#help-39
1 messages · Page 278 of 1
actually idr it at all but something about choosing being related to not choosing
i’m not sure what that is, but we can go with what you had on paper earlier
right
this is why i dislike probability
you never know if you're correct
it's very unintuitive
in general
that’s an issue with the people writing the question, not the subject
i recommend the book "Análise Combinatória e Probabilidade" of Morgado, et al.
yeah
cool
i write the book
i mean to say that you have a degree in math
like uni
mb
or are yo ustill in high school

cause it's not that common for undergrads to recommend books

i was just curious
Eh basicaly how i do these type is 65!*3!÷(22!*22!*21!*2!) Idk if it matches
maybe they are just math genuises over there in france
hm
welcome to the mathcord 
#discussion the largest one 
i don’t understand anything happening here anymore
Close ts

im not done
Oh
Lemme use the calc tho
so
i see a 3!
?
,w 65!*3!÷(22!*22!*21!*2!)
65! is a big number
,w (65 choose 22)*(43 choose 22)
dude
hm maybe it’s not way too large after all
How it goes is : n objects to divide into k distinguishable grps,
So we just multiply n!*k!
and devide by factorial of number of objects in each group
ok so basically
i didn’t think 65 choose 22 was that big
,w (65 choose 22)*(43 choose 22)*3
i love probability
no
is this correct?
Real
this is what you were trying to write i think oogy
look at them again
Because there are 3 ways to choose which group has 21 people
65C22 * 43C22 = 65C21 * 44C22
you don’t need to look at it like that
you can calculate them the same way in every case
which i cant understand intuitively
You're just picking which one of the groups has 21 people
Yes
You're just changing which group has 21 people. That's why it doesn't matter
They're all equal
btu every time
those 21 that go into the group get chose out of a different number of people
ok you know what
i'll think about it
you don’t have to look at it like that
i understood your poijts
The order of selection doesn't matter
like… we’re just looking at it differently. the way you’re saying right now agrees with how you wrote it down
That's why you end up with the same partition in each case
ok so basiclaly
"first 21 students for A and then 22 students for B" änd "first 22 students for A and then 21 students for B" leads to the exact same number of ways
Choosing 21, then 22 and 22
Or 22 then 21 and 22
Or 22 then 22 then 21 are all the same thing
The order does not matter
i’m never useful
why
no comment
right
but today you helped me
so you were useful
to me
stop having these negative thoughts
you'll end up believing them
though i'm sure you know your actual worth very well
.close
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i don't understand that
variable change
Yes
Maybe he's calculating the curvilinear integral?
Sorry, what topic are you talking about?
But along a curve?
this is something you only learn from examples
parameterization
dont know why you want to throw the word curve into this
its just a u-sub with different letters
no in general
Ah ok
nvm I interpreted it as something else, ignore parameterization, my apologies
Me too
😭
What is not clear?
c'est juste une manière d'enlever un truc qui te gêne
oui mais je vois pas comment trouver la bonne variable
t'as pas compris pourquoi ça marche ? ou à quoi ça sert ?
ahh
t'as plusieurs choix possibles
mais souvent c'est assez clair quand t'as une racine bizarre par exemple
how to find the right variable
ou quand t'as une racine tout court
oui?
It depends on the exercise
ou alors par exemple, si tu as un truc avec des ln(x)
c'est juste pour enlever les choses qui gênent normalement
mais elle sert a quoi la formule?
yeah i know but is usually kinda hard to find the anwser
c'est a dire
att je te sors la version de mon prof
ah oui nn il ecrit pareil
c'est juste que c'est une formalisation du "changement de variable" où tu poses u = .... puis du = ... dx
si t'arrives sans, tant mieux
mais souvent ça simplifie ta vie
tu te ramènes à des formules de primitives connues
c'est juste ça
c'est mon cours de prepa de l'année dernière
Most of the time, look at what you have and think about the derivatives you get from them. You want these derivatives to cancel out other parts of the function, preferably.
But I repeat: there is no definitive method of substitition.
thats not always the thing we want the most
theres one ...
ah okkk
a bon?
Bioche's rules, formulated by the French mathematician Charles Bioche (1859–1949), are rules to aid in the computation of certain indefinite integrals in which the integrand contains sines and cosines.
In the following,
f
(
t
)
{\displaystyle f(t)}
is a rational expression in ...
non mais c'est juste pour certains cas
yeah you're right but i hard to find it
? c'est a dire
Try to see what they say about the substitution method on reddit
il faut en faire plein
franchement moi ce que j'ai fait c'est que je me suis enfermé avec un pote pendant une aprem et on a fait plein d'intégrales\
😭
mais on peut trouver ou les exos
si t'as pas fait regarde les videos d axel arno il presente des integrales sympa si je me souviens bien
ouais
j ai lu rapidement c est pas ce qu'on fait...
merci je vais essayer de voir
c etait de quelle année ?
y a beaucoup d'integrales qui sont juste des changements de variable et des IPP
par ex pour la 9
tu vois bien qu'il faut faire un changement de variables
?
j ai ce pdf aussi il presente des tecniques plus avancés (par contre y a aucune rigueur dès qu'il manipule les integrales impropres et les derivations )
non...
c'est trop compliqué d'intégrer $sin(ln(x))$
robins
c'est soit sin(x) soit ln(x)
donc tu voudrais un ln(x)
du coups tu vas faire un changement de variables pour avoir du sin(u)
c'est à ça que ça sert
mais ça donne -xcos(lnx)?
non t es cense avoir du sin(u)
mais en primitivant
essaye de dériver pour voir
t'arrives à $\int e^u sin(u)$ normalement
etnz the etnah
?
att on va faire par etapes
si tu as $\int sin(ln(x))dx$ et que tu poses $u = ln(x)$
robins
tu obtiens quoi selon ton cours ?
non mais avec la methode de ton cours pour faire des changements de variables
tu fais quoi après avoir posé $u = ln(x)$ ?
robins
tu faisais comment dans ceux la ?
bah là ton prof exprime bien dx selon dt etc
je m en rappelle plus
oui mais j ai pas vmrt compris
ok je vais faire l'exemple sur cette intégrale
On a $I = \int sin(ln(x))dx$. Posons $u = ln(x)$. Dans ce cas, $du = \frac 1 x dx$
robins
Ainsi $dx = x du$. Donc notre intégrale devient $\int sin(u) x du$
robins
Puisque $u = ln(x), x = e^u$. Ainsi on obtient $I = \int e^u sin(u) du$
robins
et ça c'est résolvable par IPP
puis à la fin tu auras une intégrale selon u, et t'auras plus qu'à remplacer $u$ par $ln(x)$
robins
pas compris cette etape la
mais pk dans ça on fait pas un changement de variable
tu peux si tu veux
mais là t'as clairement une forme $u' \sqrt{u}$
robins
faut aller au plus simple, mais t'as pas forcément une seule manière de faire
c est uen formule?
je sais pas j'ai pas reflechi
ouais c'est une formule parce que $(u^{3/2}) ' = 3/2 u' u^{1/2}$
robins
mais ici tu peux surement faire un changement de variables
comment tu connais ça??
c'est la formule $(u^n)'$
robins
t'as $(u^n)' = n u' u^{n-1}$
robins
a oe pas bete tu suis
eh ouais
mais le changement de variables ça marche aussi
très bien meme
parce que si tu poses $u = x^2 + 3x + 4$
robins
t'auras $du = 2x + 3 dx$ et donc $dx = \frac 1 {2x + 3} du$
robins
et quand tu remplaces t'as $\int (2x+3) \sqrt u \frac 1 {2x + 3} du = $\int \sqrt u du$
robins
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flm de calculer les bornes
mais c est super simple enft avec changement de variable
mais comment on sait si c est la meilleur methode
tu peux pas vraiment savoir
mais dans un exo de cours si tu vois une forme et sa dérivée t'as surement un changement de variables à faire
ou alors si t'as une composée de fonctions (comme sin(ln(x)) )
mais la comment on ferai car j avais pas trop bien compris
comment on ferait quoi ?
sin(ln(x))
tu fais u = "l'intérieur"
ici t'as ln(x)
et c'est parfait parce qu'en +, tu peux ecrire x par rapport à u (x = exp(u))
donc quand tu poses u = ln(x)
tu vas transformer ton sin(ln(x)) en sin(u)
et puis le truc qui va arriver en faisant ton du = u'(x) dx (ici du = 1/x dx)
bah tu vas pouvoir l'exprimer selon u. Donc au final t'as un produit de fonctions usuelles (fonctions faciles à integrer/deriver)
et tu peux faire une IPP pour finir ton calcul
bah en faite x il a pas vraiment de sens
en gros
ton integrale (ton aire sous la courbe) de base elle est calculée selon les tous petits morceaux par rapport à x
et là c'est par rapport à u
du coups faut remplacer x par quelque chose qui depend de u
comme?
ahhh okk
si t'as un changement de variable c'est que tu peux trouver un inverse normalement
pas bete
t'es en quelle classe enft ? pcq j'ai pas envie de dire des trucs que tu comprends pas
c'est a dire
1ere année de prepa
bah si tu fais le changement de variables u = ln(x) c'est que tu peux retrouver la valeur de x par rapport à u
ok ca va bah en gros tu dois faire ton changement de variables avec une fonction qui est bijective sur l'intervalle où t'intègres
si tu dis que u(x) c'est ton changement de variables
je pense avoir compris
bah tu dois avoir $u^{-1}$ qui existe sinon c'est galère de trouver la valeur de x avec u
robins
t'es en prepa quoi ?
ingenieur
bah tu trouves bien x par rapport à u quoi
mais toute façon je pense pas qu'il te mette dans ce genre de situation
non je pense pas aussi
juste qu'il faut que tu puisses tout écrire uniquement selon u (et plus x) facilement
explique en gros ce que t'as compris pour voir
quand Y a une composition de fonctions
faut substituer avec la fonction intene
interne
ouais
là c'est quasi obligatoire de passer par le changement de variables
et pour le reste vaut mieux essayer
mon prof disait qu'il fallait toujours commencer par des changements de variables et voir où ça pourrait nous mener, même sans ecrire, juste comme ça
dacc
j ai vue aussi qu'il faut quand Le cas "numérateur ≈ dérivée du dénominateur
mais jai pas trop compris cette circonstance
j ai tout compris mtnnn
merci de l aide
bonne soirée
aurevoi
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Where do I even start with this :v
Rn im at this
$\angle CBD = 30^{\circ}$ so $\angle CAD = 30^{\circ}$
c9
But arent you just assuming its 30 degrees?
c9
Oh okok
this is true in general
in circles if you have some arc
and two angles are made on the circle using that arc
then theyre the same
yea ik
similarly $\angle BCA = \angle BDA$ but this isn't helpful here
c9
but in general it's true if you have two angles that "subtend" (big fancy word) the same arc (in this case AB)
let the intersection of AC and BD as H
then use the properties you had to prove AHD and BHC is similar
and then probably you need some more variables
i dont agree with this solution
@glossy root either way i think $\angle CAD = 30^{\circ}$ gives you a starting point, you can do some stuff now
c9
i think you eventually run into another problem later but for now you should just run with this
and then see what else stops you from finding AC
Okok gimme a sec
i think we didn't use the fact that the radius is 9
we're not there yet
Got this rn
@proper nova
||```
ED = 10, AE = 20, note center of circle lies on BD so <BCD = <BAD = 90, AB = 2sqrt6, CD = 9, BC = 9sqrt3, find AC with ptolemy's
dont click on this
Okok
So EC = 20
CD = 10?
Wait i mean
AE = 20
ED = 10
All the info I got rn
How would I find CE?
notice that you haven't used this property
nor BD = 18
can you do something with this
Ummm wouldnt I need like a center point as like a guidance for using the radii? Like unless something intersects the centre point how do i use radii
$\angle BCD = \angle BAD = 90^{\circ}$
c9
since BD is a diameter this is another circle property
this is actually sort of a side effect of this property
subtended angles like $\angle CBD$ are half of the arc measure
c9
since diameters split the circle into two 180 degree arcs
both $\angle BCD$ and $\angle BAD$ are $90^\circ$
c9
👍
Yea nvm I dont understand anything 🥲🥲
hmm
unsure if this helps or not
A review and summary of the properties of angles that can be formed in a circle and their theorems, Angles in a Circle - diameter, radius, arc, tangent, circumference, area of circle, circle theorems, inscribed angles, central angles, angles in a semicircle, alternate segment theorem, angles in a cyclic quadrilateral, Two-tangent Theorem, in vid...
but circle angle properties are pretty useful for this problem
Ohhh I get why BCD is 90 rn
For bad i still dont get it 😭
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\begin{proof}[Proof of \textbf{36}]
Let $\iota : \RR \to \CC$ be the identity mapping. This is a one-to-one function.
Let $f : \CC \to \RR$ be defined by representing the complex number $z$ as $x + yi$ and interleaving the digits of $x$ and $y$ (padding with 0's where necessary). $f$ is one-to-one as if $f(z_1) = f(z_2)$, then the digits of $x_1$ and $y_1$ match those of $x_2$ and $y_2$, respectively, so $z_1 = z_2$.
Therefore, by the Schr"oder-Bernstein Theorem, $|\CC| = |\RR|$.
\end{proof}
Coolempire2026
Any comments on this proof
blud
you should probably define the map more precisely

this is reads like a trust me bro type of proof
decimal expansions are not unique
the age old 0.999... = 1
Maybe I tried the wrong examples
Oh you can have infinite length decimals
Well I guess that's problematic
Discrete math is too hard 😩
So now I still have to come up with a one-to-one mapping from C to R
Okay
complex numbers ruin exponents for me
Why can't R have any irreducible numbers
bluds just yapping now
what's the idea
I was gonna use the trick with primes that they gave for the integers
But there are no primes in the real numbers
i.e.
\begin{proof}[Proof of \textbf{36}]
Let $\iota : \RR \to \CC$ be the identity mapping. This is a one-to-one function.
Let $f : \CC \to \RR$ be defined by representing the complex number $z$ as $x + yi$ so that $f(z) = 2^x3^y$. $f$ is one-to-one as if $f(z_1) = f(z_2)$, then $2^{x_1}3^{y_1} = 2^{x_2}3^{y_2}$.
Therefore, by the Schr"oder-Bernstein Theorem, $|\CC| = |\RR|$.
\end{proof}

This doesn't work
Coolempire2026
erm
erm
So I'm coming up with something new
I'm sure it was fine given who suggested it but I can't figure out how to formalize it given your counterexample
Simple a1b1a2b2.a3b3a4b4 isn't enough
you simply need to enforce a canonical expansion
pick representatives
between 0.999... and 1, always choose 1
Yeah but then 1 + 0i and 0.99... + i0.999... both map to the same number
1.0 and 1
Well 10 and 1? 🤔
erm what

you will always write 0.999... + i0.999... as 1 + 1i
this becomes 11 when interleaved
Right
But that's different from 0.99999999999 when I interleave the first
Isn't it the case that for a well defined function
if a = b
then f(a) = f(b)?
But those two are equal and 1 =/= 11
wdym
what is blud asking
When you interleave those two numbers you get 11 and not 00.999...
Maybe I'm imagining the mapping wrong
we're not interleaving the 0.999... digits
we're interleaving the digits of 1
theyre the same number
you choose to use 1 over 0.999...
You're allowed to do that?
theyre the same number
the function "interleave" or whatever you wish to call it is defined on the quantity 1 + 1i
not its abstract decimal representation
you’re just picking a canonical representative from an equivalence class that has size 1 or 2
\begin{proof}[Proof of \textbf{36}]
Let $\iota : \RR \to \CC$ be the identity mapping. This is a one-to-one function.
Let $f : \CC \to \RR$ be defined by representing the complex number $z$ as $x + yi$ and interleaving the digits of $x$ and $y$ (padding with 0's where necessary and interpreting $a.9999$ as $a+1$ where appropriate). $f$ is one-to-one as if $f(z_1) = f(z_2)$, then the digits of $x_1$ and $y_1$ match those of $x_2$ and $y_2$, respectively, so $z_1 = z_2$.
Therefore, by the Schr"oder-Bernstein Theorem, $|\CC| = |\RR|$.
\end{proof}
Coolempire2026
but that means we have to invoke ch*ice
0.099... = 0.1
it doesn't
Oh I wondered where all the channels disappeared to
I clicked the close button
Okay where was I
I need to construct a choice function
blud is constructing the choice function

\begin{proof}[Proof of \textbf{36}]
Let $\iota : \RR \to \CC$ be the identity mapping. This is a one-to-one function.
Let $f : \CC \to \RR$ be defined by representing the complex number $z$ as $x + yi$ and interleaving the digits of $x$ and $y$ (padding with 0's where necessary and excluding any members ending in an infinite string of 9's [as these can be represented by other members of the set]). $f$ is one-to-one as if $f(z_1) = f(z_2)$, then the digits of $x_1$ and $y_1$ match those of $x_2$ and $y_2$, respectively, because we have excluded duplicate members of $\CC$, so $z_1 = z_2$.
Therefore, by the Schr"oder-Bernstein Theorem, $|\CC| = |\RR|$.
\end{proof}
Coolempire2026
Yes exactly!
0.99999 can be represented by the 1 element in the set

this phrase would suggest othewise
It's smart isn't it
Mmm maybe I can write it like
\begin{proof}[Proof of \textbf{36}]
Let $\iota : \RR \to \CC$ be the identity mapping. This is a one-to-one function.
Let $f : \CC \to \RR$ be defined by representing the complex number $z$ as $x + yi$ and interleaving the digits of $x$ and $y$ (padding with 0's where necessary and excluding any members ending in an infinite string of 9's [as these can be represented with another decimal expansion]). $f$ is one-to-one as if $f(z_1) = f(z_2)$, then the digits of $x_1$ and $y_1$ match those of $x_2$ and $y_2$, respectively, because we have chosen a single decimal expansion for every member of $\RR$, so $z_1 = z_2$.
Therefore, by the Schr"oder-Bernstein Theorem, $|\CC| = |\RR|$.
\end{proof}
Coolempire2026
no, this wording still implies that you throw away 1
1 and 0.999.. are not distinct
Right, just different decimal expansions of the same number
So we elect to use only one
Therefore the output is unique because now all the expansions are unique
(?)
that is also poor phrasing

you simply select a canonical decimal expansion out of all the choices
the canonical choice is unique
Reduced to the simples and most significant form possible without loss of generality
But how does that specify that 1 is simpler than 0.999....
it doesn't mean anything
it just means you've made a choice and declared it the canonical one
the others are not canonical because you didn't choose them
\begin{proof}[Proof of \textbf{36}]
Let $\iota : \RR \to \CC$ be the identity mapping. This is a one-to-one function.
Let $f : \CC \to \RR$ be defined by representing the complex number $z$ as $x + yi$, $x,y \in \RR$ and interleaving the digits of $x$ and $y$ (padding with 0's where necessary and choosing a canonical decimal expansion for those $x$ and $y$ with multiple). $f$ is one-to-one as if $f(z_1) = f(z_2)$, then the digits of $x_1$ and $y_1$ match those of $x_2$ and $y_2$, respectively, because we have chosen a single decimal expansion for every member of $\RR$, so $z_1 = z_2$.
Therefore, by the Schr"oder-Bernstein Theorem, $|\CC| = |\RR|$.
\end{proof}
Coolempire2026
So more like this?
well you don't just say canonical and call it a day
you have to describe what it is
"We choose each real number to have a canonical decimal expansion, being the one that does not end with recurring 9s."

This feels like rigamarole but since it's an actual thing I'll need to write it down
This feels like when I learned about WLOG

"Now writing z = x + yi, where x = ...x_0.x_-1x_-2..., y = ...y_0.y_-1y_-2... are their canonical decimal expansions, we define f(z) = ...y_0x_0.y_-1x_-1..."
Oh, so explicit
Okay my turn to bork it up
\begin{proof}[Proof of \textbf{36}]
Let $\iota : \RR \to \CC$ be the identity mapping. This is a one-to-one function.
Let $f : \CC \to \RR$ be defined by representing the complex number $z$ as $x + yi$, $x,y \in \RR$ and interleaving the digits of $x$ and $y$ (padding with 0's where necessary). More specifically, we choose each real number to have a canonical decimal expansion, that being the one not ending in an infinite string of 9's, so that for the canonical decimal expansions $x = \dots x_1x_0.x_{-1}x_{-2}\dots$ and $y = \dots y_1y_0.y_{-1}y_{-2}\dots$, $f(z) = \dots x_1y_1x_0y_0.x_{-1}y_{-1}x_{-2}y_{-2}\dots$.
Then $f$ is one-to-one because for $f(z) = f(z')$, we have $$\dots x_1y_1x_0y_0.x_{-1}y_{-1}x_{-2}y_{-2}\dots = \dots x_1'y_1'x_0'y_0'.x_{-1}'y_{-1}'x_{-2}'y_{-2}'\dots,$$ that is that $x$ and $x'$, $y$ and $y'$ have matching canonical decimal expansions, so $x = x'$, $y = y'$ and thus $z = z'$.
Therefore, by the Schr"oder-Bernstein Theorem, $|\CC| = |\RR|$.
\end{proof}
Coolempire2026
alright but you also should justify why this implies each digit is the same
since we just spent the better half of an hour faffing over the fact that decimal expansions are not unique
omg I didn't mean to keep you all that long 😭
I didn't expect it to turn out I was this unfit
Maybe I need a few more years of undergrad and not just a semester
In any case
Hm
Is it as simple as saying it can't end in a series of 9's on eithe rside there fore this expansion is canoncial
And thus we have our answer
essentially
you should also mumble something something finitely many digits on the left of the decimal point
Are there no real numbers with infinitely many whole digits? (I should probably know this)
I thought maybe you could get away with countably many whole digits
your writing kinda suggests an infinite sequence of digits to the left
you're writing
(So as a general matter of course this isn't possible?)
\begin{proof}[Proof of \textbf{36}]
Let $\iota : \RR \to \CC$ be the mapping $\iota(x) = x$. This is a one-to-one function.
Let $f : \CC \to \RR$ be defined by representing the complex number $z$ as $x + yi$, $x,y \in \RR$ and interleaving the digits of $x$ and $y$ (padding with 0's where necessary). More specifically, we choose each real number to have a canonical decimal expansion, that being the one not ending in an infinite string of 9's, so that for the canonical decimal expansions $x = x_nx_{n-1} \dots x_1x_0.x_{-1}x_{-2}\dots$ and $y = y_ny_{n-1} \dots y_1y_0.y_{-1}y_{-2}\dots$, $f(z) = \dots x_1y_1x_0y_0.x_{-1}y_{-1}x_{-2}y_{-2}\dots$.
Then $f$ is one-to-one because for $f(z) = f(z')$, we have $$x_ny_nx_{n-1}y_{n-1} \dots x_1y_1x_0y_0.x_{-1}y_{-1}x_{-2}y_{-2}\dots = x_n'y_n'x_{n-1}'y_{n-1}' \dots x_1'y_1'x_0'y_0'.x_{-1}'y_{-1}'x_{-2}'y_{-2}'\dots.$$ Because we use the canonical decimal expansions of $x$, $x'$, $y$, and $y'$, neither side of this equation can end in an infinite string of 9's, so each side is a canonical decimal expansion, and thus $x = x'$, $y = y'$ and, finally, $z = z'$.
Therefore, by the Schr"oder-Bernstein Theorem, $|\CC| = |\RR|$.
\end{proof}
Coolempire2026
Did I make it too messy
not particularly

but why are the ns the same
yeah
Because I padded with 0's
blud returned exactly when i returned

blald
So just leave what I said about it and remove the n
\begin{proof}[Proof of \textbf{36}]
Let $\iota : \RR \to \CC$ be the mapping $\iota(x) = x$. This is a one-to-one function.
Let $f : \CC \to \RR$ be defined by representing the complex number $z$ as $x + yi$, $x,y \in \RR$ and interleaving the digits of $x$ and $y$ (padding with 0's where necessary). More specifically, we choose each real number to have a canonical decimal expansion, that being the one not ending in an infinite string of 9's, so that for the canonical decimal expansions $x = \dots x_1x_0.x_{-1}x_{-2}\dots$ and $y = \dots y_1y_0.y_{-1}y_{-2}\dots$, $f(z) = \dots x_1y_1x_0y_0.x_{-1}y_{-1}x_{-2}y_{-2}\dots$, noting that the left side of the preceding as expansions are all finite.
Then $f$ is one-to-one because for $f(z) = f(z')$, we have $$ \dots x_1y_1x_0y_0.x_{-1}y_{-1}x_{-2}y_{-2}\dots = \dots x_1'y_1'x_0'y_0'.x_{-1}'y_{-1}'x_{-2}'y_{-2}'\dots.$$ Because we use the canonical decimal expansions of $x$, $x'$, $y$, and $y'$, neither side of this equation can end in an infinite string of 9's, so each side is a canonical decimal expansion, and thus $x = x'$, $y = y'$ and, finally, $z = z'$.
Therefore, by the Schr"oder-Bernstein Theorem, $|\CC| = |\RR|$.
\end{proof}
More like this
Coolempire2026
it's probably a bit confusing to the grader as currently stated
i would just say
for k >= 0, we set x_k = 0 and y_k = 0 for sufficiently large k (padding the integer part with leading zeros)
Oléagineux Distilliànus VIVII
I need a save to dm button, so cleanly stated (save for the dots hanging off the page)
equality of the reals implies equality of their digit strings
Feels like something I'd read in a textbook and not understand it at all 😯
I'll save this to study
Thank you both 🙂
Sorry for taking like a full hour on a problem
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This is not true in the general case, there are real numbers with more than one representation, and these are precisely the terminating decimals.
i.e. 0.245 = 0.24500000... = 0.24499999...
Oh
My bad you mentioned this

That's still interesting to me though
We only had to say canonical representation choosing the option not ending in 999999
But never said anything about the decimal representation 000000
Is this a mistake on their part or just an obviety?
Well. If there are two ways of representing a particular number, and you disallow one way, then you allow the other way
Yes but you've shown three ways
And we only eliminated one of those
We never specified that there should be no trailing 0's
Oh, well for any real number we can pad to the left and right infinitely with zeroes
And these are just assumed to always be there
Okay so it's treated like an obviety 👍
Thank you as well!
The mods here are very good
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Can someone explain the moseley's experiments ??
sounds like physics and/or chemistry
maybe more suitable for one of the other servers in the #old-network
the X-ray spectroscopy experiments?
yep
hm what about it
I just want to know what the experiment was
What he did was essentially firing electrons at a metal target, and the collisions knocked out inner-shell electrons (mainly K-shell). When outer electrons dropped down to fill the hole, the atom emitted X-rays. Those X-rays had very specific wavelengths/frequencies. He then measured these X-ray frequencies for many elements. After plotting the datA, he discovered that the square root of the X-ray frequency increases linearly with an integer that matches the element’s position in the periodic table. This became known as Moseley's Law.
you can also just look it up on Google...
diamond$sq f propto (Z-1)$
Oléagineux Distilliànus VIVII

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likewise
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does anyone have suggestions on how I can get better at questions like this?
I'm taking an exam which has several of these sorts of puzzles
my answer was 19, cus 10+1+5+2+1, the answer was 17
i think i've seen this exact question with these exact numbers somewhere.
oh what
but i know of no general technique for this sort of crossing question.
might have been another student prepping for the same exam
just brain teasers n sorts
it was dressed up in a different story, but the individual crossing times were still 1, 2, 5, 10
oh wait i'd love to know the source
the idea here is to minimize the time "wasted" by the slow people by having them both cross together
idk the source tbh but i saw it on ted-ed
if it's brain teasers in general that you want more practice with
the green book for quant is full of a lot of well-known and not-so-well-known brain teasers
ted ed also has a lot of riddle videos that are grounded usually in some level of logic or math
where can I find this?
if you search up "green book quant" it should be the first link
Same with me, I even remember the answer was 17 too
it's an open access to a pdf book and the first portion of chapter is brain teasers that are math-based
my roommate is doing/trying to do quant this is the only reason i know abt it
lol no this looks really viable i can see them adding questions like these in the exam
thanks
np and best of luck!
2+1+10+2+2=17
so the basic idea is that bc the umbrella has to be carried, you need to have 2 ppl go home and then 1 person return with the umbrella back to the stop
at a time
so like, 2 there -> 1 back -> 2 there -> 1 back -> 2 there
just in case
anything for this etc?
because the time we have for the exam, i feel like it's highly unlikely to solve this without already having done something somewhat similar
yeah got it
Son+daughter->. 2mins
Daughter<- 1min
Father+grandfather-> 10mins
Son<- 2mins
Son+daughter-> 2mins
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dis is bruteforce
can you prove that it's impossible to do better?
no
i feel
by area max would be 9, 36/4
so if some squares remain after fitting 8 then it's 4 i don't feel this can be put better
You can prove it I think. Coloring the grid with two colors 0 and 1, this shape can cover two 0 and two 1
0 and 1 can’t be adjacent in the coloring I meant
The only better situation comes when the whole grid is titled, which you need to prove it’s impossible
hm..
can you show
Or coloring with 4 colors might help
This shape can cover exactly 0,1,2,3
I am only providing a thought. I haven’t formulated a proof
If it’s titled with that shape, then 9 that shapes, each 0/1/2/3 is contained in exactly one of those 9
I think it’s done:
Each corner you can only have the blue or the red. Then all four corners must be all red or all blue. Then edge will cause having not enough room
(Four edges having four T shapes, that can’t be titled
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Yo
I need help to show that
Every subgroup of (\mathbb{Z}, +) is of the form n\mathbb{Z} for some integer n \ge 0.
consider the smallest positive number in the subgroup
Then?
think about it and take your time
n=min{x in H | h > 0}
Need more hints
what happens when a non-multiple of n is in H?
H is not sub group
why
Oh
Do Euclidean division, by definition of “minimal”, you can’t have a smaller positive integer in H.
Uhhh
Why we can’t
You said “minimal”
ok lets go back a step
Yes H can contains minimal pos element?
Add them together
shut up
We cant get it
that doesnt mean its not there
we have it from the start
we started with the building block 4
so its there
why
Intuition
forget your intuition
you are at a stage of learning where it will tell you lots of bullshit
so we started with the numbers 4 and 17
which were in H
and we got some new numbers
which are also in H
among them is 3
yes
It cant be
why
2
Same
can 401 be in H?
3 be the min
ok so we can now prove that if the minimal positive number in H is 4, then only numbers of the form 4k are in H
yes?
Okay
Right
so now suppose the smallest positive number in H is n
can you show that all elements of H are multiples of n?
Euclidean division
x in H => x=nk + r
0<=r<n
x=r
its correct but stylistically a bit weird. x=kn+r is not because x is in H
its just a true statement either way
you cant choose k
Please dont let me overthink im fucking tired
x=17
0<=r<n
x=4*4+1
yes
0<=r<n, if r>0, … … contradiction
Wdym?
We can said
x in H => x=nk+r
For some k in Z
And 0<=r<n
P->Q, while Q is true any way, so you don’t need P->Q
What you mean by saying Q is true?
We usually don’t add steps that are irrelevant
Euclidean division is true for all integers, not true only for elements in some H
But its correct or not?
If you insist, keep it.
Look
It’s just people usually don’t do things like this, but technically you are right
To show H=nZ
We need to take an arbitrary x in H
Then show that x=nk
nk in nZ
H contained in nZ
the statement that x=nk+r itself doesnt have anything to do with x being in H
And show nZ contained in H too
that also applies to numbers that arent in H
Take arbitrary x from nZ
For any x in H, let x=kn+r with 0<=r<n
For any x in H, ->x=kn+r with 0<=r<n
Both are correct. It’s just people usually don’t add an unnecessary-> as the latter version
We get the same result
That’s why I said you can keep it if you insist
Tbh
I noticed that the community of this server hates the use of logic symbols
Not only in this server
Even my prof
I have no objection with formality. It’s just that we tend to not add irrelevant things
this is not about the logic symbol
I think that each person and his way of thinking and his use of symbols
x in H doesn’t imply x=kn+r for some k, r in Z and 0<=r<n
Why not lol
x=kn+r anyway
whether x is in H or not
H doesnt have anything to do with writing x like that
I can write 41=4*10+1 without knowing whether 41 is in H or not
We don’t say useless facts. Like we also have one fact: a false statement implies any statement. It’s useless, so we don’t normally mention it when proving anything
Oh
What about equivalent then
It work i think
equivalence is even stronger than implication
thats not better
look, forget about it
it doesnt matter much
its not wrong. its just bad style
but thats ok
you are just learning proofs
you dont need to have a good style immediately
You don’t need to worry about these in algebra. That’s why I like algebra more than analysis. In algebra there are lots of equivalent conditions. Replacing one with another one won’t cause any damage. While in analysis we often need techniques, to know when to make the restraints stronger (it suffices to show that…) and when to make the restraints weaker (then it must satisfy…)
ehhhh
Replying to him I was
sure. still not sure I'm agreeing with that statement
Analysis
Is nightmare specially to logicians
you said one thing right, be rigorous in your proof.
0<=r not 0<r, what exactly caused the contradiction, what implies what
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elastic collision find the distance between the first point and the second point of collision in relation to φ,h
anyone know what mistake i made?
supposed to be 2hsin(4φ) i think so i should have cos(2φ)
Summarise what you did please. Sorry i cant make out whatever is written
@meager scroll
well the |u| stays the same its direction after collision has angle 2φ with h
then i use ay= -g to find x,y in relation to time
In such problems, it helps to transform your axes but ok
at the point where Δy/Δx = tanφ we have the second collision
well i did that to show that the angle is 2φ
because momentum on the pararell axis is conserved
but for the equations of position its not much better
Parallel to what?
floor
anyways the angle is 2φ
thats for sure
doesnt matter how its found
Okay. We call that the common tangent
but integrating ay= -g and ax=0
Why integrate for constant accn?
with initial conditions ux = - uosin(2φ) ,uy = -uocos(2φ)
constant functions are integrable
wdym whats the issue
I know that but it is not necessary. Continue
well maybe in your class it isnt like they take this as theory
and you get
Δx= uo sin(2φ) t, Δy=uo cos(2φ)t-gt^2 /2
Δx = 2uo /g (-cos(2φ)sin(2φ) - sin^2 ( 2φ) tanφ)
if you eliminate time
It would be helpful if you reasoned these things because. Anyways, you switched the velocities along the common normal righ? And then you have to find the coordinates at which the trajectory intersects the slope
It is best to transform your axes here for it simplifies your problem solving process
x,y axis
cartesian
Δx = 2uo /g (-cos(2φ)sin(2φ) - sin^2 ( 2φ) tanφ)
you get this because Δy/Δx = tanφ
at the point of second collision
I meant consider a x' and y' axis after rotating by phi clockwise
so we found the Δx for the second collision
well i did not do that im trying to examine this solution first
i ccan check the other way afterwards
anyways if you put t = Δx/uo sin(2φ)
in Δy
