
is this answered @arctic whale
?
cuz L is ^^ p much right
proving (3) is not easy it depends on how much kernel thry ya know
but technically 3 is correct
oh my bad l said (3) is not correct?
well, that not correct
(3) is true
wow is it really that hard to show? What I had in mind is to take a small geodesic chart around y so that the metric is an epsilion perturbation of the Euclidean metric and Christoffel symbols are uniformly bounded by epsilon.
Then maybe one hopes to show that the laplacian of such functions (Euclidean green functions) is not too far from delta_y
sorry the hardness is not abiut intuitive prfs, sorry, i meant it's hard in rigor
like i have a prf in my head which uses some heat kernels on some reimman surf; but you hv the righ inuition fr sure
the elliptic regular stff is the annoying part
ya it's not hard my bad
sry maybe i am overcomplicating things
but 3 is correct
I mean yeah it's very believable of course up to some factor as L mentioned. I was just wondering if it follows from the other properties of the Green function on M, or if there is a construction of G on M that makes sure that 3 is satisfied.
ya that's why i mentioned the elliptic regularity thingy
it's gonna bug ya
the "factors" ya mention are a spec case
but in the sense of the theorem as posted yes 3 is true
now i guess the new q is ^^
this will need some elliptic thry honestly
maybe there is someone smarter here
who can explain it simply
i can't
i am kinda bored and can write a shoet note to help
If u continuous on closed ball B1(0,0,0) and harmonic on open B1(0,0,0) where it is non negative ive to find the value u(1/√3,1/√3,1/√3) using that u(0,0,0)=0. Ive already shown that u=0 on B1/2(0,0,0) by harnacks ineq. Any hint?
how would i go about solving this
What do you mean by solve
ok so we have a drop of fluid (D^+) on an ambient fluid (D^-) with shared boundary S that takes the form of a unit circle and they have different dielectric constants
i need to solve for the electric field in D^- (E^-) and D^+ (E^+) given these boundary conditions
yeah
Ok you can solve a laplace equation right
of course
it's just that the condition is kinda throwing me off
actually let me think about it a little longer
yeah i still have no idea
Ok what have you tried since yesterday
i tried applying a solution in polar coordinates but that still doesn't solve my issue with $\Phi^+$ and $\Phi^-$ both not being fixed functions and depending on each other
.
Holy hell, I remember when catbread was doing calc 2, now you're doing PDEs 
To be fair, freshman year to junior/senior year is only 3 years. Which really isn't that long
3 years huh? Yeah it's not that long
It is strange. It's like 1 year of freshman university math is worth 3 years of HS math. 1 year of upper division is worth two years of lower division. And one year of graduate school is worth something like 2-3 years of upper division
So one year of grad school is worth 12-18 years of high school math. Checks out
Unironically I think that's probably about right
Greetings and salutations
Consider the velocity field $\mathbf{u}=u_0\sin\theta\mathbf{e}{\phi}$ on the sphere where $\theta$ is the colatitude and $\mathbf{e}{\phi}$ is the unit vector in the longitudinal direction
守沢 千秋
I am trying to determine what the material derivative of this is
So $\frac{D\mathbf{u}}{Dt}=\pdv{\mathbf{u}}{t}+(\mathbf{u}\cdot\nabla)\mathbf{u}$
守沢 千秋
My collaborator has written [\frac{D\mathbf{u}}{Dt}=u_0\left(\frac{D\sin\theta}{Dt}\mathbf{e}{\phi}+\sin\theta\frac{D\mathbf{e}{\phi}}{Dt}\right)]
守沢 千秋
Just using the product rule
Next, the claim is that $\frac{D\mathbf{e}{\phi}}{Dt}$ should be nonzero because $\mathbf{e}{\phi}$ is the local unit vector in the longitudinal direction and this is changing as the fluid moves
守沢 千秋
Is this reasonable?
Changing as the fluid moves?
u is the velocity of a fluid
On the sphere
The e phi unit vector on the sphere is different at different points on the sphere
Hmm, not sure about this argument, but I got (u • ∇) u = -(u_0^2 / 2) sin(2 θ) e_θ if this makes sense
(using the christawful symbols)
I think it should be intuitive that (u • ∇) u vanishes at the equator (θ = π / 2), whereas it's not defined for the expression your collaborator got, but I might be mistaken
Oh wait
tan(theta) for theta latitude, not colatitude
In colatitude tan(theta) should be cot(theta)
Ah, okay
Which of course still does not match up
Yeah, hmm
😵💫
Well, in any case, it's nonzero 
Does it make sense that it explodes at the poles, though? 
The poles are always bad
Shallow water equations on the sphere (which this is for) have tangent of latitude so the equations explode at the poles
I guess so if u = u_0 e_phi, but we have u = u_0 sin(theta) e_phi
You can't even define the unit vectors at the poles
Anyways what I'm really trying to figure out is the correct form of the shallow water equations on the sphere
They can be written as \begin{align*}\frac{D\mathbf{u}}{Dt}&=-f\mathbf{e}_r\cross\mathbf{u}-g\nabla h\\frac{Dh}{Dt}&=-h\nabla\cdot\mathbf{u}\end{align*}
守沢 千秋
D/Dt is the material derivative
f is the coriolis parameter, 2 Omega sin latitude
g is gravity
u is fluid velocity
h is fluid surface height
Omega is 2pi/day
We can also write this in vorticity divergence form
So defining $\zeta=\mathbf{e}_r\cdot(\nabla\cross\mathbf{u})$ and $\sigma=\nabla\cdot\mathbf{u}$, we have that \begin{align*}\pdv{\zeta}{t}&=-\nabla\cdot((\zeta+f)\mathbf{u})\ \pdv{\sigma}{t}&=\mathbf{e}_r\cdot\nabla\cross((\zeta+f)\mathbf{u})-\Delta\left(gh+\frac12\mathbf{u}\cdot\mathbf{u}\right)\end{align*}
守沢 千秋
However, my collaborator did a derivation and found that the equation for vorticity is the same
But for the divergence equation, they have an additional $-\mathbf{u}\cdot\mathbf{u}$ tacked on at the end
守沢 千秋
I have to digest this a bit

To test this, we can consider a simple solution
Namely u=u_0 cosine latitude
Now, you also need to specify a height field
One paper presents gh=\Omega u_0+u_0^2/2
My collaborator gets gh=(Omega u_0+u_0^2/2)cos^2 latitude
This matches the equation set without the additional -u dot u
I see
And this matches the equation set with the additional -u dot u
But like
They can't both be correct right
Yeah, so, you're verifying which one is equivalent to the original problem
Yes, so we look at this original equation set
And try to determine what the material derivatives are
How does that help you exactly?
Can't you just compare how the paper and your collaborator got this vorticity divergence form?
Well we can determine which height field is correct to make this is a steady state solution
The paper doesn't present a derivation
Ah
how do i not get cooked in my grad pde class next semester???
ohhh the prof gave me notes on lebesgue integration
and some measure theory
And to do this, we need to determine if including the derivatives of the unit vectors is the correct thing to do
Hm?
Well, we need to determine Du/Dt right
But what do you mean exactly by including the derivatives of the unit vectors?
Is De_phi/Dt 0 or not
Oh, for a steady state solution
Yeah
I think my own computation agrees with this
Suppose that $u$ is a harmonic function on the upper half-plane $\mathbb{R}\times[0,\infty)$ and that $u(x,0)=0$ for every $x\in\mathbb{R}$. Also, suppose that for every $x\in\mathbb{R}$, we have $\lim_{y\to\infty}u(x,y)=0$. Note in particular that we aren't assuming (a priori) that $u$ is bounded. Does it follow that $u$ is bounded (and therefore identically zero)?
Gustav
I think so as you just do a Cayley transformation and then look at the disc
@tepid widget does this make sense?
Ok so for the whole ordeal I was going through
I think I've found the problem
This vector calculus identity needs additional metric terms when used in spherical coordinates
so which one is correct? with or without the -u•u?
In particular
$\nabla\cdot((\mathbf{u}\cdot\nabla)\mathbf{u})=(\mathbf{u}\cdot\nabla)(\nabla\cdot\mathbf{u})+\nabla\mathbf{u}:\nabla\mathbf{u}+\mathbf{u}\cdot\mathbf{u}$
守沢 千秋
Do you want to try to christoffel symbols this
What's the diff between PDE and Adv PDE channel 🥺
Feel free to read the channel descriptions
Can someone give me some motivation for what exactly a paraproduct is and why they’re relevant to pdes?
Think of a paraproduct as a way to make sense of multiplying rough functions by separating low–high high–low and high–high frequency interactions via Littlewood Paley decomposition the key point is that in PDEs nonlinear terms often involve products that aren’t classically defined at the regularity you have and paraproducts isolate the parts that are well behaved
They’re essential in nonlinear estimates like Navier Stokes and quasilinear equations because they explain exactly where derivatives are gained or lost and turn ill defined products into controlled operators
Very nice explanation
May I ask, is the #odes-and-pdes the correct channel to ask about theory of existance and uniqueness of solutions for ODEs using the theorem of prolongation of solutions, Picard and Peano or is it best here even if this is for PDEs?
Probably better in the channel you linked :)
Hi! I've been studying "Nonhomogeneous Linear and Quasilinear Elliptic and Parabolic Boundary Value Problems" of Hebert Amann. In page 20, he establishes a theorem where he characterizes being normally elliptic with being the minus generator of an analytic semigroup. There, he cites his book "Linear and Quasilinear Parabolic Problems: Volume I Abstract Linear Theory", which was not published when he wrote that. I'm not able to find this result in this book. Does anybody have a reference of where to find a proof of this result for higher order problems? Thank you very much!
Well I was just curious because the channel is linked as early university but this class uses a lot of real analysis (albeit not central) so I'm not entirely sure if people there will be able to help me, but thanks
You might ask in #advanced-analysis if necessary
Thanks I saw something in Taos notes on paraproducts about this bony paraproduct decomposition. This seems like a significant property and relevant to what you’re saying. This is helpful.
I’ve never studied PDEs, but I have a background in operator algebras, probability theory and I have studied ODEs, but not recently and I have taken several courses on mathematical physics. Would it be reasonable to take a course on stochastic DEs, or would this be an uphill battle of extremes? This is at the grad level mind you.
Yes…. I’ve taken the course… I didn’t pass the comp but that’s not a huge deal… should’ve memorized the Hahn Decomposition theorem… I’ll try it again in my masters. But yes, now I work with Haar measure and the like so no I’m not worried about measure theory
But I see what you mean.., the way of thinking will be.., in that paradigm I see
No worries mate!
I am looking at an exercise in Reed-Simon volume 1. The question asks for a proof that the equation [-\Delta u +\abs{u}u+u=f] with $f\in C_c^\infty(\mathbb{R}^\nu) and $u\in L^2(\mathbb{R}^\nu)$ has a unique solution. The wording of the problem is such that it's clear that the want this result to follow from the strict convexity of the associated functional
[T(u) = \int \abs{\grad u}^2 + \frac{1}{3}\abs{u}^3 + \frac{1}{2}u^2]
However, I worry if these two formulations are completely equivalent. I would be convinced if we knew that any solution to the PDE must necessarily belong to $H^1(\mathbb{R}^\nu)$. However I don't see why this would be true. The quadratic nonlinearity in the equation is really obstructing any obvious elliptic regularity argument that I can see
Buncho Spheres
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it seems like all we can really say is that $(1-\Delta) u\in L^1$. So $(1+k^2)\hat{u}(k)\in C_0$. This doesn't seem that useful. I think you can get something in $\nu=2$ by Hausdorff-Young but this method has no chance of generalizing to arbitrary dimension! Is this even really true for arbitrary $\nu$?
Buncho Spheres
you can add to your functional the term -int u(x)f(x) and then show that it attains its infimum (and you also allow your functional to attain the value +infinity since a priori you don't know enough regularity)
you want to use weak lower semicontinuity (assuming that this got somewhere introduced before)
Nope Simon doesn't talk about l.s.c. that I thinks only brezis does
I read through some online pdf of it, and here they talk about l.s.c.
but whatever version one uses, surely they talk a lot about weak convergence ...
Yes so semicontinuity and coercivity is fine for me as far as showing that a solution exists. Strict convexity even implies that a unique H^1 \cap L^3 solution exists. But the PDE formulation is much weaker!
In particular I’m struggling to believe that every L^2 solution of the equation is a critical point of the functional
A priori T(u) may well be infinity, so being a critical point would not make sense without further regularity
RS has an appendix on the calculus of variations where this is all discussed
So it has l.s.c and conjugate function as well?
Just lower semicontinuity
Prox spotted in math server
You can fix |u| + 1 to be your potential term and apply an apriori estimate for gradient u (for example using the pde for mollified u) the problem is that this works when |u| is in L^{n/2} which in this case is up to dimension 4 or if you have an estimate on the L3 norm of u.
You can also try to do a Calderon zygmund estimate and again you run into the problem where the right hand side is in L1 which is borderline.
Assuming that u is in L2 and L3 fixes all of your problems in both of these approaches, I feel like this is a valid assumption as you have mentioned, fatous lemma gives you this for minimizers anyway.
These are also artifacts of that fact that your leading order term is the laplacian and not some variable coefficient equation. For those it is possible to have distributional solutions that are not H1
What's the arugment you're using that would work if you knew that u was in L^3? The argument I'm thinking of puts uhat in L^p for all p>d/2. Hausdorff-Young is relevant so long as d/2 <=2 or d<=4, as you say. This then puts u in L^p for all 2<= p<d/(d-2) . So |u|u is in L^p for 1<=p<d/(2d-4). So |u|u is in L^2 for d<12/5, so it seems like you can't even get it to be in L^2 in order to use the usual sobolev regularity unless d<=2. But presumably you're thinking of something different as there is no mollification involved here
being in L^3 puts |u|u in L^3/2 so I guess you can try hardy-littlewood-Sobolev? I never remember the exponents for that off the top of my head
but also finally while i'm very interested in an argument that brings you up to H^1 from just L^2 \cap L^3, i'm curious then if you have purely distributional solutions in the pure L^2 case
hello hello!
do you currently want to show that a solution exists, or that strong solutions are unique?
i'm convinced that a solution exists. I'm even convinced of uniqueness if we assume a sufficient amount of regularity. But I would like to understand if uniqueness holds for solutions that are merely L^2
Assuming u is smooth and u is L2 and L3, integrate by parts
[\int |\nabla u|^2 \leq C\int |u|^3 + |u|^2 + |f|^2 ]
Now if u is just L2 and L3, then mollify u and you will get the same estimate for the mollified function. So by compactness, the u is in $H^1$.
maark
Im reading this paper and maybe i am just not seeing something, but I have no idea how Definition 1.1 makes sense given Theorem 1.2 (both on page 2). Definition 1.1 requires integrating u\theta against a test function with compact frequency support, but I dont think the paper proves u\theta \in L^1 or even in some Sobolev space, so this definition makes no sense. Help me out, is there something I am missing?
Definition and Theorem in question
Ahhh that makes sense!
fwiw, I think this paper is kind of just a mess. I looked at the official published version (not arxiv version) and they show that the integral with the nonlinearity goes to 0 as you send q -> infinity....but that would force \theta = 0, which makes the solution trivial
I doubt she would give a shit, but thinking of emailing Mimi Dai about this...cause...something is fishy
Cfl condition ? Dirichlet Neumann and robin
cfl diffusion explicit u=2deltat/delta x~< 1/6, f=0
Initial condition, for example, when the temperature fills the cube or we have u0= sin pi x sin pi y sin pi z, the Dirichlet boundary conditions or all=0, u(t0 y z) u(t x 0 z) and u(t x y 0) homogeneous
Neumann or partial derivative of u=0
Robin or alpha u+ beta derivative of u= g(t) limit
I have a problem with the diffusion
Matlab dosent give me each u value
Idk if it's the code or the equation
How do we get log-concavity of the first Dirichlet eigenfunction on convex domains in Rn ?
It’s not the measure theory actually.. it’s pretty reasonable… it’s the assumed knowledge of physics and comfort with stochastics that’s scary actually
Can anybody recommend some stuff to read about the applications of jet bundles to pdes?
There’s Krasil’shchik (Geometry of Jet Spaces and Nonlinear Differential Equations), though I think it’s a bit old and idk if it’s quite the direction you want. Hairer has stuff on using generalizations from his regularity stuff to study SDEs, which I’d think is the right direction but maybe a bit beyond what you want.
I feel like that is the direction I want because I came upon the subject by seeing a paper by vinogradov on something called secondary calculus. But I figured this was old like you said and was hoping for something more modern.
I wanna learn about the characterization of pdes as submanifolds of jet bundles
I think it might be in there, maybe in Jost geometric analysis, maybe in Saunders’ jet bundle book
I know some geometric analysis things say jet bundle things about fibers, maybe Lewis’ geo analysis on analytic manifolds, but I don’t know that book well
Taylor has a lot in it
where’s L
hi! I dont really understand how the determinant of that is supposed to be read
can someone help?
Is v a vector
nope
Does anyone know of a good book to learn Brownian motion? Or just a thorough treatment of it, it is assumed knowledge going into a course about it… a tad surprising.
I like Partzch and Schilling. You might also try asking in the advanced probability channel
What is the curly H function space
Does øksendal cover Brownian?
True… most of the assignment problems are solving PDEs… and measure theoretic results but that’s a good point
I ordered it… I hope it’s good
yes
I was recommended "Lectures on the H Principle" by a grad student in a seminar I was in
Actually it's "Introduction to the H Principle" by Eliashberg and Misachev
Woah this book looks stuffed with info thank you!
The proof my professor gave last semester of the GNS inequality was different from the standard one given in Evans, Taylor, Gilbarg-Trudinger, etc. but seemed conceptually more insightful. Unfortunately I didn’t take notes and I don’t know where I can find this proof. Any recommendations?
How did the proof go? Did it use the coarea formula and isoperimetric inequality? Fundamental theorem of calculus spam? Fundamental theorem of calculus only once plus harmonic analysis integral estimates?
Fundamental theorem of calculus a bunch of times, I think we proved it for some endpoint case and then used some interpolation without calling it interpolation
I have a feeling that it is the same proof that is in evans then but probably using better notation
Or maybe I don’t know what I’m talking about and it doesn’t hold for the endpoints idk I’m not very good with thi stuff
Haha you might be right
Yeah that proof is classically very hard to write down
Do you have any recommendations?
Tbh just try to prove it yourself, that one is actually very straight forward once you get passed the notation slop
Start in 2d
If you can do it in 2d and 3d then you will be able to do in n dimensions
Ok I’ll try
If you know gmt then I would recommend the coarea formula proof as it gives you sharp constants, but this calculus proof assumes nothing besides calculus and basic measure theory
GMT = geometric measure theory?
Ok I’ll check that out after trying to work this out
Thanks for your help
Np good luck
Ok I think I realized why my professors formulation looked so much cleaner, he just used induction instead of integrating that product of integrals n times. But I now realize it’s pretty obvious how to do it
Im tryna learn until advanced pdes what do I need if im starting from scratch like someone with no knowledge of math
Calculus, multivariable calculus, linear algebra, real analysis, topology, measure theory, functional analysis, fourier analysis
what mathematics is your major.
my major is functional analysis and fractal interpolation
I’m not familiar with this system of majors. Usually we would say mathematics is a major. Are you asking about someone’s specialization? Like I took my comprehensive exam in algebra.
I’ve never heard of someone’s major being fractal interpolation(or ever heard of that topic)
sorry
Don't troll here
devid u got a undergraduate role wyd
Hi , Ihavent take a PDE course , i would like to know whether there are standard techniques to solve these type problems
This is first order, so it is generally not a bad idea to write out in terms of the coordinate derivatives and then try to use characteristics which is often a good technique for first order equations
seconding method of characteristics ^
Hello, any references where I can read about the square root of the Dirichlet Laplacian? I would like some with explicit computations. Thank you very much!
this has some stuff in it you might want, maybe?
Hello everyone, I was going to try to publish a paper for pdes and I was wondering if anyone would have some suggestions on what to publish
Something that solves a gap in the literature is usually what ppl publish 
You should check out these equations on fluid dynamics I heard abt they’re called Navy stoked or something
I bet if you could prove long time existence and uniqueness of solutions that would be a paper that’s not too bad
There are shit tons of ways to PDEs
There are no explicit formulas for square root for the Dirichlet Laplacian excepts in very basic geometries : spheres, half-spaces, squares/hypercubes etc.
PDE
Explicit
Pick one
Then there is Ange always struggling with life and explicit representation of solutions with spherical harmonics
There’s a reason he’s struggling
Even spheres and balls are struggles 🥀
Even in intervals would be interesting for me as I am building my understading around the topic
Thank you very much, I will check it.
Sob
olev
omg recently I got back reviews for a paper
And one of the reviews was like
Why don't you solve the PDE when the initial condition is ill posed
sob
ol
how do you generalize that a one d solution to a linear pde like the transport question to multiple dimensions
Do you mean the transport equation in multiple dimensions?
yea basically
how do a generalize the solution
I think for the simple case it is just characteristics:
Suppose I have the equation $\partial_t v(t,x) + b(t,x) \cdot\nabla_x v(t,x)= 0.$ We seek solutions of the form $v(t,x) = f(x(t)).$
zeke
If we say that $x'(t) = b(t,x(t))$ the gives an ODE for the curve for which we know solutions exist. The PDE gives $df/dt = \partial_t f+ \nabla_x f \cdot x'(t) = \partial_t v + b \cdot \nabla_x v = 0,$ so the value of $f$ is constant along each characteristic curve $x(t)$. For any point in the domain where you want a solution you (try to) find such a curve connecting it back to the initial domain
zeke
In particular if $b(t,x) = b$ a constant vector, $x(t) = x_0 + bt,$ so then the solution is just $v(t,x) = g(x - bt)$ where g is your initial data
zeke
Does this answer your question @loud patrol ?
Yes
yea we got that solution in class for the one dimensional case thank you so much
is that divergence the nabla sub x or just gradient with respect or x
im not familiar with notation that well pdes is totally new to me
grad wrt to x
these are basically the same question then lol
can someone explain shocks to me
like for example if the transport equation has a nonlinear coefficient x^2 instead some constant vector
is it like asymptotic or something idk
Shocks arise from when you do this and you have multiple curves that connect the same point to your initial data, and the value of your solution on those curves is different, so you get a discontinuity
i see
ok like
i was told to compute
$$\begin{equation}
\begin{cases}
u_t + x^2 u_x, & \textbf{x} \in \mathbb{R} \backslash { 0}, t\in \mathbb{R}\
u(x, 0)= \varphi(x), & x\in \mathbb{R}
\end{cases}
\end{equation}$$
n
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when i was trying to find the characteristic curve i got $\alpha(s)=(x(s),t(s))=(\frac{x}{1-xs}, s+t)$
n
n
this has some weird asympotic behavior right?
thats wym by discontinuous




