#help-39
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alternatively
,align
\vb P(C_2) &= \vb P(C_2\where C_1)\vb P(C_1) +\vb P(C_2\where \comp{C_1})\vb P(\comp{C_1}) \
&= \vb P(C_2\cap C_1) + \vb P(C_2\cap\comp{C_1})
i dont get your point
Goofy Joe
i mean you are not doing that though
ok,sorry
like, yes, it would be redundant if that was what you are doing
the point of what i said was to have this correspondence
but there is no dependence here, the fact of removing or not removing that particular card does not change the probability of the second event?
the result is as if he were saying that $P(A|B)=P(A)$
Goofy Joe
so indipendence
There is dependence, though. The outcome of the first card physically alters the deck for the second draw
its like having only two cards, lets say an ace and a king
but
if you take one out, you are guaranteed to have the other be the one besides it
the probability changed
doesnt P(A|B)=P(A)->indipendence?
how did you end up with that in the first place?
the confusion is why they are independent
let A = first card is club, A' = first card is not a club, and B = second card is a club
the solution is a union between P(B | A) and P(B | A'), not just a singular condition!
yes
hi
ig he is confused on the fact P(B | A) and P(B | A') results in P(B)
If you define the events as
R: a generic card has been removed (i.e. a card was removed, without knowing which one)
B: the revealed card is a club
I'm getting confused myself
i feel like you are mixing up marginal probability and conditional probability
$P(B | R) = \frac{P(R | B) P(B)}{P(R)}$
alee
in my humble opinion, you should first figure out what probabilities to calculate before starting work on calculating them.
i consider A="probability that the second card is a club" B="probability that the first card removed is a club"
and so how did 12/25 come about?
you'd want P(A|B) rather, yes
okay, let's think of this conceptually.
suppose I am randomly given one of two tests, A and B, each with a probability P(A) and P(B) respectively.
now, given either test, the chances of me failing the test is P(F | A) and P(F | B) respectively.
can you come up with an expression to find the overall chances that I fail the test?
once you've understood this, you can reapply the concept in your problem.
idk how to calculate the intersection
$P(A|B)=\frac{P(A\cap B)}{P(B)}=\frac{?}{\frac{13}{51}}$
Goofy Joe
im stucked here
there are no intersections required here, theoretically speaking.
how do I do it?
again, we should consider these two different first-card events separately.
yes
let's start by considering the event where the first card removed is a club.
knowing this, what are the odds of getting a club next?
good.
now, consider the event where the first card removed is not a club.
what are the odds of the next one being a club?
13/51
ok, pause here.
these two values you have found are P(B | A) and P(B | A') respectively.
?
and why would that be confusing? the odds of drawing a club as the second card depends on whether you removed a club as the first card or not.
as you've found out by our little experiment here.
this is why everyone has been telling you that you already know what the two conditional probabilities are.
there is no need for an intersection calculation here because you already got the conditional probabilities by direct counting.
the only thing remaining now is to weight each outcome by P(A) and P(A') respectively.
?
if you don't know why we are doing this, you should consider this again.
correct. you forgot to weight the outcomes.
perhaps I was not clear in that statement - I apologize. you did consider the first card in your conditional probabilities, but you forgot to weight those conditional probabilities by the probability of the conditions themselves.
that was what I meant by that statement.
that is precisely the law of total probability that Lex mentioned, and yes, that is exactly right.
because it would be that {second heart card drawn, first heart card drawn} intersected with {second heart card drawn, first non-heart card drawn}
$P(C)=P(B\cap A)\cup P(B\cap A')$
no union in the middle
Goofy Joe
I'm going to leave this to someone else to confirm.
I think what I wrote doesn't make sense because we're not talking about sets anymore
It doesn't lol
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what part
horimiya is peak
Try anything?
what is a residual
the space between two points on a graph no?
Residual = actual y - predicted y
Where did u get 79.04 from
no ignore the table
oh ok
For this part
?
yep
Your job is to figure out what the predicted y is
Which is to run jt through your model
and how do i do that?
Use the thingy u got in part a
oki doki
i got
x=3.47
wait i forgot ln
oops
now i got e^3.47
which is 32.1
You have [
L(x) = 56.67 +6.566\ln(x)
] right? You need to compute $L(41.2561)$
Can you show what you did to get that
56.67+6.565(41.2561)
Do this now
YAY
My energy running low so maybe wait on somebody else to help u with the rest
who's 'them'
helpers
Hello

sorry i remember it being 10
ap precalc
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Aren't a and c the same
,rotateccw
A would imply C but C does not imply A
it's asking what is ALWAYS true
So wouldn't A be a better answer
Now I got to this
But Im not able to prove that X=Y starting from XY=YX
But I feel like that doesn't matter to the question
what does that tell you then
if you can get XY = YX but not X = Y from the equation
let's revisit
XY = YX does not imply X = Y
X = Y implies XY = YX
but you can't get X = Y
what is always true
Idk i was discussing this question and my peers keep saying that c is more general than a
So I thought if I could get C=A from C and the other isnt true
Then i would shut them up
Even tho that are matrices?
the reverse is true but you can't use it
yeah?
consider the case
1 0
0 0
for X and
0 0
0 1
for Y
what is XY and YX? is X = Y?
Okay so why cant I say that A and C are both right and the question is the wrong kne
No
because A is not always true
simple as that
like i said
you got to XY = YX from the equation
which is sound
however you cannot use that statement to claim X = Y
it simply isnt always true
Okay I got this part
So C is the answer
yeah
Ah fuck
A can be true but not always
i gave an example
yeah i'm not about to type latex on a phone
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so i'm currently trying to solve an induction proof involving summation, but i'm just a bit confused as to how we got 4k + 3 in the sequence
2(2k) + 1 = 4k +1
2i + 1 = 4k + 3
2(2(k+1)) + 1 = 4k + 5
however, i would just like clarification as to what value i might have for us to get 4k + 3, or if there is a particular rule regarding sequences and/or summation that i am not aware of (i'm not very used to working with sigma notation)
that term is from i = 2k+1
thank you so much !!! 
you're welcome
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hello does anyone know how to solve this
I’ve been trying to solve this problem the way my teacher taught us but I keep getting a different answer from the actual answer (2nd image)
this is how I tried solving it but I keep getting stuck on simplifying the two fractions together
can you see any terms u can simplify?
just multiply the second fraction by * y/y
and now you have a common demoninator to work with.
works
What exactly is the point of this exercise?
Golden rule: find da common denominator
also why did you just only multiply 2x/2x to first term?
cuz that’s how my teacher taught us how to dit
do it*
I don't see the point ngl, and the work is wrong too
this is one of her notes I’m only following her instructions
I think your teacher wants you to find the common denominator
Your teacher found the common denominator which is $t^2(t + 1)$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
Don’t worry about working in each pieces
just solve the fraction and find a common denominator.
In this case, the common denominator $2x(2xy) = 4x^2y$ which works, but if you kept multiplying denominators for the common denominator, it will be harder to simplify
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
mmmmm I think I get it now
Now tell me, how do you solve your problem?
Tell us your steps first
I multiplied -6x over 2x by y in the numerator and denominator
Mhm
Okay, so this step is alright
Now you're trying to subtract the 2 fractions
But why is there a -1 in the numerator?
that’s to flip the -6xy and 3
for some reason she does it in some problems and doesn’t it others
That's already wrong if you multiplied -1
You gotta understand why she multiplied by -1
I don’t really understand why she does😭
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
like idky she flips the numbers sometimes and doesn’t like in here, the answer to 7 was flipped but 8 wasn’t flipped
Wdym?
nvm 😭
I don't understand why this ws even exists 😭😭😭
I mostly flip if i get a case like that
that’s what I mean bc in number 8 it was written like b-a and so was number 7 but she only flipped number 7
basically I’m just trying to say I’m confused on when I’m supposed to know when to flip the numbers
.close
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Show that a polyhedron with 3 triangular faces meeting at each vertex must in fact have a total of 4 faces
@crude mist Has your question been resolved?
@crude mist Has your question been resolved?
can someone help me please
You can use Euler characteristic formula for polyhedra
Each face is a triangle, so each face has 3 edges but each edge is shared by 2 faces. This means that while counting edges by taking help of faces, we tend to count every edge twice which makes the eq
3F=2E?
is this correct?
and Each face has 3 vertices but each vertex is shared by 3 faces. So we again tend to count every vertices thrice?
3F=3V?
yep
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Find the differential equation of all circles which pass through the origin and whose centres are on the x-axis.
(x-h)^2 + (y-k)^2 = r^2
The circle passes through (0,0) and (h,k) = (h,0)
So:
(x-h)^2 + (y^2) = h^2
Differentianting 2 times with respect to x gives;
1 + yy'' + (y')^2 = 0
Is my process correct?
@brittle harbor Has your question been resolved?
yh
looks good
unless they want it ot be of specific order
@brittle harbor Has your question been resolved?
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i dont understand how a 3d shape is created
they're like this; imagine a square built on the pink line coming out to bonk you in the head
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hi
i feel like i only got the answer right because I can see the answer choices.
how would i come up with the domain if I wasn't given the answer choices
im here so far
yo
wait i think i got it
upsetting it's not intuitive tho
.solved
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im not sure how the sin(sin(sin...)) n times is supposed to be handled
(just wanted to ask, is this JEE Advanced limits?)
sameer bansal yes
asking as if no was a possibility
ug entrance exam
Ug?
undergraduate
for high schoolers, to demonstrate to indian universities that they are very smart
Have u handled the rest already?
yeah most adv questions look performative asl
i cannot imagine giving ts to students
neither can i
looks like an extremely ass limit
like one would need to get a handle on the behavior of iterating sin(x) on small inputs
u write it as a sum?
Have you tried that one trick y=sin(y) 
the sin thing
i mean im guessing the largest term (base) with n as an exponent are only considered around x = pi/4
we need to use trick 119.II.f in JEE handbook volume 14 for this
ok i'm done shitting on JEE i promise
yeah but y = sin(y) though, like Fionna suggested
It's okay, the exam deserve that hatred 🥀
well yeah but im not sure if the n-times composition is supposed to mean anything
ill try and come back though
anyways it'd always be between -1 and 1
I'd probably start by simplifying everything u can
Guess what the function behaves like, divide by it, do lim of quotient = quotient of limits and simplify
...
You can probably do similar stuff with the numerator now
you can split it to 2 limits
... does it just simplify to f(x) = csc(x) at x near pi/4
actually why not graph it 1 min
oh i probably fucked up with the lim in denom
it's not 1, yeah
i guessed wrong
wait what, you can put values in denominator separately?
That expression is equal to the original expression (i just divide numerator and denominator by the same thing). The point was to find a function which behaves just like the thing in the denominator, but is simpler, and then apply limit of quotient = quotient of limits in hope that the limit in denominator will simplify to 1 (since i chose the function to behave just like the og denominato)
but it didnt quite work here, because i chose a wrong function
i wish we oculd just swap the limits
this can still help in solving the RHS limit though
$\frac{3^{n}+\sin\left(x\right)\left(\sqrt{2}\cos\left(x\right)+2\right)^{n}}{3^{n}\left(1+\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}\right)}$
For x > pi/4, this'll tend to 1/ (1 + sqrt2 / 2)
MathIsAlwaysRight
because the cos will be slightly lower than sqrt(2)/2 and so that thing ()^n will be slightly lower than 3^n
$\frac{3^{n}}{3^{n}\left(1+\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}\right)}+\frac{\sin\left(x\right)\left(\sqrt{2}\cos\left(x\right)+2\right)^{n}}{3^{n}\left(1+\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}\right)}$
MathIsAlwaysRight
so if we split it like this, the first part goes to 1/(1+sqrt2/2)
and the second part goes to 0 for x > pi/4
strange question, but like we did with denominator, why not just sub numerator x with pi/4 too?
it was kinda faulty reasoning from me, we first take lim of n and then lim of x
in fact, if we just substituted cos(x) = sqrt2 / 2 here, the limit would be diiferent (since there would be 3^n in the numerator)
while when x > pi/4, cosx is slightly lower, making the second fraction go to 0
and when we take lim from right side as x -> pi/4, x is > pi/4 so the limit will be just 1 / (1 + sqrt2 / 2)
so the RHS lim simplifies to lim of $\frac{3^{n}\sin\left(\sin\left(...\sin x\right)\right)+\left(\sqrt{2}\cos\left(x\right)+2\right)^{n}+2^{n}\cos\left(x\right)}{3^{n}}$
MathIsAlwaysRight
and this is pretty simple already
$\sin\left(\sin\left(...\sin x\right)\right)+\frac{\left(\sqrt{2}\cos\left(x\right)+2\right)^{n}}{3^{n}}+\frac{2^{n}\cos\left(x\right)}{3^{n}}$
MathIsAlwaysRight
the first thing -> 0 (we dont need to worry about the rate, luckily)
the other two terms work, but what about sin(sin(sin.....(sinx)))))
it goes to 0
oh wait yeah, it converges right?
ohh sqrt(2)cosx + 2 approaches 3
rigorously, I'd do induction
careful there
the issue is that we are first taking the limit of n and then limit of x
I'm still skeptical about this, isn't that changing the limit order
same
no, that's the correct limit order, no?
first n, then x
i just evaluated that limit pointwise for all x > pi/4
it's literally x > pi/4, not x -> pi/4
I might be slow but I still don't get why you evaluated x for pi/4 in the denominator
before n that is
Oh yeah
i didnt i belivee
though i probably overcomplicated the limit by doing this monstrosity
@autumn fossil I might be asking a lot but could you explain this to me in dms (I want to have the ability to review it later and not clog up this channel), could you, I'm actually interested in this?
Sure, I'll try to make my work less bloated, because looking at it retrospectively now, I did a lot of useless stuff
Alright thanks man🙏
what is this bruh 🫠 this aint jee level
Can we just divide both num and denom by (sqrt(2)cos(x)+2)^n for the LH limit
dosent sameer bansal have a solutions book
ok but uh im not sure where the division by 1+sqrt(2)/2 came in handy here
I don't think it has anything to do with the limit lol
wait does it now
yea
yeah, its better to divide just by 3^n
that constant was useless, it cancels out later
i originally introduced it because i thought it'd make the lim in denominator go to 1, but it instead goes to that very constant
@iron basin Has your question been resolved?
Alright, so i cooked up sth more elegant in dms
indeed🙏
it's so elegant even I can explain it
Alright, go ahead 
😭
okay so
first of all, we evaluate the n limit
and we separate the limits into denominator limit and numerator limit
we evaluate the denominator limit first
(we divide both sides by 3^n to start with)
yes thank you
now in the denominator, the 3^n just becomes 1
and for the other function, we generalise the power
now for x>pi/4 (and less than pi/2 to prevent any issues), we see that cos is always < 1/sqrt(2), and hence the numerator is always smaller than 3
therefore when that fraction is raised to n (infinity), we get 0, hence the denominator just becomes 1 + 0, i.e. 1
and the entire function becomes the numerator only
denominator limit:
thanks man🙏
||in the numerator sin(sin(sin..........(sinx))))))) just converges to 0; for the second term we do the same thing (generalise the power) and see that it's always 0 for x>pi/4, and for the third term (2/3)^n converges to 0||
numerator limit:
||hence we get 0 + 0 + 0, which is just 0||
🤌 🤌
now for x<pi/4, instead of 3^n, this time we divide by (sqrt(2)cosx + 2)^n on both sides, to get the same thing on our terms
so there, the denominator becomes 0 (again it converges to 0 as the denominator is always >3) + sinx, or simply sinx
denominator limit with x < pi/4:
Man what is this math I feel stupid looking into this
||and the numerator can be simply solved, for the first term, it just converges to 0 (both for the sin function and the (3/(sqrt(2) cosx + 2))^n, the second term becomes 0, and the third term converges to 0 too||
||hence simply 0 + 1/sinx + 0, or just cosecx||
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||which at pi/4 becomes sqrt(2)||
numerator limit
Can i ask you something
sure
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I’m impressed like how do you solve all of that
Isn’t it like very hard?
all thanks to @autumn fossil 🙏, he explained all of this to me and let me explain what I understood, again thanks a ton man
It's not really difficult, lots of symbols doesnt generally mean difficult. It is somewhat tedious and requires some insight, but it's still a relatively simple thing
yeah like the pattern seems kinda intuitive to me now, once I see how it works
I see your perspective
Well to be honest I wish to get to your level at math guys
I don’t think I could solve one of these at all lol
neither me man
You'll get there
but ig this can be closed now @safe mason ?
you accidentally opened a channel
Oh mb😭
Should write all this in LaTeX
my latex preamble is kinda fucked, so it'd make it unreadable
😭
uh..how to close the channel 🥀
.close
.close
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what does "such that" actually mean?
for example, when negating ∀y€Y ∃x€X | y=f(x)
what do we do
like is it ∀y€Y (∃x€X | y=f(x)) or (∀y€Y ∃x€X) | y=f(x)
can it just be replaced by an implication -> ?
basically means "satisfying..."
Well "such that" usually follows "there exists"
it basically tells you what exists
in this case, there exists x in X such that y=f(x)
otherwise if you just have for all y in Y, there exists x in X
that doesn't tell you anything meaningful
are you trying to negate the original statement
I don't think you need to do this
but you can if you want Ig
You can think of "such that" as a non-commutative "and"
well "B != B" is a little problematic
Kinda depends what you mean by A and B
ok scrap the translatig part, how do i negate the original statement
what's the general rule
so we have ∀y€Y ∃x€X | y=f(x)
a general rule is for all and exist sort of "swap" when you negate but it's important to understand why
Negate "for all, (...)" into "there exists, (not ...)"
∀ is a bunch of ∧s and ∃ is a bunch of ∨s
Negate "there exists, (...)" into "for all, (not ...)"
It's literally just common sense: the negation of something being true in all cases is that thing being false in at least one case
And the negation of something being true for at least one case is that thing being false in all cases
well common sense can only help me when i understand what the formula is saying
ideally i'd want to not think about that
I think it's better to not think about formulas right now
and just understand logically what's happening
then try to formalize
You can just read it in plain english
For all y in Y, P(y)
That P(y) is "there exists x in X such that y = f(x)"
So the negation is that there is at least one y that does not satisfy P(y)
In other words, there exists y in Y, not P(y)
(the comma is an implicit "such that")
i don't know how to extrapolate that for larger propositions though
Nel
The first part is $\forall y \in Y$, so take the $\exists x \in X, y=f(x)$ and just call it $P(y)$ (since it depends on the y you just defined)
Nel
Then you have $\forall y \in Y, P(y)$, and you can negate that
Nel
so ∀y€Y (∃x€X (y=f(x)))
Yes
¬(∀y€Y (∃x€X (y=f(x))))
∃y€Y ¬(∃x€X (y=f(x)))
∃y€Y (∀x € X ¬(y=f(x)))
∃y€Y (∀x € X (y!=f(x)))
Exactly
so i basically want to invert all the quantifiers and negate the statement
at least when it's in this form with all the quantifiers before and the statement at the end
The original statement is basically "f: X -> Y is surjective (it can reach any y with the appropriate x)"
The negation is "f is not surjective, there exists some value y it cannot reach no matter what x you try"
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How do I solve for x here? $\frac{3}{7} = \frac{-2-4}{-4-x1}$ I don't want the answer, just the thought process
Vortac
what does x1 mean here?
something multiplied by 1
why not just write x?
although I first read it as xsubscript 1
thats awfully suspicious
the problem set shows it as x1
hmm
no one puts a 1 to the right of an x unless they mean something about it
ok well assuming it just means x.. try cross multiplying by the denominators
If I do that and solve for x I get 10
that's correct
but then wouldn't that give me $\frac{-3}{7}$?
Vortac
ohh
I was confused because $-\frac{3}{7} = \frac{-3}{7} = \frac{3}{-7} != \frac{-3}{-7}$
Vortac
type \ne for not equals
you can count odd or even - signs
you can view the - on the left as a "negation" operator that swaps the sign, and the / sign as something that lets negations get applied one after another
so -3/-7 = --3/7 = 3/7
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can someone help with this
i get the limits are gonna be 1 and 0
drawed it out too
but idk why im not supposed to integrate x-x^2
well find the region bounded by y = x^2, find the volume, and subtract the region bounded by x (if you haven't already done that)
no wait
even I'm confused, I think that it's that though
mmm
i treid it using 1 and 0 as limits with the func inside as x-x^2
ans was wrong
,,\int_0^1x-x^2\dd x
bored amogi
why isnt this region alos part of the area tho
is that it?
what I think you should do is find the volume after rotating x^2 from y = 0 to 1, then do the same for x, and subtract the volume from x^2 by the volume of x
yeah that's the one I'm confused about too
are you using shell or washer
k then
washer about a vertical line will be wrt y
the bigger radius is sqrt y
the smaller radius is y
so try
,,\pi\int_0^1(\sqrt y)^2-y^2 \dd y
wdym you understood?
bored amogi
oops it should be that
this is the one we use
oh thats exactly what you got
hmm
oh right
so your radius should be from the axis of revolution to the curve
yes
which would be (square root y + 2)^2 and (y + 2)^2
yes that too
tell me how you got that formula please
@glossy creek the formula says youre squaring then subtracting not the other way around
yeah i got that
yeah thnx
k
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whats my error here
error is in this step
$\phi + \frac{200\phi}{n}5 = 10000$
$\implies \phi( 1+ \frac{5*200}{n}) =10000$
Hi
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this is a problem in my game theory class - can anyone help for part b, i got a pretty compelling answer for a being 5 moves (the same solution is also availabel online), but b seems to be an entirely new extension to a problem made solely by my instructor.
You are locked in a room and have to solve a puzzle to get out. Here is the description: there is
a small cylindrical symmetric table with four large identical cupholders, each wide enough to
fit your hand inside. Each cupholder contains a coin which you can easily feel with your hands,
and you can detect whether the coin is heads up or heads down. This puzzle is happening in
a dark room where you cannot see inside the cups, but only feel with your hands. If all four
coins have the same orientation at any point (all flipped heads up or all flipped heads down) then you have solved the puzzle and you may leave the room. The rules of the puzzle are as
follows:
A move in solving the puzzle consists of putting each of your two hands simultaneously into two
of the cupholders (either adjacent to each other, or along a diagonal), checking the orientation
of the coins in the cupholders, and choosing to flip either 0, 1, or 2 of the coins in their
respective cupholders, and immediately removing both hands. After removing your hands, the
table starts spinning around its axis. It spins such that the coins cannot reverse orientation
by themselves – they can only be reversed during one of your moves. When it stops, you
cannot know what coins were accessed in the previous move because it’s too dark to see and
you don’t know how many rotations, including fractional rotations, the table made.
(a) What is the minimum number of moves to guarantee your escape?
(b) Let’s replace the number of cupholders and hands to eight large identical cupholders set
up analogously, and with a friend, you are allowed to each simultaneously put two hands
into a total of four cups. You are allowed to communicate the orientations of the coins
in your cupholders, and change 0, 1, 2, 3, or 4 of the coins’ orientations. What is the
minimum number of moves to guarantee your escape in this new situation?
this is an extremely challenging problem
I dont have a full solution, but here is at least an insight:
You can't surely access all 4 cups during the game, you can surely acess at least 3 though, by doing diagonal and adjacent choice.
So in what I think is the worst case, you'll have to flip the 3 coins you acessed to the same orientation, and then flip them back to the other orientation, in case the secret 4th coin wasnt the same
@flint burrow Has your question been resolved?
yeah thats what i did for a
b is the extremely hard one
i feel i have seen this somewhere
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Let C ⊂ [0, 1] be the Cantor set. Prove that there exists a function g : [0, 1] → [0, 1]
such that it is continuous at every point in [0, 1] \ C and discontinuous at every point
in C.
any thoughts so far?
i want to show that if $x_0 \in C^c$ then $\forall \epsilon > 0, \exists \delta > 0$ such that $g(B_{\delta}(x)) \subseteq B_{\epsilon}(g(x_0)$
ouch
ginny
tbh i would start simple (literally), does the characteristic function of C satisfy the requirements, and if not, can you modify it somehow to make it so?
we haven't covered characteristic function
for continuity we have the epsilon delta definition, equivalenetly this open ball definition
characteristic function of C just means 1 on C and 0 on C^c
oh lol
some people call it the indicator function
fair, that is a good start it seems
okay so let's say it is that
g is that for now
I still need this, but for a known g rather than an arbitrary one
which again is this
so for an epsilon <= 1 we have B_{\epsilon}(g(x_0)) = {1}
so we have to find a delta > 0 such that all x in (x_0-delta, x_0+delta) get mapped to 1
do you know some basic facts about C?
like is it open, closed, neither
yeah I see that
has no open intervals, so neither I would assume
should be open since it is a union of open sets
ah yeah
the fact that C^c is open should make your argument easy for continuity on C^c
ah that for every x_0 we will have some delta such that (x-delta,x+delta) is also in C^c
delta > 0 ofc
that does it yeah
yep
great
now the slightly harder part
checking whether g is discontinuous at every point of C
hmm
should be "take epsilon < 1" on line 3, otherwise your ball will include 1 as well
(minor detail)
ginny
which would include the possibility of epsilon = 1, no?
oh wait, your B_epsilon is open right
so that's fine
yes
ok no worries then
thanks!
my instructor gave the proof considering for every y_0 in C a sequence y_n in C^c such that |y_n-y_0| < 1/n
yep that works too
either way you're using the fact that there are points of C^c arbitrarily close to any given point of C
(because C contains no open intervals)
oops said it backwards, fixed now
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yw
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Hello, could someone check if this proof looks good please?
```latex
\begin{Theorem}
Assume $n \in \bZ$. If $n^2$ is even, then $n$ is even.
\end{Theorem}
\begin{proof}
We use the contrapositive.
Suppose $n$ is odd.
Then, $n = 2k + 1$ for some integer $k$.
So, $n^2 = (2k + 1)^2 = 4k^2 + 4k + 1 = 2(2k^2 + 2k) + 1$.
Since $k$ is an integer, so is $2k^2 + 2k$.
Then, $n^2 = 2l + 1$, where $l = 2k^2 + 2k$.
Thus, by the definition of odd integers, $n^2$ is odd.
Therefore, by the contrapositive, if $n^2$ is even, then $n$ is even.
\end{proof}
n^2 = 2l?
should be n^2 = 2l +1
Typo 😬
Mor Bras
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Hello, could someone check if this proof looks good please?
```latex
\begin{Theorem}
Assume $n \in \bZ$. If $4 \nmid n^2$, then $n$ is odd.
\end{Theorem}
\begin{proof}
We use the contrapositive.
Suppose $n$ is even.
Then, $n = 2k$ for some integer $k$.
So, $n^2 = (2k)^2 = 4k^2$.
Since $k$ is an integer, so is $k^2$.
Thus, by the definition of divisibility, $4 \mid n^2$.
Therefore, by the contrapositive, if $4 \nmid n^2$, then $n$ is odd.
\end{proof}
i recommend $\not\mid$ or $\nmid$ for a little more clarity
ηασιβ ♥
actually don't use $\not\mid$, whoops
Looks good 👍
ηασιβ ♥
the proof looks good - clever use of contrapositive 
Yeah \nmid is good
Yes, I didn't know \nmid, thanks!
Mor Bras
there is always “4 doesn’t divide n^2” or “n^2 isn’t a multiple of 4” too
There's \nshortmid 
\neg 4\mid n^2
(Just kidding)
I think no pre-set space actually fits correctly to make this work, lmao.
,, \not\hspace{3pt}\mid
$n_2 \not\in [0]_4 \subseteq \mathbb{Z}/4\mathbb{Z}$
ηασιβ ♥
how's that for symbol spam
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😈
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Hello, could someone check if this proof looks good please?
```latex
\begin{Theorem}
Assume $n \in \bZ$. If $3 \nmid (n^2 - 1)$, then $3 \mid n$.
\end{Theorem}
\begin{proof}
We use the contrapositive.
Suppose $3 \nmid n$.
Written differently, $3 \nmid (n - 0)$.
This means, by the definition of congruency, that $n \not\equiv 0 \pmod{3}$.
So, either $n \equiv 1 \pmod{3}$ or $n \equiv 2 \pmod{3}$.
\begin{case}
Suppose $n \equiv 1 \pmod{3}$.
Then, by the definition of congruency, $3 \mid (n - 1)$.
So, by the definition of divisibility, $n = 3k + 1$ for some integer $k$.
And then, $n^2 - 1 = (3k + 1)^2 - 1 = 9k^2 + 6k + 1 - 1 = 3(k^2 + 2k)$.
Since $k$ is an integer, so is $k^2 + 2k$.
Thus, by the definition of divisibility, $3 \mid (n^2 - 1)$.
\end{case}
\begin{case}
Now, suppose $n \equiv 2 \pmod{3}$.
Then, by the definition of congruency, $3 \mid (n - 2)$.
So, by the definition of divisibility, $n = 3k + 2$ for some integer $k$.
And then, $n^2 - 1 = (3k + 2)^2 - 1 = 9k^2 + 12k + 4 - 1 = 3(k^2 + 4k + 1)$.
Since $k$ is an integer, so is $k^2 + 4k + 1$.
Thus, by the definition of divisibility, $3 \mid (n^2 - 1)$.
\end{case}
In both cases, we have that if $3 \nmid n$, then $3 \mid (n^2 - 1)$.
Therefore, by the contrapositive, if $3 \nmid (n^2 - 1)$, then $3 \mid n$.
\end{proof}
Mor Bras
@vestal thistle Has your question been resolved?
Well spotted 👌
Here's the fix:
```latex
\begin{proof}
We use the contrapositive.
Suppose $3 \nmid n$.
Written differently, $3 \nmid (n - 0)$.
This means, by the definition of congruency, that $n \not\equiv 0 \pmod{3}$.
So, either $n \equiv 1 \pmod{3}$ or $n \equiv 2 \pmod{3}$.
\begin{case}
Suppose $n \equiv 1 \pmod{3}$.
Then, by the definition of congruency, $3 \mid (n - 1)$.
So, by the definition of divisibility, $n = 3k + 1$ for some integer $k$.
And then, $n^2 - 1 = (3k + 1)^2 - 1 = 9k^2 + 6k + 1 - 1 = 3(3k^2 + 2k)$.
Since $k$ is an integer, so is $3k^2 + 2k$.
Thus, by the definition of divisibility, $3 \mid (n^2 - 1)$.
\end{case}
\begin{case}
Now, suppose $n \equiv 2 \pmod{3}$.
Then, by the definition of congruency, $3 \mid (n - 2)$.
So, by the definition of divisibility, $n = 3k + 2$ for some integer $k$.
And then, $n^2 - 1 = (3k + 2)^2 - 1 = 9k^2 + 12k + 4 - 1 = 3(3k^2 + 4k + 1)$.
Since $k$ is an integer, so is $3k^2 + 4k + 1$.
Thus, by the definition of divisibility, $3 \mid (n^2 - 1)$.
\end{case}
In both cases, we have that if $3 \nmid n$, then $3 \mid (n^2 - 1)$.
Therefore, by the contrapositive, if $3 \nmid (n^2 - 1)$, then $3 \mid n$.
\end{proof}
Mor Bras
@vestal thistle Has your question been resolved?
Does this proof looks good?
looks good to me
in fact you can say something more general: let n be a positive integer and let a_1,...,a_n be n consecutive integers, then n divides exactly one of the numbers a_k
I'll look up that, thanks!
np!
.close
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theres no intuition there, thats how work is quantified
ppl experimentally found that this dot product quantity seems useful and decided to call it work
if u sit on a box while someone pulls it you're not helping
Ehh
Idk about that tbh there’s always gotta be an explanation
as for why the dot product thing is of some consequence, you need to see that some force affects the motion of a body in the direction of application, and as such, the component of motion thats along the force gets affected
Oh yeah im asking about the dot product lol
You thought I was asking why work is defined the way it is?
yea
Oh yeah no I was asking about the dot product
I didn’t understand
So work is force * distance right
this is a superspecific case when the displacement is parallel to the direction of force
But work is generally defined via multiplication
maybe thats the case back in middleschool where extremely simple cases were handled
What’s the intuition of why the scalar produced by the dot product is the work
dot product gives you the component of the force in the direction of motion
if the force and the motion are perpendicular the dot product is 0
if they're parallel it's just the regular product
Sorry but can you please elaborate
It’s not clicking tbh
ummm what do you know about the dot product
Great question
All i know is it tells you the angle between 2 vectors
Or how the angle behaves (acute obtuse, flat)
hmmm ok
what you're describing is that $\vec a \cdot \vec b = |a|\cdot|b|\cos\theta$
hayliänus austrǎlis
Yeah
Yes
if theta = 0 then that dot product is just |a| * |b|
Ye
so we want to take force, times displacement, times the amount that your force is actually helping (cos theta)
and that turns out to be exactly the dot product
Why are you multiplying three things
I thought it was W = F · D
it's force dot displacement
but like ok
if i told you i was helping to move a box and was exerting a force of 100N on it and it moved 3m
how much work did i do?
300
300 what
N
Newtons
that's a unit of force not work
how did you get 300
okay, so how did we multiply 3m and 100N and get 300N
that poor lonely m
forgotten
unloved
abandoned
you should get 300 Nm aka 300J (joules)
Oh
but regardless here's something i haven't told you
Yes
i was sitting on the box while my friend moved it
yes, and i didn't help move it in any way
Ye?
so i didn't do any work on the box
Yes
but you said i did 300J worth of work on it
why's that
how do you know how much force my friend was using
btw my friend is a ford f150 truck with a trailer hitch
Oh
Uh okay I see what you’re asking
it matters what direction the force is being applied
we care specifically about the component of the force in the direction that the box is moving
Okay now I’m completely lost 🌝
which is |F| cos theta
What?
i am applying a gravitational force to the box
which is pushing it down
but the box is moving left
so the component of my force in the direction of left is 0
Wait wait before this
What are we looking for here
In this picture
What do we want to find
the amount of work that i perform on the box as it moves 10m
or did i say 3m
yeah 3m
Okay
So yeah then how do we find that
we take the dot product of force and distance
What’s force and what’s distance here ?
well... the force is the force of gravity, and the displacement is 3m
as i mentioned i'm exerting 100N on the box
it's just due to gravity so it's 100N straight down
and the box is moving 3m to the left
100N that is gravity and your weight combined ?
wdym gravity and my weight
that is the force that i'm exerting due to gravity
also known as my weight
Oh okay
so how much work am i doing on the box as it moves?
The force vector produced by your weight dot displacement vector
300J
what are those vectors?
Yeah so
Displacement vector is <-3, 0> and your force vector is <0, -100>
Is it negative 100 or just 100
we can say -100, that seems fine
so what do you get if you take the dot product of those?
Bro I get 0
Idk 😂
since i wasn't helping with this operation i was just sitting still and looking pretty
Well yeah you weren’t putting any work
let's try one more thing first
Okay
you are annoyed and get out and help
because of the angle you have to push kind of into the ground
so how much work do you perform on the box as it moves 3m to the left?
My force vector dot distance vector ?
yup
Force is mass times acceleration tho right
How is that accounted for by just taking my force vector
where is e popping up from
