#help-41
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What is this integral
yash bro
I get it
but I have so many doubts
so it is advisable for me to do this tomorrow
bgn brother
šŖ
tysm for help tho
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yh
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i have no idea how to do this.. pls help
Write out as many facts about your two points (give them names) as you can
You can draw pictures
yea y^2 is 4x so x will be y^2/4 then i kept the value of x in two point formula.. and i got the m as y1 +y2 is 3 so the m is 4/3 after that i have no idea what to do
I don't know who m is
Slope probably
So explicitly your two points are $(y_1^2/4, y_1)$ and $(y_2^2/4,y_2)$ right?
its slope
Flip
Slope of the line defined by what two points, each of those and the origin?
A chord will be considered untill it is inside the parabola right ?@tepid verge
I just don't see it, can you explain more? The slope of what, subject to what?
I would say the chord is always inside the parabola, because parabolas are convex
Or like, you know, the region containing the focus is
I have no idea like if this is how to proceed but this is how I did.. and idk what to do anymore and this is the slope of the chord from my side
@tepid verge
Oh interesting, ok so that is indeed the slope. I didn't expect it to be constant
So now you can designate one of y_1 or y_2 as your independent variable, representing one in terms of the other
Then you can define a line L, the chord of the two points, in terms of your single independent variable
And then, get the distance between the origin and L, and minimize it
k lemme try
the line isnt fixed cuz one of the y is variable so the 1st option is incorrect?
this is a multiple correct que btw
I assumed this was calculus
You have a function D(y), measuring the shortest distance between the origin and the line L(y), and you want to minimize D(y)
it could be solved by calculus but we haven't been taught that yet
Ok word, so unless if the distance function happens to be constant too, then I agree, it's not necessarily 9/20 because the line can change
yeaa
I mean really you could choose y_1 = 0, y_2 = 3
That line contains the origin, so the shortest possible distance is 0 after all
If y_1 = 0, then x_1 = y_1^2 / 4 = 0^2/4 = 0, so (x_1, y_1) = (0,0) is on the line
What is a normal?
A normal to a parabola is a straight line perpendicular to the tangent line at a specific point on the parabola, passing through that same point
Was that in your own words or copypasted?
mine
Ok, I had to ask
Well, how do you define the line normal to a parabola at an arbitrary point?
whats an arbitrary
arbitrary as in, its selection has no significance
I say R = (x_3, y_3) is a point on the parabola
with no further conditions, R is arbitrarily chosen
ohh?
It's not a math term
I already asked a question, how do you describe the line N normal to the parabola at a given point R?
Can you give an equation for this line N?
at r
yes
Then do so for your two points and explain, if you could
So is that also just a given equation or did you derive it at some point?
Is it given when the parabola is of a particular form?
i.e. when does this hold true?
um
no
it hold tru verytime most prolly cuz its the standard slope form
of normal to parabola
y = ax^2, y = ax^2 + bx + c?
This parabola is different, this is x = y^2/4
It's not exactly the same because the roles of x and y are switched
not ax^2, it's ay^2
so there might be some adjustments needed
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Hello! I've been experimenting with procedural terrain generation algorithms, and while doing so, I stumbled upon a problem that I am probably not capable solving without some help.
Consider a Voronoi graph generated from sites on a square lattice. This graph would just be all square tiles, but if we apply some perturbation (random offset) to the sites, we get a much more chaotic looking Voronoi graph -- see first attached image.
Now, the question is, how much can the sites be perturbed, such that the sites keep their original neighbors? In other words, what shape is the boundary of positions where a site is guaranteed to neighbor another site that it is connected in the square lattice?
Consider the following sites A, B and C. The yellow square would be the boundary of valid positions for the vertex X of the Voronoi graph. X cannot go below the bottom yellow line, because if there was another site D below A, it could cause the edge between B and A to vanish.
This applies to all other directions as well, hence the orange boundary being a square.
If I knew the position of B and C, I could compute the area where A could be placed -- here the darker regions correspond to those areas computed from the two remaining sites.
Using the fact that the areas should be symmetric, because the lattice could extend in all directions, I can take the intersection of rotational and reflective symmetries of each area:
And finally, I can superimpose the areas and intersect them, getting these black boundaries:
But these boundaries are not a general solution, they are computed from the current positions of the sites.
I would like to figure out the actual boundary, that will guarantee that when I place sites within them, the neighboring sites in the square lattice will remain neighbors in the Voronoi graph.
The computation of the orange Voronoi vertex X is a mapping from āā¶ to ā², which makes this problem difficult.
Finally, here's an interactive tool I made to explore this problem: https://www.desmos.com/calculator/bdwvwknskw
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ā Original question: #help-41 message
Update: I have no proof but I have a hunch this is the solution. It's too perfect not to be it. 
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"Can someone please tag the bot or send a link for the 'Bartle Real Analysis' solutions PDF? I can't find it in the search
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Could anyone help me with this problem?
I'm stuck in part a, I've been trying to see something like f(x+a)=f(x) somewhere by going from one integral to the other
but I'm gettng that integral of f(x+b) from 0 to a is equal to integral of f(x) from b to b+a
but the period is a
not b
and cannot use change of variable or sorts, just fundamental theorem of calculus and definition
split $\int_b^{b + a} f = \int_b^a f + \int_a^{b + a} f$
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i am dumb
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the lesson is about finding the area of a triangle with this method
I'm wondering how the j became positive or this is all an error
it's probably an error
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thx
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I'm kind of confused here
The likelihood function is
$\prod_{i=1}^{n} (1- \theta)^{x_i-1} \theta= \theta^{n} (1- \theta) ^{\sum){i=1}^{n} x_i -n}$
wai
And sure , we can maximise its log
$n \log(\theta) + (\sum_{i=1}^{n} x_i -n ) \ln (1- \theta)$
wai
so $\frac{n}{ \theta} = \frac{ \sum_{i=1}^{n} x_i -n}{ 1- \theta}$ is needed
wai
so $\theta= \frac{n} { \sum_{i=1}^{n} x_i}$
wai
unless I' tripping?
but I don't see what this has to do with the factorisatioon theomr
Like this suggests \sum x_i -n is sufficient too, but?
At this point you have your model
What does the factorisation lemma say
@keen pawn
oops
hi, yes
if I can write the likelihood function as h(x) g(\theta, T(x)), Tx is a sufficient statistic
sure
frosst
where
Yeah
Yeah but thereās a way to turn a^b into something * e^b
Iām pretty sure
Iām so dead rn I canāt think
lna * e^b maybe
that doesn't sound right
ae^b?
$e^{ b( \ln(a)-1)}$
This was right
wai
Where did this -1 come from
Okay whatever it doesnāt matter
ln(x)=. b(ln(a)-1)
so you're saying this is the neyman factorisation
This guy is clearly $h(\theta)g(\theta, T(x))$
frosst
With $T(x) = \bar x$
frosst
sure, what did I do wrong here though
Why did you differentiate and set to zero
Thatās for part 2
First you need to show itās sufficient
okay, so overline{X} is a sufficient stat
Oh why do they want to maximise the log
I thought I'd first maximise the log
yeah
Maybe itās just giving you some hints
This hints towards the mle of Īø is a function of xbar
A minimal one even
it does yeah, which is why I was trying to figure out what I did wrong
because I'm getting 1/overline{X}
Oh thereās also a theorem for this
Your mle becomes a function of a sufficient statistic
So you can see mle of Īø is a function of xbar
I see
Thatās like the hint to be oh look for the xbar for factorising
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Hello
i had a problem in
how do you integrate
tan inverse (1-x/1+x)
like integral of tan^-1(1-x/1+x)
all you really do is use some of the integration tricks you've stored
here's what I thought: the derivative of arctan(-) is algebraic, so why not try ibp?
parthisjoking
the inside becomes
$\tan({\frac{\pi}{4}-\theta})$
parthisjoking
its ez after that
if u dont see this happening lmk
@vapid portal Has your question been resolved?
LMFAO yes howd you know
same set
i did the 1/x^1/2 + x^1/3
100 hopefully
Ayy lessgoo
put x = tā¶
yes
Another method is using arctan a - arctanb as arctan of a-b/1+ab and then take a and b as 1 and x
or
this
ilate laga diya or shit
i was thinking aisa hi hoga
its ok , it was kinda tuff
but idk click hi nahi hua
Bhai indefinite wala tough tha
definite was ez
Vo sin^2026 ka ans Ļ/2 tha na
Okieee
everything was ez
Kasam se
i didnt have that
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In my linear algebra book (Local university) they are not having such topics...i don't know why
linear algebra book: https://textbooks.math.gatech.edu/ila/overview.html
use index
e.g.
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Is there a good way to approximate the piecewise (z<0 : x else y) with polynomials, other than lagrange?
Please don't occupy multiple help channels.
completely different question ):
well there are lots of different ways to compute the interpolating polynomial but it will still end up the same anyway
fundamentally the piecewise probably isnt continuous which will fuck up your approximation anyway
Given itās continuous and so is its derivative
But higher degrees no
I canāt taylor expand bc itās a piecewise but Iād prefer a nonsampling method if at all possible
Why cant u taylor expand?
often chebychev nodes are optimal for interpolation
because taylor expansion relies on d derivatives, but piecewises break that. so the approximations using the 2nd order derivative and so on will break completely at the piecewise switch
and I need this to be approximated solely with additions, subtracts, multiplications and divisions, hence a polynomial
sounds like xy
Can u send the problem maybe that helpd
divisions are stronger than just polynomial
there are things like pade approximations but I dont know how well those do here either
ideally as few divisions as possible** since each division requires an LU of a matrix of functions
the heck are you doing
it's a personal project, I am working with a system of nonlinear ODEs that I am putting through spectral transforms, which means I have nonlinear functions of weighted sums of basis vectors, and need to approximate those as nonlinear functions times each basis vector separately so I can turn it into a system of equations
unfortunately piecewise functions have been a problem since it seems I must sample, and I really want a neater way than that
I see i see
Maybe try other type of functions
Sry for bad engliscj
I do not have a choice in the system of equations I am transforming lol
and I'm using simplified models to boot
I expect the real models are significantly worse
the piecewises come from transistor equations in this case
btw spline interpolation is also generally good
wait, that's just piecewise again
nvm
How far are u into this project
wdym?
as far as I know, everything is feasible / I know methods / I have seen methods for resolving every problem I know of in implementation
technically I can approximate piecewises with lagrange
it's just a really messy solution and I really want something better
but yes in the bases I'm working with, only addition, subtraction, multiplication and division are defined between my vectors
so e^(vector) needs to be approximate through 1 + vector + vector^2/2! + ...
though I can improve that by extracting the mean from my vector, and expanding around that instead of 0 (for various reasons, that does work)
but yeah I checked, spline won't work because on evaluation, I won't be able to know which spline to use (by piecewise) as I won't have real values, but spectral coefficients instead (which corresponds to not being able to split the output into basis vectors)
padƩ won't work because piecewise can't be approximate by power series, but I should keep that in mind for functions that can
oh you meant in context with real models ā circuit simulation doesn't typically use real models all the time, you use simplified models for standard simulation (standard parts work very hard to correspond to standard behavior), then real models when doing delicate stuff, ie when you're doing ASIC design with analog transistors that's when the models are basically maxwell's laws + numerical interpolations from measured data, instead of simplified piecewises
"simplified" models like that I am using are good enough most of the time
ah ok, that would help answer #help-7ļ½zen1thxyz for me then
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can i get help man
i have no clue whats goin on here at all
a or b
so you havent solved this yet?
we went from finding tangent planes to this all of a sudden and for the life of me im tryuna understand the correlation here
no not at all ive only found partial derivatives but i have no idea why we need them either
$$dV = \frac{\partial V}{\partial r} dr + \frac{\partial V}{\partial h} dh$$ this?
Minhh
not dV just dV/dr and dV/dh
i have no idea what the intuition is tbh

<@&286206848099549185>
well this means if you want to build a cylinder, you have to add "stuff" in two directions, which are outward (radius) and upward (height)
imagine if you have a finished soda can, if you want to make it thicker you wrap around it a layer, that area of that side is the circumference 2 pi*r times the height h
while the thickness is dr
and you know that the intuition here is volume = thickness multiply area
but if you want to make the can taller, you add a thin disk both to the top and bottom
the thickness here is now dh and area of top of circle is pir^2
thats how i imagine of, idk if this helps
@lime ingot Has your question been resolved?
is this what you mean
reminder!
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could someone help me with this question?
6 ?
well I mean youll see it at 5
compute as many as you need to before you see whatās going on
^
like the 6th term?
aight
so after n! where n > 4 all compute to 1
ok thanks
Yup
so final is i + 95
Yup
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can i get help for this bruh
how does this relate to tangent planes
why do we care about the total differential here
@lime ingot Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
id imagine
this has nothing to do with tangent planes
and we do not care about the total derivative
do you have a different way of doing it
because in reality it lowkey does
isnt it just like
replace r and h with 1.05r and 1.05h
and compare that to the volume of the cylinder
well i dont know man thats the point
š¤·āāļø
youve asked about total differential a few times. if u have some would u mind me giving a mini lecture on its derivation and application?
the total derivative is basically the linear approximatuion of (delta)z, as (delta)y and (delta)x approach 0 of some initial point on a given curve,
(delta)z can be found by finding its change along the curve parallel to one axis + the other axis
and apparently thats the partial derivatives
thats correct but i can explain how it relates to errors if ur interested
yes please
id appreciate it
for notational convenience lets go back to singlevar. at the end ill just outright state the multivar analog of our results bc its proof is similar
we have a function $f:\bR\to\bR$ and an input $x\in\bR$ with output $f(x)$. suppose that we measure the input with error $h$. when we try to record $f(x)$, this error causes us to instead record $f(x+h)$, so we want a formula that expresses the induced error in the output
$$f(x+h)-f(x)=\text{ error term that is accurate for small }h$$
equivalently
$$f(x+h)=f(x)+\text{ error term that is accurate for small }h$$
ćć±ććć»ćøć£ć³ć
@lime ingot all clear?
i guess?
so how would this apply here
sry ive only just started. im going very slowly bc itll get wild
no worries
the thing is what i just wrote is unrigorous. to be rigorous ill use little o notation. are u possibly familiar with it?
@lime ingot
o notation?
'little o notation'
okay
given functions $F$ and $G$ and a point $h_0$, we say "$F(h)$ is little o of $G(h)$ as $h\to h_0$" if
$$\lim_{h\to h_0}\frac{F(h)}{G(h)}=0$$
when this is true we can alternatively write
$$F(h)=o(G(h)) \text{ as }h\to h_0$$
the bottom equality is not literal equality. its a way to say that $F$ is in a "class" of functions, and that class is defined by vanishing when we divide by $G$ and take the limit $h\to h_0$
oh okay
ćć±ććć»ćøć£ć³ć
@lime ingot clear?
sure
sry but i need to take another detour before rigorously rewriting my intro
its okay but
can i tell you where im at right now with the geometric interpreation so you know what to write
when i mention a linear function, it doesnt mean $g(x)=Ax+B$ from high school. it means a function $g$ that "respects" addition and scalar multiplication of its inputs. the former means $g(a+b)=g(a)+g(b)$ for all inputs $a$ and $b$. the latter means $g(ca)=cg(a)$ for all scalars $c$ and inputs $a$
ćć±ććć»ćøć£ć³ć
so far i understand the labels except for one thing which is the total derivative being expressed as the partials in the x and y direction
it will come once i state the multivar analog of my results
okay
now ill state the rigorous version of my goal
unrigorously we want
$$f(x+h)=f(x)+\text{ error term that is accurate for small }h$$
rigorously we define a linear function $df(x):\bR\to\bR$ (the $(x)$ in the function name denotes that its "attached" to the input $x$) such that
$$f(x+h)=f(x)+df(x)(h)+o(h) \text{ as }h\to0$$
we desire this so that we can informally write
$$f(x+h)\approx f(x)+df(x)(h) \text{ for small }h$$
our goal is to find an explicit formula for $df(x)(h)$ for all $h$, so that the entire equation above (called the linear approximation of $f$ at $x$) is made explicit
@lime ingot clear?
ćć±ććć»ćøć£ć³ć
im sorry i hate to make you right all that just for me to not get it but its not clicking tbh with you
for now is there like a simple way to understand this because i have a test tmrw so i think the best option is to let go of understanding the concept for now
not the best thing but i have no other choice tbh
ik its not visual friendly, its just total differentials rigorously come from bashing real analysis
for now if u just bear with me and blindly accept the above goal of linear approximation then i guarantee the rest is mostly algebra and standard calc
alright then
ill recap the goal that youve blindly accepted. attached to $x$ we define a function $df(x):\bR\to\bR$. we impose that $df(x)$ is linear and that it satisfies
$$f(x+h)=f(x)+df(x)(h)+o(h) \text{ as }h\to0$$
our goal is to find an explict formula for $df(x)(h)$ for all $h$
ćć±ććć»ćøć£ć³ć
alright š
now my final detour.. is a relatively straightforward result from linear algebra (im aware youve probably not taken it)
the only linear functions $\bR\to\bR$ are constant*h. in other words if $g:\bR\to\bR$ is linear then there exists a constant $c$ such that $g(h)=ch$ for all $h$
ćć±ććć»ćøć£ć³ć
this fact tells us that there exists a constant $c$ such that $df(x)(h)=ch$ for all $h$. we are just left to find $c$
ćć±ććć»ćøć£ć³ć
now lets do some algebra and calc
plug in the above fact to get $f(x+h)=f(x)+ch+o(h)$
ćć±ććć»ćøć£ć³ć
$f(x+h)-f(x)=ch+o(h)$
ćć±ććć»ćøć£ć³ć
$\frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}h=c+\frac{o(h)}h$
ćć±ććć»ćøć£ć³ć
take the limit $h\to0$. recall the definition of little o notation: the $o(h)$ (as $h\to0$) term means that it vanishes if we divide it by $h$ then let $h\to0$
$$\lim_{h\to0}\frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}h=c$$
ćć±ććć»ćøć£ć³ć
im sorry but it doesnt seem like im understanding at all š
the problem is im completely lost when it comes to this
is there any confusion in the algebra?
no no its the concept
i just dont understand why / how tangent planes, are supposed to relate to a freakin error,
im very close to stating the results
the book sucks, my professor sucks
they dont even explain this stuff
@fierce linden can i ask something
?
ill wait for ur question. in the meantime ill state the results
our equation says $f'(x)=c$. we finally have an explicit formula
$$df(x)(h)=f'(x)h$$
ćć±ććć»ćøć£ć³ć
our results for singlevar:
\begin{enumerate}
\item formula for the total differential $df(x)$ of $f$ at $x$:
$$df(x)(h)=f'(x)h$$
\item formula for error in output caused by error in input:
$$f(x+h)=f(x)+f'(x)h+o(h) \text{ as } h\to0$$
equivalently
$$f(x+h)-f(x)=f'(x)h+o(h) \text{ as } h\to0$$
\item linear approximation of error:
$$f(x+h)\approx f(x)+f'(x)h\text{ for small } h$$
equivalently
$$f(x+h)-f(x)\approx f'(x)h\text{ for small } h$$
\end{enumerate}
ćć±ććć»ćøć£ć³ć
now ill state the multivar analog of the results. their derivation is similar to the singlevar case. note that in the multivar case $x$ and $h$ are vectors and written as column vectors whenever necessary.
\begin{enumerate}
\item formula for the total differential $df(x)$ of $f$ at $x$:
$$df(x)(h)=Jf(x)h$$
where $Jf(x)$ is the jacobian matrix of $f$ evaluated at $x$. \tbf{note the right side is a matrix vector product}
\item formula for error in output caused by error in input:
$$f(x+h)=f(x)+Jf(x)h+o(\norm{h}) \text{ as } h\to0$$
equivalently
$$f(x+h)-f(x)=Jf(x)h+o(\norm{h}) \text{ as } h\to0$$
\item linear approximation of error:
$$f(x+h)\approx f(x)+Jf(x)h\text{ for small } h$$
equivalently
$$f(x+h)-f(x)\approx Jf(x)h\text{ for small } h$$
\end{enumerate}
ćć±ććć»ćøć£ć³ć
okay
is there any chance you could explain this to me like youd do to a 5 year old
like these
in the context of ur problem the volume is a scalar function $V(r,h)$, so its jacobian matrix is
$$JV(r,h)=\m{\pdv{V}{r}&\pdv{V}{h}}$$
unfortunately we recast $h$ as a scalar representing height. we will rewrite the vector $h$ in our results as $\m{dr\dh}$. result (1) says what youve been after the whole time,
$$dV(r,h)(dr,dh)=\m{\pdv{V}{r}&\pdv{V}{h}}\m{dr\dh}=\pdv{V}{r}dr+\pdv{V}{h}dh$$
ćć±ććć»ćøć£ć³ć
yeah no im sorry this made it worse
idek what a jobean matrix is
all i know is how to find a tangent plane equation given a multi variable function
and thats literally ALL i know and can do regarding this material
thats it
for a scalar function its just the matrix of partial derivatives (just a row vector)
if the function has multiple components then its more complicated but we dont worry about it
@fierce linden do you think i can take this approach to solve these kinds of problems?
thats the full story of how total differential relates to errors. ik u havent absorbed too much of it but i invite u to try after the exam is done. for now all u need is to apply the results to solve ur problem
plug in the function $V(r,h)$ to result (3) to get the linear approximation of error
$$V(r+dr,h+dh)-V(r,h)\approx\pdv{V}{r}dr+\pdv{V}{h}dh \text{ for small }dr,dh$$
ćć±ććć»ćøć£ć³ć
tbh my test is tmrw and im pulling an alnighter and im probably gonna need a memory based method to go about this, do you have any recommendations?
like given these kinds of problems, im pretty sure theres a memorization way to go about this or something right
like plugging in stuff
i already provided the results. u just need to plug in the given function
ur problem says estimate error in the volume. that means plug in V(r,h) into the linear approximation given in result (3) as ive done above
but it shows you ended up with a combination of partial derivatives
did u expect any different?
its consistent with the boxed equation in ur tangent plane picture
its just not making sense man
lets say we're looking at a cylinder so $V(r,h)=\pi^2rh$. plugging into my approximation,
$$\text{error in volume}\approx\pi^2hdr+\pi^2rdh\text{ for small }dr,dh$$
ćć±ććć»ćøć£ć³ć
lastly plug in r and h along with the errors dr and dh
4 and 5a bc they both ask for error estimates
weird thing is 4 doesnt give values of r and h
4 and 5 have different shapes so this is what we apply
if it wasnt clear, the whole left side is the error in volume
yes i see that tbh
uh
what abt r and h
weird thing is 4 doesnt give values of r and h
my most generous interpretation of "maximum possible" is to maximize the error estimate as r and h vary over all values
i dont think ive ever not understood a topic in math like this
any advice for the rest?
š¤£
this is quite dumb bc the error blows up as r and h get larger..
5b is the exact same..
it asks for error estimate
plug function $R(R_1,R_2)$ into result (3). it will look like
$$\text{error in }R\approx\dots\text{ for small }dR_1,dR_2$$
ćć±ććć»ćøć£ć³ć
its late and i need to sleep so let me finish off
in case u dont go back to reread my derivation, at least memorize the results
for every problem about error estimates plug the given function into result (3). if ur not sure how, mimic the examples i did above
@lime ingot in theory now u know the full story of total differential, errors, and linear approximation. i did warn it would be wild. i encourage u after the exam to read it back to try understanding as much as u can, and feel free to ask me follow up questions on any part
have a good one, gl on the exam
@lime ingot Has your question been resolved?
you too, thanks alot
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can someone help me understand differentials and approximation
like conceptually
if someone can help then ill let you know where im stuck on exactly
@lime ingot Has your question been resolved?
@lime ingot Has your question been resolved?
it's saying that it's approximately the same
but if we look at first order approximation it's equal
we only look at linear approximations of the surface (so only up to first order)
im confused on the part where delta z is calculated as a combination of partiual derivatgives
whats the geometric logic behind that
i think it won't make sense without a little linear algebra
you are basically picking a basis on the tangent plane and using linearity of Df(x,y) to reduce the computation of Df(x,y)(Īz) to a linear combination of Df(x,y)(Īx) and Df(x,y)(Īy)
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how can I obtain 10a? I have $-\frac{\sin^2(x)\cos(x)}{3} - \frac{2}{3}\cos x$ but I don't see what sub I can do
BigBen
use d/dx sin(x)= cos(x)
What's the result in exercise 7 and 8
im not following
u=sinx
did you not learn derivatives before integrals?
if not that's fine, just surprising
d/dx represents the derivative yes
I was viewing it as d/dx*sinx
just misread
but that is using u sub. the exercise is trying to tell me to use 7 or 8 and from the second part of 8 I have what I wrote but I can't see what trig subs to do from there
I tried sin^2 = 1-cos^2 x
well yea i suggested that before you showed what 7 and 8 were
i suppose you have to integration by parts on sin^2(x) * cos(x) again using 7 to integrate sin^2(x)
from 7
alternatively, you can also use 8 with n=3
with 8 and n = 3 I can only see how to simplify to $-\cos x -\frac{\cos^3 x}{3}$
BigBen
simplify what to that?
so we have $\int \sin^3 x dx = - \frac{\sin^2 x \cos x}{3} + \frac{2}{3} \int \sin x dx$
BigBen
I turned that into this
are you not able to integrate sin(x) ?
I did thats where I had the $-\frac{2}{3}\cos x$
BigBen
,w int sin^3(x) dx
did you try using sin^2 = 1 - cos^2
ye thats how I turned the other fraction into $\frac{-\cos x - \cos^3 x}{3}$
BigBen
these two things lead me to this
,tex .double angle
pi_day
maybe try the 2nd formula to reduce the power. there may be other trig identites you'll need
I think according to exercise 7 and 8 the book want them to solve it through IBP
ok let me see what I can do
I don't know what IBP is
Integration by part
ye but we don't have any intergrals anymore
yea this is incorrect somewhere
,w -1/3 *( cos(x) - cos^3(x)) - 1/12(cos(3x) - 9cos(x))
since that's ^ not a constant
isn't this different than what we had?
this was the last time you had a correct step. show your entire work in one or two messages to get to an expression without integrals
your answer
the correct answer
if your antiderivative was correct, it would differ from wolfram's by a constant
This is all the steps I had
Thanks
The second part for the last line looks like cos(3x) just missing the sin parts
I got it but I had to go backwards
.solved
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Given f is a scalar function and v is a vector function ,
To prove :-
d(f r)/dt = f dr/dt + r df/dt
See image *
Is the proof correct .
The step:
āt-> 0 f(t+āt) ā f(t)
Is what I am unsure about
it's valid, but you need justification
that statement is equivalent to saying that f is continuous at t
Continuity?
yep
Then , it's fully Rigorous?
up to the point where the screenshot ends, yea
you have to explain why f is continuous at t, though
yw
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can someone help me find the currents of every resistor in this circuit? i got these equations from kirchoff but got wrong values when i tried solving it
not even sure if they are right, and there should be an easier way to do this right?
@stable kelp Has your question been resolved?
the fact that none of the equations have any negative signs is suspicious
uh which way are the I1, I2, and other Is
the last 2 are the nodes between three resistors so the sum should be 0
i did 4 loops clockwise
well those two i can understand but i think you need to determine the direction of the currents for the first three as @cloud said
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can someone help please? Sequences
Wut
!original
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
any two could be true
@eager pebble Has your question been resolved?
I'm assuming this is 1 geometric series and you just want to find which terms make sense. It's good to start off by recognising that these are powers of 2. Then you will see why frowny's statement is true and it's actually 2 geometric sequences that are contained in the answers here
Is this new information from the question?
Yes sorry i didnt see the full question š
well because its geometric
you know to go from the 6th to the 7th term you multiply by r
so to go from the 6th to add term you multiply by r twice i.e. $r^2$
Nyxzore
knowing that you can work out what r is
ah i seee
Whats r used for
is rhere a follow up formula for this
well you know any geometric sequence is
${ar^n}$
if i had 3 9 27 ...
my r value is 3
cuz to go from one term to the next i am multiplying by 3
so to get the 4th term id just say 27*3
and so on
Nyxzore
Ouhh whats a
guess
is it the first term
but we dont know term 1
we dont need to
I just need to know how to traverse terms
lets say i can you a random sequence
3, ..., 12, 24, 48
6
exactly!
so is r 2
okay so 1024/(2r) is 256 ?

i see the confusion
well we know the 6th is 256 so lets write it like this
{..., ..., ..., ..., ..., 256, ..., 1024}
3, ..., 12, 24, 48 looking back at this
you saw that r=2
to go from 12->48
i'd need to times by r twice
i.e. 12.r.r
so r^2
ayep
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Determine all monotone functions $f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ such that [f(x +f(y)) = f(x) + f(y) ] for all real $x,y$
well clearly f(f(x)) = f(x) + f(0) for all x but idk how to continue
f(x + f(y)) = f(x) + f(y) looks quite interesting,
f(x + k) = f(x) + k (where k = f(y) for any y you pick)
oh wait i forgot a part
Copter
oh that might change some stuff
monotone means injectivity right
depends
it might not be strictly monotone
montonicity includes constant sections too usually
oh okay
suppose that we have f(a)=f(b)
then f(a+f(y)) = f(b+f(y))
if f(y) non const then a=b
if f(y) nonconstant then (a+f(y),b+f(y)) is some interval adm we have for all y so we can vary y
i think
maybe f(y) just doesnt vary as much as you would hope it would
i just managed to find quite a non-trivial solution, which is not injective (not the x=0 one)
f(x + k) = f(x) + k (where k = f(y) for any y you pick)
This is probably the most interesting thing
the most obvious functions with this property is probably f(x) = x+c
then there are some heavily discontinuous (but not monotone examples) and also some discontinuous but still monotone examples
try finding some of those discontinuous and still monotone exampels
f(x + k) = f(x) + k (where k = f(y) for any y you pick)
This basically says
f(x+k) = f(x) + k for all k in ran(f) btw
im not yet sure how to do the formal proof, but the montonicity is there just to remove some very ugly very discontinuous sols
f(x+k) = f(x) + k for all k in ran(f) btw
Try just constructing something with this property
oh i think i know how to do the formal proof now
do you know how to do it, assuming f is injective?
yeah, there are such cases
what does it mean if a function isnt injective but is monotone
what can you say about such function
there is some interval where it is constant
yep, its constant on some interval
so lets suppose that on some interval [a,b], f(x) = c
f(x+k) = f(x) + k for all k in ran(f) btw
Draw it and use this to get some values outside of [a,b] and see how f starts to look like
linear?
well, its constant somewhere so it cant be exactly linear
i mean its linear outside of (a,b)
Not necessarily
For example if on [1,2) f(x) = 1, it would force e.g. f(2.5) = f(1.5 +1) = 2, similarly f(2.1) = 2...
would it be constant of the same interval
i see
So these floor-like functions are another class of solutions
Now youll probably have to go through to casework on the constant intervals (for example if f is 0 on the interval, we arent able zo get much info from it) and see where the floor-likeness is actually forced
i think we can do a lil algebra
f(x+k)-(x+k)=f(x)-x
so g(x)=f(x)-x is k periodic. then use f monotone to get some conditions on g
That was my og idea, but i didnt find the monotonicity condition very useful
It could be used with continuity or to construct some very ugly sols tho
||g periodic kills f decreasing||
||then f increasing gives a nice concrete condition on g||
@solemn escarp Has your question been resolved?
honestly the class of floor-like solutions is so big that its quite difficult just to describe it, for example
f(x) = 1 on [0, 1/3)
f(x) = 2 on [1/3, 1)
f(x+n) = f(x) + n for n in Z
works too, and its not a plain floor
Describing the g functions as rokketo suggested might be easier
||You can pick any y and then H := {ny | n in Z} will be the range. Now pick an arbitrary monotone function f' mapping [0, y) -> H and extend it by the rule f(x + y) = f(x) + y. That gives you f: R -> H, which is a valid sol.||
There are more sols than I expected
They mightve intended "monotone" to mean "strictly monotone"
u know ur cooked when even helpfuls misspell ur name
this doesnt really affect much, at least from what i see in my solution
@solemn escarp Has your question been resolved?
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Help me with 31 and 32
What have you tried?
What
I have attached
there was a gambling ad guy a gain
Someone help
Do you have any ideas how to continue?
The traces at y = k are circles that get smaller until they become a point at y = 1. This tells you that the figure has a peak on the y-axis and opens up like a cone.
Right?
I canāt visualise
You can draw the axes to visualise it better.
Using our values.
It's just a way of saying any number. Try substituting it with any number.
oh I still donāt get it
Did you draw it?
Send it here. And state what you tried or what ideas you have. š
Donāt worry with practice and drawing you will get it.
okay
Drawing this
What ideas you have. You need only to draw it, right?
yeah but I m so confused
when I have to draw in 3 d
Like on paper
Whatās the directrix gonna be
U there?
The hyperbolic paraboloid is a ruled surface. This means you can draw it by joining points between two principal lines (or curves).
Remember that in a hyperbolic paraboloid, the parabolas are not the structure, but the result of cutting the figure.
Can u explain me how you draw on paper I feel clueless
Then how to draw it
First, draw a parabola opening upwards in the yz-plane and a parabola opening downwards in the xy-plane, both intersecting at the origin. Right?
Now you can know how to conclude?
The parabolas are the skeleton you draw first, and the hyperbolas are the walls that connect them to form the saddle.
Donāt worry.
I canāt give you the answer sorry.
š
Try it.
If you made mistakes I will correct you, donāt worry.
is this thomas?
Hello bhai
Han bhai
yar
Yeh hyperbolic paraboloid
ne
halat kharab ki huwi hai bhai
rona araha hai
Good!
Acha theek ye banda kar dega badhiya se help
acha hai ye wala banda usse hi smjh lo
Just draw a parabola that starts at the center and opens flat along the floor (the xy-plane), pointing towards the negative y-axis.
Better.
You have to draw that same inverted U but starting from where all the axes intersect.
Itās the only think.
Why so
Because when y=0 x=0. Right?
@languid nest Has your question been resolved?
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I'm doing ellipses and hyperbole in high school. I need some help, i know how to do the basics, but when it gets even a lil bit harder i get stuck.
this is the excercise where im stuck
Whats the question
I need help to start this excercise. I can do the last part, like drawing it on the graphic, but i just need to find Centre, a, b, c and e.
I need some help gettin there
Aight , so do you know if its an hyperbole or an ellipse?
help*
Asking to see how much you much you know currently
I understand this is and hyperbole, since there is the - in between.
So the basic form of an hyperboal is, in this case,
(y - β)²/b² - (x-α)²/a² = 1
So, on the right hand side, you need to get 1
Then the center would be (α,β)
And a² would the opposite of the coefficient thats with x². In this case, itd be 9/16
Youd get something like this, meaning β = 2 and α = 0
And 1/b² = 1/9
And 1/a² = 16/9
@clever hull Has your question been resolved?
mh, so the centre is (0;2)
but shouldnt the a be 3 just like the b
Cuz in hyperboles and ellipses i calculate the a and the b by doin the square root of whats under the fraction
like this
Not quite, you dont square root just whats under the fraction, you need to root the entire coefficient
sorry if i explain myself bad, english is not my first lenguage. if u need some clarification, im herw
oh alright
It worked for that cuz there wasnt anythinf multiplied in the numerator
but this is at the power ²
Yes
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hey guys, how am I supposed to do this. Im in adv func so I dont know any calculus
multiply by conjugate/conjugate
Have you tried taking conjugates?
multiply the root by the cojugate?
cuz isnt that usally used when you have a fraction
or do I make it into a fraction
by root i hope you mean the whole numerator right
yea
Okay go ahead then
ok I got to 3x+7/ (sqrt(x^2 + 3x + 7) + x)
Okay nice
Now leaving the Question aside for a moment
what is a/x when x is tending to infinty?
(a is a definite constant)
decreasing?
Noo
Nope i am asking the value of the limit
What is 1/infinity= (tending to ...)
ummmm aprouach 0?
Yeeee
Okay good!
So you have to make smthing like that
Make 1/infinity type so u get 0
and denom cant be 0
type?
Umm u need pic ?
ok wait first what does geometrical meaning is that the graph?
Can you convert all the terms in the expression into smth like a/x or a/(x^2) or a constant itself?
Idk I can help to solve questions but idk what that ?
not required to analyze graphically here
technically DNE
Yeah!
well not exaclty as you could say its tending to zero itself
Oh well then what did you do for this?
wait can ygs check this can I based it off this
I am assuming you divided the numerator by x?
This is correct but this wont lead you anywhere!
ad then I multpy by the conjugate
Sure you could do that but its better to multiply by conjugate before divding by x
ahh my bad thought you were talking about 1/x when x approaches 0
Ahš
wdym also the conjugate is just the same equation but +1 instead of -1 right
Nope look carefully!
here you are getting a form of inf x 0
ok wait lemme restart
ill do this
but yes