#help-39
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when you find the first and second derivative of Acos(t) + Bsin(t) you plug them into the original snd set it equal to cos(t)
i'm saying what if the terms with B cancel out and you just have A
using the y''+y=cos t exanple you mean
yes
then B is just "some constant" and you dont know enough to say more, thats what im trying to say
i don't see how having 2 initial conditions matters though
so what do you get for y''+y=cos t
Here's a problem i did earlier, when i found Yp i got the values of A1 and A0 without using the initial conditions, i only used the initial conditions to find C1 and C2
,rotate ccw
you dont have initial conditions at all?
i do i didn't write them, it's y(0) = 4 and y'(0) = -8
but to get the values of A1 and A0 for Yp i didn't use them
okay, so, yoy asked me for what happens when ....
and i answered and gave you a concrete example
what more can i do
ok what if when trying to solve for Yp, the A1 terms cancelled out and i just had the A0 terms = 16te^-t
then you cant solve for A1 uniquely
so does that mean you can't find the solution or do you have to do something else
it means you have an infinite family of solutionsb
look,
,w solve y''+y=cos t, y(pi)=1
for this case
any function of the form y(t)=1/4 c1 sin t
is a solution
what's c1? some constant
any constant
maybe in certain scenarios you can narrow it down, like, 1 < c1 < infty
np
but maybe you know nothing at all about c1
that's what happens in the situation youre asking about
š
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One end of a light inextensible string is attached to a particle A of mass 3 kg. The other end of the string is attached to a particle B of mass 4 kg. Particle A is in contact with a rough plane inclined at 30° to the horizontal, and particle B is in contact with a smooth horizontal plane. A second light inextensible string is attached to B. The other end of this second string is attached to a particle C of mass 5 kg which hangs vertically.
Both strings are taut and pass over small smooth pulleys that are fixed at the ends of the horizontal plane. The part of the string from A to the pulley is parallel to a line of greatest slope of the inclined plane, and A, B and C are in the same vertical plane (see diagram).
The system is released from rest. In the subsequent motion, C moves vertically downwards with acceleration 2 m sā»Ā², and neither A nor B reach a pulley.
(a) Find the tensions in eachĀ ofĀ theĀ strings.
and an unrelated note is finding coefficient of friction possible?
@graceful spire Has your question been resolved?
this is physics and yes, you just have to figure out whether its dynamic or static
im doing a math paper š mechanics
cant u explain wym by dynamic n static
yeah i tried it out
T2-(mgsina+mewmgcosa)=ma
μ = Ff/n
so u got it?
yesyes
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ah wait
suppose $\exist \Omega : x\in\Omega\iff x $ is an obj.
can't I use teh axiom of specification: A a set $\implies\lbrace x:x\in A \wedge P(x)$ is true$\rbrace$
to get the axiom of unrestricted comprehension?
Yeatte
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This is a little cheeky.
If p is prime then it is either 1 mod 3 or 2 mod 3, unless it is 3 itself. So p^2 is 1 mod 3 regardless, and so p^2 + 2 is 0 mod 3.
Thus the only number where p is prime and p^2 + 2 is prime is exactly the number 3. And it happens that p^3 + 2 is also prime
Oh, you deleted it
I posted the wrong question, I posted someone elses oops
I meant the thing about the sets
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if there are 6 colours of labubu's with equal chances and a special edition labubu that has a probability of 1/72
and you pull 5 of the normal colours + the special edition in 6 tries
whats the probability that you pull the last normal colour on the 7th try
- There are 6 regular Labubu colors, each with an equal probability.
- There's a special edition Labubu with a probability of 1/72.
- You pulled 5 of the regular colors + the special edition in 6 tries.
- We want to find the probability of pulling the last regular color on these
- Probability of each regular color:
Since there are 6 regular colors with equal chances, the probability of pulling any specific regular color is 1/6.
- Probability of NOT pulling a specific regular color:
This would be 1 - (1/6) = 5/6
- Probability of pulling the last regular color on the 7th try:
To pull the last regular color on the 7th try, it means you haven't pulled it in the first 6 tries. So, the probability is 5/6.
Therefore, the probability that you pull the last normal colour on the 7th try is 5/6.
<@&286206848099549185>
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out of spite i refuse to even read your question, you've pinged 3 times in the span of 10 minutes
lets work here
close your other channel
do you think opening each box is independent
How do I close it Iām sorry
use .close
Thank you
so opening one box's probability doesnt effect the others
okay then u cannot use the reasoning
"To pull the last regular color on the 7th try, it means you haven't pulled it in the first 6 tries. So, the probability is 5/6.
Therefore, the probability that you pull the last normal colour on the 7th try is 5/6."
Wouldnāt it be independent since itās talking about the last color
this is for dependent events
well the question would need to be more specific
let us look at the context
could u tell me whata a labubu is
oh its those cute dolls
Ye I think itās a doll thing
yes, the events should be independent because the stock is so massive
it is essentially opening boxes with replacement
Yes so should the colours be independent too?
$\text{Probability(any regular)} = 1-\frac{1}{72}= \frac{72}{72}-\frac{1}{72}= \frac{71}{72}$
mia
so choosing any regular is equal to:
1 - choosing any special
this is for all 6 regulars
so we get
$P(\text{one specific regular colour})
=\frac{71/72}{6}
=\frac{71}{72}\times\frac{1}{6}
=\frac{71}{432}$
mia
1/72 is the odds of choosing a special labubu in the entire event of opening boxes
so if we do 1-special labubu odds
we get the odds of all the regular lububu's
yes
just to be clear, if the events were dependent, your calculations would be correct
Ohhh
Okkk
So the actual answer since itās independent should be 71/472
But dependent would be 5-6
yes
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Guys I donāt understand which area they want
Hereās the diagram
I donāt think itās what I colored in red
can you show the entire q from the paper
Ok š
I can also send the mark scheme if u want
Ight
I just donāt know what they mean šŖ
@toxic lichen š
hmm
ok im gonna give this a closer look once i finish lunch
i think it's this lune shape
Ohhh
So the arc is not the straight lineš
Itās the curve
Ight thank youš
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guys i dont understand the last sub qn can someone explain
e?
i mean the last part is kinda weirdly framed
what dows the āother value of xā mean?
uh it basically means the other value of x found in c
in d they asked to use a suitable value and use the other value in e
<@&286206848099549185>
lol i forgot i was here
I mean ig with other value they mean the other root
it is not lile you can not use it
it is just that youāll need more terms for a better approximation cz the number is that way
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frac(1/x) = frac(x^2)
what interval does 1/x lie in? and what about x^2? what are the floors of each?
between what integers is 1/x?
0 and 1?
so whats the fractional part of 1/x?
whats the fractional part of x^2?
not sure..
2
so whats the fractional part?
x^2-2?
yw
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isnt this BN, not the limne parallel to OB
@cerulean smelt Has your question been resolved?
@cerulean smelt Has your question been resolved?
the question came with the blue line drawn that way?
no
show the original problem please
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where do i go from here
you compute each 6th root of unity and calculate each
@midnight haven Has your question been resolved?
how tho
using the formula of unit root
e^(2*pi*k)/n where n = 6 and you make k go from 0 to 5 as an integer
well you have to write it in rectangular after
where 5omega isn't really rectangular form i think
no to 2 so
this but n = 3 and so k go from 0 to 2
the pi/2 comes from the fact they used the e^i3pi/2 and apply cube root and so it becomes pi/2
and they multiply by the three third-root of unity
sorry i donāt understand
ok ima break it for you then
the nth root of unity are the root such that e^{i*2kpi/n} where k will walk through the integers from 0 to n-1;
how we use them :
you have your expression z^3 = -125i
but -i = e^{i*3pi/2} as exponential form
so you will write -125i as 125* e^{i *3pi/2}
and so you have
you take the cube root both sides BUT for this you will need the unit root
where
you will have three solutions
and you do each value of k
and simplify
using exponents proprety
and finally you go to rectangular form by using the definition of the complex exponent form which is e^ix = cos(x) + i*sin(x)
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Bro
<@&268886789983436800>
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Fre money ahh scam
Can someone please explain the answer to me? I donāt understand how/why the x^2 was taken out of the square root
FInally i can get a bingo
New post pls!
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Can you try rationalizing the denominator
Before you do that, let me try to solve it myself.
You mean u-substitution?
yea
How did you get du = x^2 x?
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,rotate
bruh what
,w solve for y', y= e^y / (1+sinx)
Add a comma after y'
Also remove the implicit differentiation
,w solve for dy/dx, y = e^y / (1 + sin(x))
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.reopen
@hybrid trail then can't you keep this channel open until someone answers?
I give up I think my work is right
thanks tho
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how to evaluate this
it goes to infinity
if the base is not fractional
otherwise zero
wait is this going to be
-1/infinity = 0
(2/3)^x would be 0
right
so i thik whole thing should be 0
ehhhhhhhhhhh you're not looking for "fractional" you're looking for "is it above or below 1"
indeed.
in this case 2^x would be 0 and so will be 5/2^x
so it will be -1
yup
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how do i do this
how do i do vector proofs basically
you must try to parameterize the line, no?
so be able to write any of oa, ob, oc ito some shared parameter
whatd you try?
this is just my thought, geometry is probably easier here
but you said using vectors
I can help if you want to solve with geometry
no
can we not divide through by 2OB
we can do a lot of things
^ that is true
@steady wolf Has your question been resolved?
why is there 3 crying emojis
4
i have a thougtt
maybe you can use oa + ab + bo = oc + cb + bo = 0
can you think of some things to try here?
oh I had to prove a similar question like that before but I donāt get why itās equal to 0..
because its a closed path
if you describe all the sides of a closed shape in sequence, you are back where you started
ohhhhhhh
and you already proved it?
so use it freely 
so what can you think to try
say we start with oa + ab + bo = oc + cb + bo
how far are we from what we want to show
how can we get closer
okay
i redid the question and related OA and OC TO OB
instead of BO
as long as you pay attn to orientation
idk wym but okay
can we start where i suggested
sorry
if youre open to it
.
nice
if we can show a couple things were done
we need that:
-( ab + cb) = 0
and -2bo = 2ob
how do you feel about those?
if these are true, the equation you have is the end of the proof
i dont rlly get this one
you see why we need it right?
just in the context of what you wrote
ab +bc = ac, how does -ac = 0
we need those terms to disappear
uhhhh
so that we have something like oa + oc = 2ob
theyre chilling as two extra terms wed like to vanish here
oh
if theyre just zero, itd really make our job easy
do you have that in general -ab = ba?
to use
yes
okay
so this one is done
yeah
we just need to show ab + cb = 0
š
what do we know about these two lengths?
from way back when
we got a, and c, and b right between them
so from a to b must be the same as from c to b
Yes
opposite signs
yeah
are ab and bc the same length and orientation
then we are done

you just need to finish the tying together
thats all the pieces
okayy
hm
i get your way but
i was thinking what if we just isolated for. 2ob
as such
will this get us anywhere
basically we get this expression, and i was trying to prove somehow that oa + oc can be simplified to LHS
is it erong š

haha
all g
btw do you know if im even allowed to ask these questions here
since itās vectors
okay thankss

ty for helping me too, i appreciate it
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How does this work I have no idea how ABC = 1/2 * 16x
do you know the "half base times height" formula
for the area of a triangle
notice how if you take the base as AB and the height as that perpendicular from AB to C, you get a diffrent way of finding ABC, compare the areas
oh im dumb
So you do not use the 8 at all
Its just normal Area of a triangle is 1/2 b*h
you do but not in that place
yes exactly. the trick though is that you express the area of the same triangle in two different ways
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Just trying to figure out what's wrong with my argument here : Consider 2 sets $A, \bigcap_{\lambda \in I} C_{\lambda}$
\
I know $A \subseteq \bigcap_{\lambda \in I} C_{\lambda}$
\
Now I want to show $\bigcap_{\lambda \in I} C_{\lambda} \subseteq A$
\
So $x \in \bigcap_{\lambda \in I} C_{\lambda} \implies x \in A$
\
We consider the contrapositive:
$x \notin A \implies x \notin \bigcap_{\lambda \in I} C_{\lambda}$ Which is true.
\
So if $A \subseteq \bigcap_{\lambda \in I} C_{\lambda} \implies \bigcap_{\lambda \in I} C_{\lambda} \subseteq A$
but that last part is not true purely based on A being a subset of that union
What a wonderful world !
Which part
what is any of that
A = {1,2}
C = {1,2,3}
A is a subset of C
claim: x not in A implies x not in C
false; counterexample: 3
where are you getting it from that the contrapositive is true
what is A, what are the C_lambda
Just arbitrary sets
ok then refer to what cloud says
Yea, thought of something like this
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
two muinutes
Define $Z_F$ to be $\bigcap_{B_{\lambda} \in A} B_{\lambda}$ where the set $A$ is the set of all additive subgroups of $F$ containing $1_F$ . Then show $Z_F = N_F \cup {0} \cup -N_F$
here
$N_F ={k \cdot 1_F \mid k \in \N}$
What a wonderful world !
F is a field
is the B_Ī» notation taken directly from your book
cause it's ugly as hell
also i think as written this is false
My notes uses some other letter, but yea, essentially the same
{0} is an additive subgroup of F, so there's no way the intersection of all additive subgroups of F is any larger than that
make sure and then when you've made sure make sure a SECOND time
prof explicitly forbade screenshotting?
I don't know, I don't want to risk it
He'll only be my prof next year
does he have a track record of hunting down people who disseminate his notes
not reallt
What a wonderful world !
one thing that weirds me out is why do you call the arbitrary additive subgroup B_Ī» instead of like
a single letter like G or whatever

anyway
following your notation, i claim $N_F \cup {0} \cup -N_F$ is in fact itself an additive subgroup of $F$ that contains $1_F$.
Ann
I've proven that
ok right
Which is what I used to prove it's a subset of the intersection
so you know that it is one of the sets being intersected
maybe it would be good to give it a name
let's call it G
sure
Wait, doesn't this prove the other way
i don't know what you did, so i cannot possibly tell you what you did and didn't prove...
I mean the fact that it's an additive subgroup proves that it's a subset of the intersection
ok, so this
I need to show the intersection is a subset of G
no actually
that G is one of the sets being intersected proves (intersection) ā G
bc yknow $A \cap B \subseteq A$ and all...
oops
Ann
yea my bad
now you need to show every member of G belongs to the intersection
i.e. let x ā G and let B be an additive subgroup of F containing 1_F. you need to show x ā B.
go.
every element of $G$ is of the from ${k \cdot 1_F \mid k \in N_F \cup -N_F \cup {0} }$
What a wonderful world !
I'm not sure actually
been stuck on this since 6pm yesterday, or thereabouts
nope
this is bad notation and misspoken in like 2 different ways
and formally nonsensical
every element of G is one of three things:
- k * 1_F for a natural k (said notation being shorthand for the sum of k copies of 1_F)
- -k * 1_F for a natural k (said notation being shorthand for the sum of k copies of -1_F)
- 0
do you allow yourself closure under finite sums for subgroups or is that something that you are obligated to treat as needing proof?
I allow that
ok
then use the fact that 1_F ā B to your advantage
i think the proper formulation will be harder than the logic here
I think to start I can prove B is an inductive set
then show that PMI works for it
That is the property of mathematica induction
and then finally use that to show that every element of these form are in it
no
unnecessary!
you don't need induction if you already say closure under finite (but length >2) sums is OK in your book.
hmm, okay
So how does this sound :
\
As the group is closed under finite sums, adding 1_F an arbitrary number of times gets us $k \cdot 1_F$ , adding it;s inverse k times gets us $k \cdot -1_F$ and adding $1_f and its inverse gets us 0$
What a wonderful world !
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don't like the "arbitrary number of times"
adding \underline{$k$ copies of} $\pm1_F$ gets us $k \cdot 1_F$ and $-k \cdot 1_F$ respectively.
Ann
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4plus5
If, 4 = S(S(S(S(0)))), 5 = S(4), then, result is S(4) + 4 = S(4 + 4) = S(5 + S(S(S(0))) = S(S(5 + S(S(0)))) = _____= S(S(S(S(5)))
This is using the Peano definitions
on natural numbers but for other fields as mentioned by @steady crescent it maybe different
Are you implying the natural numbers are a field š¤
@polar rivet Has your question been resolved?
No, because they don't have additive or multiplicative inverses
They're just a commutative, ordered, semi-ring
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need help w this question
not really sure where to start
Convert to Cartesian vectors, add the two vectors then convert back to the magnitude and bearing form
what is cartesian vectors
Vectors with a X and Y component
start by drawing it
now, for each vector, decompose it into a vector parallel to X axis, and a vector parallel to Y axis
i dont get what that means š like i think ur telling me to like turn it into component form but
i dont know how to with the information i have
Me when trig function
š
does this help?
its kinda like my drawing
so see that you can form a right triangle with the red, the black, and the endpoints and red and black vectors
same with green, black, and the endpoints of green and black
hmm okay wait i think i got it now but
how do i apply what i learned now in different contexts like
š nevermind
is resultant the sum
yes
hey guys, anyone that has done the Math standard IB paper yet
!occupied
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does this work look right
,rotate
assuming you did the actual computations right, it does look right.
i'd include the units in the sqrt as well
as in (321.56mph)^2...
my teacher doesnt really mind if we dont do that
Id put the direction as a bearing though
Since the question gave the angles in the bearing form
how do i give it as a bearing
you start counting from Y axis, clockwise, instead of from X axis counterclockwise
see how you put 135Āŗ bearing as -45Āŗ angle?
@sweet cedar Has your question been resolved?
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Help on 3?
A 4th degree polynomial maybe
Which satisfies P(0) = 25, has a single root at x=1 and a triple root at x=5
Thank u
Something about the sign of the first coefficient as well
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how to figure out these types of questions?
Here's a trick
you know a parabola is symmetric along the vertical line that goes through the vertex
so if you have two points on your parabola that have same y-coordinate
then the vertex x coordinate is straight in the middle
you have in the second example
Well the vertex is (-b/2a) = (-b/a)(1/2) = sum of roots * 1/2
(11,0) and (5,0) points of the parabola
they do have the same y coordinate
it's a particular case where it's even the roots that are given
all we care about is that they have same y coordinate
so the x-coordinate of the vertex
is just the mean of the x-coordinates given
try to draw any parabola going through those 2 points given
it might bevome more obvious what the answer is
yeah
https://www.desmos.com/calculator/1iqxlqorg7 Here's something to visually tinker with if you want
no matter the point you choose on your parabola
the other point on the parabola that will have the same y-coordinate
is in complete "mirror"
if you consider the mirror being the vertical line at the vertex
So vice versa
having two points of same y coordinate on the parabola
reveals that the vertex is straight in the "middle" (for the x coordinate)
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okay I see
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,rotate
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!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
@balmy obsidian Has your question been resolved?
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so you messed up the sign
so you should get y = (x+4)(x-3)
so the values of x that make it 0 would be -4 and -(-3) = 3 (plug it in and see why)
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Can someone explain to me how II is a
Unit sphere
unit vectors are all vectors with length 1
Oh I see
so it's the set of all points with distance 1 from the origin
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why are these not the same?
oh rightt
in fact, you could just pull the 2-x out of the inner integral, then you are left with $\int_0^2 (2-x)(4 - x^2),dx$
Bungo
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Hey, im trying to prove the term you can see on top here using induction, but this doesnt seem right to me. What i did here was check if the term is fulfilled for n = 1 and then, when checking with n+1 substituting n for a^n, (the part with the braces that says I.V), since i have already shown the term is correct for n. Can i do it like this? and if yes is this enough or do i need more steps for the induction to be correct?
mhm
n <= 1.01^n isnt true for low n
once n gets high enough, it is true
but for the low n it isnt
youll have to choose higher c for low n
ye but thats no problem, ican do that
but the general structure of the induction is correct?
because thats my biggest problem atm š
it is correct, up to here
this isnt always true
if it was true, the induction would be right
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no constant c will work
you'll have to choose c dependent on a
I'd try doing the induction with general c first, and then deciding what kind of requirements to put on c
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how did this happen?
we know tan(pi/6)
so probably due to tan(2x) formula
$\tan(2x) = \frac{2\tan(x)}{1-\tan^2(x)}$
zzzz
wouldn't that make tan into (pi/24)?
oh
set x = pi/12
2tan(pi/12)/(1-tan^2(pi/12))=tan(pi/6)
oh
wait
tan(pi/6)
we can rewrite and we get a quadratic
how?
let x = tan(pi/12)
,w solve 1/root(3) = 2x/(1-x^2)
$\frac{2x}{1-x^2}= \frac{\sqrt{3}}{3}$
zzzz
we can multiply by $1-x^2$, since we know $-1 <\tan(\frac{\pi}{12}) < \tan(\pi/4) = 1$
so we get a quadratic which we can solve using the quadratic formula
hm
zzzz
you mean 2x=sqrt(3)/3 * (1-x^2)?
yes
and
x=sqrt(3)/3*(1-x^2)*2
we want to multiply everything out so that we can apply the quadratic formula so get to ax^2+bx+c=0
right
its true but what does this do
ohhh yeah I see it
I just started writing it and you're right I got it
I got what you meant
okay nice good job
right, so I got to the sqrt(3)/6 tg^2(pi/12) -tg(pi/12) + sqrt(3)/6=0
so I can substitute tg(pi/12)=x
to solve it such so
sqrt(3)x^2-6x^2+sqrt(3)=0
right?
uh -6x not x^2
hm actually I think you messed up the sign somewhere it should be sqrt(3)x^2+6x-sqrt(3)
right
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im thinking it's either this or 2.35
Can you explain your reasoning behind both your values x = 1.59 and x = 2.35
Still, I highly recommend figuring out where you went wrong in finding x = 1.59 to avoid this mistake in the future.
i thought it was d because
i wasn't plotting it right
i don't think i was
thank you bro
.close
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hi could someone explain why the gradient is normal to the plane?
if you are looking for the fastest increase, the dot product of the gradient and some vector u is 0
and as you know, if the dot product is 0 then it is perpendicular (or normal) to the plane
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how does this skipto 1 + tan^2
So which one was used exactly?
first col, third one down
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how does this step happen?
using sin/cos = tan
Lol
i hate this stuff
spent 5 hours on the first unit and i have 3 more to go
lovely
u got this bro
how would you factor an expession with two variables, call them s and t, that looked like s²t²-t²?
take tan squared out
what would that look like
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Prove:
((secx+1)/(secx-1)) + ((cosx+1)/(cosx-1)) = 0
do NOT ask me to use syntax
idk how to do that
also dont ask me for my working out its 8 pages long
i am not taking a photo of those
what happens if you multiply (sec x + 1) by -cos x, and also multiply (sec x - 1) by -cos x
ok look
i have no idea but
what i was doing was
turning the sec into cosines
but
idk how to really do that
since it turns into
(1/cos)+1/(1/cos)-1
which is very messy and idk how to divide that
oh also
only basic identities can be used
eight fucking pages?????
yeah that's my idea too
i got stuck so i just kept spamming solutions
i somehow got cos+1/0
which is like
technecally right ig
One of the greatest motivating forces for Donald Knuth when he began developing the original TeX system was to create something that allowed simple construction of mathematical formulae, while it looking professional when printed. The fact that he succeeded was most probably why TeX (and later on, LaTeX) became so popular within the scientific c...
please do not call me "bro"!
whats the command here
could you edit that word out
uhh...
its
one word..
like i get that
but
bro is a gender neutrual term
it is one word which i do not want to be called.
most of the time
and also, gender neutrality be damned,
if someone tells you not to call them by a word, you don't call them by that word
š
cause i asked you to
ok
you literally spent 10 times more time arguing about this than it would be to just do it
yeah but i need to know the reasoning
its like
if i said go jump of a cliff
you wouldn't do that
you would ask why first
this idea is correct
the reasoning is:
if someone tells you not to call them by a word, you don't call them by that word
ok but i didn't ask you for anything nearly as destructive
then sec x * cos x = 1
1 * cos x = cos x
it erases the misgendering
okayz
divide that
i dont know how im decent at math
when i cant divide four numbers
maybe it would be good to rewrite the problem in my shorthand
and instead of cos(x) just write c
and accordingly sec(x) is 1/c
$\frac{\frac{1}{c}+1}{\frac{1}{c}-1} + \frac{c+1}{c-1}$
Ann
$\frac{1}{cosx} + (cosx-1)$
haku
like i swear this is how it works
is it not
wait no
theres a missing number
$(\frac{1}{cosx} + 1) + (cosx-1)$
haku
wait
i think you already messed something up
$(\frac{1}{cosx} + 1) (cosx-1)$
haku
i think this is also wrong
yep im turning insane
"how is this wrong" or "how do i do it right"?
$(\frac{1}{cosx} + 1) / (\frac{1}{cosx} + 1)$
haku
if i figure out why its wrong ill get it in like
