So We wish to prove the following axiomatically :- $lcm(a,b)= \frac{ab}{gcd(a,b)}$.|
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We use the following definition to do the same:- A number $n$ is said to be the lcm of two numbers $a,b$ if
(i) $a \mid n \land b\mid n$
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(ii) $e \mid n \land e \mid b \implies e \geq lcm(a,b)$.
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Proof:- It follows that $a \mid \frac{ab}{gcd(a,b)} \land b \mid \frac{ab}{gcd(a,b)}$ trivially.
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We now wish to prove :- $a \mid e \land b\mid e \implies e \geq \frac{ab}{\gcd(a,b)}$.
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$e=ak_1; e=bk_2$
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we thus have $e^2 =ab k_1 k_2 ; k_1,k_2 \in \N$
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$\implies \frac{e^2}{\gcd(a,b)} = \frac{abk_1k_2}{gcd(a,b)}$
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It's evident that
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$\frac{e^2}{\gcd(a,b)} \geq \frac{ab}{\gcd(a,b)}$
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so
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$e^ 2\geq (ab) \implies e \geq \frac{ab}{e}$
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But it's evident that $e \geq gcd(a,b)$.
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so
$e \geq \frac{ab}{e} \geq \frac{ab}{\gcd(a,b)}$
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Which proves that
$e \geq \frac{ab}{\gcd(a,b)}$
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This proves $lcm(a,b) = \frac{ab}{\gcd(a,b)}$
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I have to note this proof assumes $lcm(a,b) > gcd(a,b)$