#help-41
1 messages · Page 30 of 1
wdym?
To verify your answer
What happened to cos a x cos b
Not sure I understand
huh?
So sin was being multiplied by cos then it turns into sin + cos
The last term disappears as well
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1- one to one
2- not
3- not
4- one to one
right?
yes
yes
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This is not making any sense
Like why does it say "r-1" then it proceeds to write "r+1"
this calculus or nah?
wha grade you in rn
This is 11th grade course
👍
<@&286206848099549185>
@frigid mountain Has your question been resolved?
No 😭
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Help
Why does it say "r-1" but then it uses "r+1" in the equation
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need help
what do you think
what do domain and range mean
x and y
no
too vague
why do all high school teachers do that
every person in high school would always say domain is x and range is y
So whats the answer
x and y is better
thats one specific case, for functions of the form y=f(x) where our range is the set of y values and domain is the set of x values
it is not a general concept of domain and range
in simple terms the domain is the set of input values which would commonly be denoted by x yes, but as this illustration shows a function is a mapping between two sets, the domain and the codomain, each element in the domain is mapped to an element in the codomain. the range is the set of values the function takes on, or in other words the set of values in the codomain that have a pre image (arrow pointing to them)
blud said in simple terms and gave a confusing paragraph😂
nah thats acutally funny
😂
what was confusing?
💀💀
i cant be more clear than this
^
do you need it in fortnite terms or something
yea it’s jelly’s channel
no
what
you linked jelly’s channel
blud
font buggin
so the answer not 3
are you in 6th grade
nah boss
has to be in 2
No
Bro the time running out
I needa do this question
time?
ahh it’s a quiz
oh dear oh dear oh dear
Nah
open a book
I gotta sleep soon
probably allergic
yea and the time of the assignment is running out huh
nah
show the full screen blud
times running out
yall crazy
I asked for the answer not an explanation on domain and range
!nosols
As a helper, please do not give out answers that could be copied as a homework solution. Have the student work through the problem themselves and guide them along the way.
i know that already
we gave you enough information to know what to do
we aren’t here to give you the answers
we told you
lets do vc
nah
and we’re not giving you the answer
its easier
tick tock chap
no one wants to man sorry
quit yapping and do your test
i did
test?
question 9 (1 point)
submit it then
it’s not number 3
💀
nah it is
you’re right
photomath is right
our mistake man
😂😂😂
say on bro
we were just messing with you
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How does 2sinxcosx become 1 + sinx
4x + y + x(dy/dx) - 2y(dy/dx) = 0
x(dy/dx) - 2y(dy/dx) = -4x - y
dy/dx (x-2y) = -4x - y
dy/dx = (-4x - y) / (x - 2y)
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what does it mean that happening of one event confirms non occurence of her in mutually exhaustive set of events?
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We know that the limit
(→1)^→inf is Euler's number
Does the limit
(→inf)^→0 also has a value??
it's actually indeterminate, which means it can have any value depending on the specific functions. Some specific functions will make it e, but not others
this one is also indeterminate
Any example
Okay I know what you mean
Another question
(1+x)^1/x is e where x tends to 0
So does the limit
1/x ^ (1+x) where x tends to 0 has a value too
Or 1/x^(x)
I imagine it as a very big number raised to a very small number →0
Can it tend to a new constant too?
something in the form 1/0 will tend to either +infinity or -infinity depending on the sign. something in the form 0^0 is also indeterminate
if you want to find the limit of 1/x^x, you can use the fact that x = e^(ln x)
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so each elementary row operation corresponds to a particular elementary matrix
so if you multiply C by a particular sequence of elementary matrices, you get the identity matrix (this is how you row reduced it)
if we call those elementary matrices $E_1, E_2, \ldots E_k$ then we have [ E_k \cdots E_2 E_1 C = I ]
cloud
what does that tell us about the matrix $E_k \cdots E_2 E_1$?
cloud
uhmm
tells us that C can be written as the product of the inverses of those elementary matrices??
we have (some matrix)*C = I
oh ok
and the inverse of that
and that inverse of that (some matrox) is basically the factor C of a product of elementary matricies?
yes
the inverse of that matrix is C, and you can use the properties of inverses to distribute the inverse
well you still need to work out what E_1, E_2, (and their inverses!) are
but isnt that given?
this
you are given the row operations, but you still need to write out the elementary matrices corresponding to those row operations (and since you are inverting them, also write their inverses out)
@cloud niche Has your question been resolved?
yes, you can confirm by multiplying them all out
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okok. thank you so much!
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I don’t get the answer at all?
what do you not get about it
!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
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can someone check my work please
@cloud niche Has your question been resolved?
@cloud niche Has your question been resolved?
Looks good to me and to Wolfram
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Prove $a_n \to A \implies \sqrt{a_n} \to \sqrt{A}$
artemetra
let $B = \lim_{n\to \infty} \sqrt{a_n}$\
$\implies A = \lim_{n\to\infty} a_n = (\lim_{n\to\infty} \sqrt{a_n}) (\lim_{n\to\infty} \sqrt{a_n}) = B^2$\
$\implies A = B^2$\
$\implies B = \sqrt{A}$
artemetra
@stuck vapor sorry for the ping, it's the problem i was doing yesterday. my friend just showed me this proof -- is it any good or is there some flaw here?
i guess there is nothing that shows B actually exists - but is it necessary?
yes
you can only split up limits if the limits you get actually exist
@crisp stratus Has your question been resolved?
how does one show that in this case
also suppose $A, a_n \geq 0$
artemetra
Not exactly more easily, since as you saw if the limit exists it's clearly sqrt(A)
right so the only problem is me saying ``let $B = \lim_{n\to\infty} \sqrt{a_n}$''
artemetra
"only"
well..
that's the mistake right
everything else follows fine it's just that i am making an assumption
didnt you nearly have it last time? you only needed to bound sqrt(a_n)+sqrt(A). that should be doable
i had it last time but Bezier said i needed to show that my formula for another epsilon was surjective
which i think is fine but i felt like there would be an easier/nicer way around this
wdym surjective
you mean you wanted to choose bla = f(eps) or something?
it would probably be enough to have bla > or < f(eps)
okay thanks
and this is not good enough right
I dont think there is something simpler than those simple steps
okay
no, it doesnt show existence
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Maybe I wasn't clear
But you had a wording issue, not actually following the order of things in the definition of the limit
And the way to get the correct ordering basically required a bit of extra work, but not as in "prove smt more", just write it the right way round and the way to do so would be obvious then
.reopen
✅
ah i see
i'll write it nicely and send it
Just a nice e-N proof
You don't need to ask
Look at what you need to prove, figure it out
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how can I solve this using "mod arithmetic"?
since we're in mod 7, we want a number thats equivalent to -3
Yes
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need help
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can someone check my work
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Yes
reversing start and end points of a line segment negates the vector
And note that AB + BC = AC
a + b = AC
Wait how is AB+BC=AC
If you go from A to B
and then from B to C
That's the same as if you went from A to C
start and end points are the same
XY + YZ = XZ is a crucial property
sry am only partially available, if you're stuck on other vectors just write here
And other passengers will help voluntarily :]
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yup
-2^4 is 16
yup
As a helper, please do not give out answers that could be copied as a homework solution. Have the student work through the problem themselves and guide them along the way.
go read #helpers-info
So it’s -27x^3 • 16x^4
alright my bad
btw you are supposed to multiply the coeff not substract
leave that
Ohhh so -27x times 16x
yupp
That’s
-432x^2?
Cause it’s x times x and I assume it will become ^2
Okay so what do I do now
Is that the answer
Ohh
x isnt
Why
this is correct
How
How do I continue from there
Ohhh so -432^7
forgot x lol
yupp
legoo
I literally just started this chapter of math today so it’s all new to me
ohh nice
you were one of the easier ones for me today
not in terms of ques
but how you understood
I can’t imagine doing anything harder than this I was so confused today in class about it
But then again collage boys are really a piece of work and scream like hoolagans so it was hard to hear or understand any
Anything
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.close
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do you know how they got the pathlength of 2.4%
looks like it comes from reading the graph on the right
@tribal stone Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
@tribal stone Has your question been resolved?
Says to refer to Figure 8.1, not 8.11
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this is the answer for it
i dont think its right
because it says "for -5/4 < x < 1, f(x) < 0", i.e. y is negative, but y doesnt become negative until x > 1
they might have meant f'(x)
but am i wrong or are they?
i think they meant to say f'(x) rather than f(x) for conditions 2 and 3
that does make the solution incorrect for the problem as presented, though
if this is the case
the nthe answer is fine
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Can someone help me with this question?
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.close
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whats the difference between this and taylor expansion
can i just use taylor expansion for this?
effectively, yeah, although I suppose it kind of depends on how you define the binomial expansion
for non integer exponents it ends up working out that it matches the binomial coefficients, although the strict definition in terms of factorials won't quite work for you
does it always work for rational exponents?
cuz if it works ill just keep using it
depends on what "it" is
what I sorta vaguely described might not be the same thing you got
what I'm picturing is $$\sqrt[3]{8+4x} = 2 (1+\frac{x}{2})^{1/3} = 2\sum_{n=0}^\infty \binom{1/3}{n} (\frac{x}{2})^n$$
Merosity
idk if that lines up with how you did it or not
i did both and it aligns
how do you evaluate 1/3 choose 2
💀
how did you do both
1/3 choose 2 should be the third term
well, part of it
what's the coefficient formula
idk how to type it out like that
are you talking about the taylor series or the binomial
binomial?
I'm going to leave now
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How do we do this?
@crystal cloak Has your question been resolved?
In that case, solving for limits directly doesn't work because you get infinity*0, right
You can probably do sandwhich on f(x)g(x)
Maybe try finding lim f(x)/h(x), where h is a simple function that you think grows around the same speed as f as x→0
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How many simplified fractions are there in 100
pls help from this question
what?
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
euler totient moment
@visual wren
i thought your saying is a joke
seriously
hahahahah
idk even know what does it mean
what next?
no clue
what is the connection from euler totient
Chat gpt is giving a nice answer
Although I have never studied this Euler totient
the wikipedia or aops would help
If it's easy for you, you should help them
I don't know about it , else I would have helped
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!noans
The purpose of this server is to help you learn, not to hand out answers. Do not ask someone to give you the answer directly.
.close
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tf 
Lmao
hi yaku long time no see
Hi ren howdy ?
good, wbu
Doing good, exam soon
oh
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I have the following pair of equations:
[ x_k\sin\theta + y_k\cos\theta = \sin(\phi_k - \phi_c)] and
[x_k\cos\theta - y_0\sin\theta = \cos(\phi_k - \phi_c)\sin(\lambda_k-\lambda_c)]
I have two sets of points where $(x_k, y_k, \phi_k, \lambda_k)$ satisfy the equations
The د
this leads to four equations
how can I solve for the constants $\theta, \phi_c$ and $\lambda_c$?
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can someone explain what the lecturer means when he says this ?
What exactly does he imply when he says "weird sets"
MIT 6.041 Probabilistic Systems Analysis and Applied Probability, Fall 2010
View the complete course: http://ocw.mit.edu/6-041F10
Instructor: John Tsitsiklis
License: Creative Commons BY-NC-SA
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Hi 🙂
This is linked to a quite advanced concept in measure theory
Basicaly
When you do probability you measure sets
Like on this example, a random point on a square
If the distribution is uniform, then to find the probability of the random point going to the left half, you just need to measure the left half and compare it with the measure of the square right
BUT
This word "measure" is just not easy to formulate
wdym by if distribution is uniform?
Every place is as likely to be chosen
as in if its drawn on an axis, the unit length is defined as 1 unit and cant be broken down further?
So, like I said, there is a formal definiton to a measure
we say that a measure is just three things
go on
A set $\Omega$ of the thigs you want to measure For the square, you say just the points in the square
LucienF
wait so the word measure in measure theory quite literally stands for measuring things?
A set of subsets of $\Omega$ that that the sets you can measure
LucienF
And a map $\mu$ from this set of subsets to $\mathbb R$, that is your actual measure
LucienF
Yes
Like defining measure
okay so
properly
Don't worry I were too and I'm a Phd student now ahahahah
i was never really told what a set is
like literally, mathematically
it was always a list or a bunch of like stuff
damn
all the best for your thesis or research
The problem lies in the second object, this set of meassurable sets
❤️
no the thing is, i already lost you at the definition of measure 😭
what is your field/branch of study btw? if you dont mind me asking
You cannot find a good map that will both fit the axioms of an actual measure; and be able to measure every sets you can possibly imagine
Measure : (Set of things, sets of those things you want to measure, the map that measures the sets)
The measure you know on, well everything
Thats called the Lebesgue measure
i have never felt this dumb in my entire life
To have a proper meaning, it can only measure what we call Borelian sets
Thats ok thats an advanced stuff
And you can create non borelian sets
So sets that you cannot actualy measure
but what is a borelian set...
Complicated
Just a consequence of the axioms of a measure and this tribe, the set of measurable subsets
will stick to probability for kids
Soon soon you'll do it for grown up
whats the mathematical "level" of this lecture series ?
I'll finish by just giving you the link to an actual non measurable subsets
yes
Waait a sec
that will be intereseting
Ok I was wrong, there is actually a bigger set of measurable sets than just the Borelians but no one knows yet if this is every subsets of the real numbers.
ahahah
The name of this non-borelian set I mentionned you is the triadic set of Cantor
Its a wierd as fuck set that does not fit in this first definition i gave you
Aahahah dont worry, to sum up, a set can have a measure if it fits a precise definition, and some sets does not, so have no measure attached to it, thus no probability
is this even maths..
ahhhhh
see now i get it
Yes, if you continue to infinity
you dont define something, you dont get a probability for the subset of a function present in the "something"
I*ll look at the lecture
is that good enough at this level?
Yo need to define things to do math with it ahah
yes that makes sense ofc
and one of the many(?) examples is this stuff?
what even is this, seems more out of quantum mechanics than maths
I'd say the level of the lecture is Year2 of college
electron probability stuff
end of year one
college as in uni right?
after grade 12?
yes
different systems
i will enjoy probability, i like combinatorics
even tho i do suck at it
Your welcome, take care, and don't worry, math is so big that no ones understand everything 🙂 You don't have to feel ashamed if you dont understand something
:D
thank you
have a good day
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you too bye
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@quasi pagoda Has your question been resolved?
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@split sail Has your question been resolved?
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Does it make sense to say $\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{2(\infty)^3-(\infty)^2}{2-\infty-(\infty)^4}\to\frac{\infty}{\infty}$?
forMaths
Divide by highest power
What do you mean?
?
A nice thing to do if u hate the infinities is to just express it in terms of 1/x instead of x
X^4
Because when x-> infinity, 1/x-> 0
Yeah
So divide numerator and denominator by x?
No x^4
oh, because that is the biggest power
Yes
There's a lot of ways to do this
Dividing by highest power is one, expressing in 1/x's is another, and also u can always do the repeated lopital here
i'd rather not repeat the L'Hopital
I have used lopital more times than Eminem says fuck
lol
well then im screwed
because L'Hopital is sooooooooooo boring
Actually, limits in general is boring
I miss ODEs and homogenous DEs.
Basically write z = 1/x and express the expression in terms of z
LMAO
With z-> 0
Makes things much simpler to think about, that's all
So in this case, all xs would be replaced with z^-1?
Because otherwise I am confused lol
It converts ur infinities into nice zeros
Yea
Ah
Basically if u have x-> inf then write it in terms of z=1/x-> 0
Aha, that makes sense
Wait u have done ODEs
Wait r u doing this as a part of RA course?
I have no idea what RA course is
How did u skip to ODEs before limits
lol well
i take a private tutor
the way it was introduced to us in school was limits first and then ODEs
but my private tutor made us do ODEs before limits
So things are reversed lol
Damn that's crazy
No, it's just simplification

AAAAAAAAA IM GONNA DIE
ykw, i will just tell my private tutor that i couldnt solve it

Tbh simplifying the expression before using lopital should be valid
true
No child should suffer repeated lopitals
What's cyclical integration 
I'd rather find $\int,x\ln((x))^2$ then do L'Hopital's
forMaths
It's like a cheeky integration by parts
weird question but u can just differentiate top and bottom like n times lol
When you integrate by parts but you end up getting the same thing
And then you go, "haha you cheeky bastard"
UGH! i'd rather BURN my house
That's not integration then, that's just Sisyphus' punishment
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I'm trying to prove that if $a,b\in \Z$, then $lcm(a,b)$ exists
Mr bean is not $\R \setminus \Q$
So I'm defining $lcm(a,b)=l$ to be that natural number that has the following properties
Mr bean is not $\R \setminus \Q$
$a \mid l \land b \mid l$
Mr bean is not $\R \setminus \Q$
and if $a \mid e \land b \mid e \implies e \mid l$
is it lcm(a,b) being unique or just the existence of lcm(a,b)?
Mr bean is not $\R \setminus \Q$
Maybe you could use the fact that $\leq$ is a well-ordering on $\mathbb{N}$?
FirstNameLastName
What is your question then?
so $ab$ atleast is an element
Mr bean is not $\R \setminus \Q$
Yeah that seems like the right approach to me
The set of positive multiples is a nonempty subset of the natural numbers, therefore it has a least element
And verifying that it has |ab| as an element should be enough then
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Consider C as a constant in the next qestions , we have the y is implictly defined as a function of t by the corresponding equations. In each exercise determine an Differencial equation where y is a solution
Yea Izzy is right
my work
its the exercice 2
i differenciate both sides with respect to t
and i think thats it
But in the last exercice
my english is not the best i am sorry btw
i put the ODE in a solver
and it gave me y = C1/(t^2 +4)
and then i did a substituion of that expression in the original expression and i didnt get an equal thing from both sides
so that means i did something wrong right ?
The other ODE didnt have an "easy" solution the solution was written with non elementary fucntions so i couldnt test it
<@&286206848099549185>
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does anyone know how f(x) = $\frac{1}{h}\cdotln(1+sin2h)$ = $2\cdot\frac{sin2h}{2h}\cdot\frac{ln(1+sin2h)}{sin2h}$
Quantie
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h = 1/x
its from the proposed solution
$\lim_{x\to\infty} \left(\ln\left(1+\sin\left(\frac{2}{x}\right)\right)\right)^x$
Quantie
is the problem
Hi
yo
Hi
alr i got it by small angle approximating, but its a much less elegant solution
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ok so
this is straightforward
f(x) = +-root(r^2-x^2)
Find the integral of f(x) from -r to r
it's pir^2
I mean
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its just a circle
f^2(x) + x^2 = r^2, and what you are trying to find is equivalent to finding the area of a circle of radius r
although i think you gotta assume r > 0 as a restriction
ok
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Guys. If sin x/cos x = tan x,
Does that mean sin^2x/cos^2x = tan^2x?
Yes
Ohhhh i see
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I have two questions for this.
-
Where is the -1/2 exponent coming from?
-
When do we “stop” with the chain rule? My expectation is that since we need to take the derivative of the stuff inside the root, we’d end up with more terms.
Meaning, why does (t-3)^2 not become 2(t-3) * t? Shouldn’t we have to apply the chain rule again?
Perhaps I missed it.
√a = a^(1/2)
And power rule for derivatives
What else would there be for the derivative past chain rule?
They did multiply by the derivative of the "inside" function
I agree with that, but I’m not sure why it’s negative.
And maybe I’m just misunderstanding the inner function, then.
I cannot see why we do not multiply by an additional t.
They have the 2*60^2(t-3) that I expect. But taking the derivative of that requires us to also take the derivative of t-3, no?
Because it in itself is a function.
and what's the derivative of t-3?
yea it's just 1 so they omitted it
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did you figure out where the -1/2 comes from?
I did not, but figured I’d look harder at it now that I wasn’t confused about the 1
Could you explain it?
.reopen
✅
yea, so how do we do the power rule on x^a?
Ahhhh, the 1/2-1 is where it’s coming from, right?
yup, mhm
Well, that settles both of them, then lol. Thanks again.
no problem
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its will be 2m?
no
no, why?
factorize m
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!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
1
if you have 10 chocolates
and want to give it to 2 children
how many choco per child?
5
3.3333333333333333
kk
what does convert mean?
turn 1 unit to another
16000 devide 17?
nope
np
1600 by 17
94.12
now do this ^
yup
lets say you have 10 chocolates
and you wanna give to 3 children
you give each 3 or 4?
3 but i gotta give some guy bits of other guys chocolate or smth
thats the ans imo
bro why you dividing by 17?
i think this was wrong aswell bru
yeah me too
u had to do 1600/65
why 25?
sry

