#help-39
1 messages · Page 117 of 1
Yes
Pseudonium
What does "identify" mean?
I.e. we can say $T = 2^{\mathbb{N} }$
Pseudonium
Yes, I see. We have an infinite set of infinite binary sequences
Yes
So, we have some $f : \mathbb{N} \to 2^{\mathbb{N} }$
Pseudonium
Which is supposed to be a bijection
But what cantor does is find an $s \in 2^{\mathbb{N} }$ that is outside the image of f
Pseudonium
However, s is still an infinite binary sequence
So it’s still an element of $2^{\mathbb{N} }$
Pseudonium
Yeah, it was created on the assumption that it differs from all numbers in 2^N but it is there by its definition. Russel's Paradox. But why does it prove that there are uncountable sets? Because the assumption that T is countable doesn't hold?
We derive a contradiction from the assumption that T is countable
Hence, T cannot be countable
So T must be uncountable
That indeed sounds true, but how can it be uncountable...
Well
If it were countable, we could derive a contradiction?
And we don’t want contradictions
So that it is uncountable means what?
It means there is no bijection with $\mathbb{N}$ (and that it’s not finite, but that’s easy)
Pseudonium
So it appears we cannot make an enumeration of T.
But we supposedly can make an enumeration of Z.
Couldn't we make the same argument by e.g. taking the biggest number from Z and adding +1 to it?
I suppose I should make an example of the function you provided. The bijective function wouldn't allow such an argument since there would always be a number which is bigger by 1
Seems like being countable is a specific case of being in bijection, but here being in bijection with N
Yes, or being finite
Typically we say that finite sets are also countable
Cause, well, you can count all their elements
@barren root Has your question been resolved?
@barren root Has your question been resolved?
Wait do you still have a Q
@barren root Has your question been resolved?
Yeah I'm still pondering it over on why it causes a contradiction
Wdym
you can think of it as just showing that any function $f : \mathbb{N} \to 2^{\mathbb{N} }$ is non-surjective
Pseudonium
So assuming that $2^{\mathbb{N} }$ is countable yields a contradiction
Pseudonium
Because given any function $f : \mathbb{N} \to 2^{\mathbb{N} }$, one can find an $x \in 2^{\mathbb{N} }$ that is not in the image
Pseudonium
I don't understand why we need it to be countable to use the diagonal argument considering that we already use it on infinite sets
Pseudonium
Then there exists a $y \in 2^X$ outside the image of f
Pseudonium
Perhaps the technique just shouldn't be used on sets which are defined to contain all numbers of infinite length? Because it yields an error in this case
I don’t understand what the error is
Do you understand why the claim i just stated is true?
What is y?
Because if X has only e.g. 3 elements in it then the second set has only 8 elements and that's it
Pseudonium
Pseudonium
Because |X| is smaller than |2^X|
Well
That’s the whole thing we’re trying to prove…
So unfortunately we can’t use that, no
I mean it's obvious
The point is that
It’s not obvious for infinite sets
That’s why Cantor had to do his argument
This statement holds for all sets X
Both finite and infinite
Given there is a proof for the case of infinite sets
I’m showing you the proof for infinite sets!
Carton's diagonal argument?
Yeah
image in relation to an input value of a function is the output
I’m… not sure what you’re trying to say
Can you tell me the definition of the set $\text{Im}(f)$?
Pseudonium
The function's codomain?
The subset of codomain to which we have values leading from the domain
Right, that’s roughly the idea
In this case, $\text{Im}(f) = {w \in 2^X | \exists z \in X \text{ such that } f(z) = w }$
Pseudonium
Using this, can you show that $y \not \in \text{Im}(f)$?
Pseudonium
This is the definition of y
Does $x \not \in f(x)$ mean that $x$ is not contained in the set to which $f(x)$ leads?
Telov
Indeed!
$f(x) \in 2^X$
Pseudonium
Pseudonium
It’s an element of x
So, it makes sense to ask whether or not x is in f(x)
Sometimes it is, and sometimes it’s not
Whenever it’s not, we add it to y
How can a function belong to $2^X$? $2^X$ has sets, not functions
Pseudonium
Then the output is $f(x)$
Pseudonium
Which has $f(x) \in 2^X$
Pseudonium
So, f turns an element of X into a subset of X
Or if you prefer
Take some $a \in X$
Pseudonium
Pseudonium
Pseudonium
In other words, f(a) is a subset of X
Oh yeah, sorry, not function belongs but one of its outputs, sorry
It’s ok
I think maybe it was the f(x) notation that was confusing
Because often people say “let f(x) be a function…”
When really they should say “let f be a function…”
It was bound to happen given that I'm new to this notation honestly
.
.
Ping me if you’re stuck
Okay
Given that there are always more indicator functions than elements in the original set, there always will be out of the image indicator functions in the codomain which this y seems to contain. But that is for finite sets
Indeed, your first statement is exactly what we’re trying to prove for infinite sets
That there are more indicator functions than elements
That there are more indicator functions for infinite sets than in the original infinite set...
Indeed
So if $2^\mathbb{N}$ is uncountable then it is true for all infinite sets containing different whole numbers, at least
Yes, so in particular what i stated is true for $X = \mathbb{N}$
But it’s true for any set, finite or infinite
And essentially I’m trying to walk you through the proof
I'm afraid that the diagonal way of constructing such a number trips over any set which contains all numbers of given length
So, X doesn’t necessarily have to be a set of numbers
It can just be any set
Id recommend going back to the definitions
To show that $y \not \in \text{Im}(f)$
Pseudonium
y is the set of all subsets of the codomain of f which either are not in the image of f or are in the image of f but do not contain the element which leads to them
Careful
y is not a set of subsets
y is just a subset of X
y is the set of elements x which are not in f(x)
Or if you prefer
y is a subset of X which contains all elements which when put in f do not lead to a set which contains them
$y = { a \in X | a \not \in f(a) }$
Pseudonium
Yep
Actually is that leading to a set which does not contain them supposed to be important? Because I don't see its significance in the task
Not trying to be naughty or anything
Yes!
Very important actually
You use this to show that $y \not \in \text{Im}(f)$
Pseudonium
Pseudonium
Pseudonium
Pseudonium
Pseudonium
To show that y is not in the image of f hmm
Trying to understand what y not being in the image would mean
That’s a good instinct
Thanks
So in regard to the function there are 3 kinds of elements in X:
- those which do not lead to anything
- those which lead to a set which contains them
- those which lead to a set that does not contain them
y is the subset which contains all elements of types 1 and 3
Mhm
So all elements of X lead to an indicator function of X. \
y is a subset of X which contains all elements which lead to an indicator function not containing the element.\
We need to prove that $y \not \in \text{Im}(f)$
y contains all elements leading to an indicator function that doesn’t contain the element
Yep, sorry
Telov
Mhm
Given that the elements lead to random elements in the codomain, it's difficult to say anything
Would you like a hint?
This is also a good instinct
Is it the hint yet?
No lol
For instance they all can lead to sets which do not contain them
Or they all can lead to sets which do contain them
This is true
In the first case y would contain all elements of X
In the latter case it wouldn't contain any
Yep!
I think we should stop calling the elements of the 2^X set indicating functions because what they in fact are are all subsets of X
Sure
We need to prove that all elements which lead to subsets of X not containing them are not together one of these sets?
So if each element is an assigned number then...
We just need to prove $y \not \in \text{Im}(f)$
Pseudonium
I think - we’re mostly going in circles, so let me give you a hint
Yeah I translated it into words
What it means for $y \in \text{Im}(f)$ is that $\exists a \in X \text{ such that } y = f(a)$
Pseudonium
So - what goes wrong if $y = f(a)$ for some $a \in X$?
Pseudonium
Then an element of X leads to a subset of X which contains {all elements of X which lead to a subset of X not containing them} and that our element is one of them. Seems like a contradiction to me
Hmm, I can’t exactly parse what you’re saying
Imagine how it is for me😂
We don’t know whether $a \in f(a)$ or not
Pseudonium
But - suppose $a$ was in f(a)
Pseudonium
So $a \in f(a)$
Pseudonium
What would be the issue with $y = f(a)$?
Pseudonium
It directly contradicts with the definition of y
Because?
y contains only $a \not \in f(a)$
Telov
Indeed! So we couldn’t have $a \in y$
Pseudonium
Pseudonium
So we know that $a \in f(a)$ is bad
Pseudonium
But we don’t know for sure that’s true
I mean, if we know $f(a) = y$, then we certainly can’t have $a \in f(a)$
Pseudonium
Pseudonium
Would it be fine for $f(a)$ to equal y now?
Pseudonium
Yes
Actually, this situation is also bad!
This leads to a contradiction too
Can you see why?
Wait...
Ha!
y will be equal to f(a)
And a will be meant to belong to one of them but not the other one
But they are equal
That's a subtle one
f(a) and y are always guaranteed to be unequal
Because they differ in at least one place
Namely, a itself
Because either $a \in f(a)$, meaning $a \not \in y$
Pseudonium
Or $a \not \in f(a)$, meaning $a \in y$
Pseudonium
So they have to be different subsets
And so it’s absolutely impossible to have $y = f(a)$
Pseudonium
This is what cantor realised
Can we possibly continue tomorrow? I'm working on my subconsciousness now
Yep sure though idk if I’ll be here tomorrow
But you can definitely open a help channel again and I’m sure someone will help
Can I ping you then?
Not in a help channel I think but if you post in one of the other channels
You should probably close the channel
Funny as in fun or as in difficult?
Both
.close
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Im a bit confused. I have triangle with given vertices and I have to calculate the double integral. Im what to make of the triangle, I mean how to get the lower and upper limits of integration. Let's say we integrate with respect to x first.
try to set up the limits
Does that mean that the lower limit of integration is the line that goes through the points (-1,0) (0,1) and the upper limit of integration the line that goes through the points (0,1) (1,0)?
it might be easier to split the integral in two
x goes from -1 to +1
y depends on x
or the other way around
So when we integrate with respect to x first, the limits are for x: lower limit of integration is the line that goes through the points (-1,0) , upper limit of integration the line that goes through the points (0,1) (1,0) and y goes from 0 to 1. When we integrate with respect to y first, x goes from -1 to 1 and y?
Im so confused lol
I thought when we integrate with respect to y, x goes from -1 to 1 and y from 0 to 1, but then we don't have the triangle
you are trying to cover the whole triangle
so let's say our x runs from -1 to 1, we get a line
now our y travels from that line at y=0 to y=x-1
then we get a triangle, but it will be wrong for the left part
so to get both parts, we either use the absolute of x, or we split it up before hand
now notice that the outer integration depends on x, that means our result will not be a number, it won't make a lot of sense
so we have to look if our order of integration makes sense
luckily there is a theorem saying that we can rearrange the order of integration
this theorem has some conditions tho, but these are met here iirc
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sorry for the writing, but I wanted to make sure I understand
try writing down the doubl eintegral with this information
like that?
keep in mind the diagonal edge is on the left in the left triangle, so the bounds y-1 and 0 should be swapped
y is from 0 to 1, then x is from y-1 to 0
other than that, its correct
you're right, my bad
another thing you can notice if you pay attention to the bounds,
both integrals can be combined to be $\int_0^1\int_{y-1}^{-y+1}(x^2+y^2);dx;dy$
mtt
this would be one triangle with y from 0 to 1 and x from the left diagonal to the right diagonal
Oh I see
you can get this by reading the triangle but also from combining the integrals together
alr gl
this would be what I would have done. However mtt's approach is much nicer and doesn't need to check for conditions which my approach does 😦
its a common rule to avoid absolute values anywhere in an integral
also you have a typo on the second line
oh really?
x in the outer bound is not defined
it just sounds like you miswrote the integral
so that would mean the second line isnt necessary and you really began with this instead
ah no, i set it up as in line 2, because that was more intuitive to me, then i swapped the order of integration
but yeah, one could just start with line 3 instead of line 2
oh as like notes, so the first integral is the bounds for x and the second for y?
i don't think I understand
the outer integral in line 2 is with respect to y
the fact that the x in the limit is not defined tells me to swap the integration order
I know that to a mathematician that sounds like a crime haha
that to me sounds like you had the bounds in mind but not enough to write them in order, so they are like notes instead of like an actual integral to be interpreted
what I said after "notes" doesnt make any sense
so its more of swapping them until they made sense
what works out though is that you can just write them in the order they are defined, so -1 to 1 being the first integral youd write down LTR is a convenience
@dusty stone Has your question been resolved?
stuck figuring the integral out?
fyi it shouldnt take this long, do you need help with that
thats already too many steps
I got this
thats not correct
I mean that's only the left triangle
yea its not correct
oh
do you want to recheck your work or do this in a shorter way
Im not sure, depending if the shorter way is harder or not
its not
so maybe that
do you remember this integral
yes
thats an oddly long amount of time to remember that integral
lets go back to the original two then
you definitely remember $\int_0^1\int_{y-1}^0(x^2+y^2);dx;dy+\int_0^1\int_0^{-y+1}(x^2+y^2);dx;dy$
mtt
right?
yes
now you can combine the integrals like this:
,,\int_0^1\qty(\int_{y-1}^0(x^2+y^2);dx+\int_0^{-y+1}(x^2+y^2);dx);dy
mtt
theyre both integrals from 0 to 1 dy
then the integrals can be added together to be from y-1 to -y+1
,,\int_0^1\qty(\int_{y-1}^{-y+1}(x^2+y^2);dx);dy
mtt
so you can add the integrals together into one integral so you dont have to recalculate the same integral
any difficulties so far?
no, I understand
this first integral is dx
wait a sec
you did calculate this integral correctly here
,,\int_0^1\qty[\frac13x^3+xy^2]_{y-1}^{-y+1}dy
mtt
which is then as usual:
,,\int_0^1\qty(\qty(\frac13(-y+1)^3+(-y+1)y^2)-\qty(\frac13(y-1)^3+(y-1)y^2))dy
mtt
are you with me?
yes
now the second time save you can do here is reduce how much you would need to expand
first, we can try combining the terms together so that less would be expanded
take a look at these terms
do you see a way of adding them together into one term (without expanding)?
if you cant see it, it looks like this:
,,\frac13(-y+1)^3+-\frac13(y-1)^3
\\frac13(-y+1)^3+\frac13(-y+1)^3
\\frac23(-y+1)^3
mtt
I see, I wasn't sure if you can factor out -1 before expanding
theres a general rule you can use to see if its possible
what youre thinking of, in general, would be if -f(x) = f(-x)
right
yes
a function f like this is called "odd"
in general, polynomials with odd exponents only are odd functions
1/3 x^3 is one of them
you can notice 1/3 (-x)^3 = 1/3 (-1)^3 x^3 = -1/3 x^3
I see
,,\int_0^1\qty(\frac23(-y+1)^3+(-y+1)y^2-(y-1)y^2)dy
mtt
after that being combined, the last two terms above also can
do you see how these can be combined?
(as a hint, this isnt related to odd functions but more of distributive property)
@dusty stone
can you use distributive property on this - and this (y - 1)?
like that?
no
try this instead
I didnt say that either
oh sorry
distributive property on the - and the (y - 1)
you should see that its the shortest sequence of steps out of the others
-(y - 1) is?
-y+1
mtt
so you can see it gets there shorter in two steps instead of 3 or anything similar
yeah, you're right
did you notice that -(y-1) matched with -y+1?
yes
so when you notice that, you can think of combining them or writing things in terms of them
if you went with that, you can find it this way
,,\int_0^1\qty(\frac23(-y+1)^3+2(-y+1)y^2)dy
mtt
now for the third timesave
youll notice we'd have to expand (-y+1)^3 by now
thats -y^3 + 3y^2 - 3y + 1 but itd be ideal if we didnt need to do this
now you can do u = -y + 1
(and u' is -1)
do you want to try out the u-sub here
yes
go give it a shot
depending on how comfortable you are with u-subs, this can save more time than just expanding
if youre having trouble, the u-sub doesnt save that much time and should be skipped instead, since you already memorized that (-y + 1)^3 = -y^3 + 3y^2 - 3y + 1
what do I do with y^2?
ah I see
ye
if you do u = mx + b of some sort, you can reverse that to get an inverse that works
@dusty stone back
iirc what you posted was correct
one thing though
in definite integrals,
since u = 1 - y,
the bounds also change
the bounds usually went from y=0 to y=1
now they go from u=1 to u=0
changing the bounds along with the y means that what you have afterwards is an integral entirely within u
they both have the same value
along with doing this,
this is how I got this integral
I thought when you calculate the Indefinite integral first, you don't have to worry about changing the bounds
the problem with calculating the indefinite integral first is that what you do afterwards is... change the bounds
youre calcating those bounds one way or the other, its mandatory to eventually calculate the 1 - 0 and 1 - 1 change of bounds
you might as well do it in a way which doesnt require using y anymore
both of these integrals have the same value
calculating -0 + 1 and -1 + 1 is still changing the bounds
it just doesnt have u= and y= labelled
additionally writing it this way requires you writing out the same thing but with (-y+1) instead of u
only to calculate -0+1 and -1+1 anyways
I see
regardless youve got the correct answer of 1/3
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np
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Very quick question, feel like i shouldnt be taking up a whole channel for this but i am going to be doing a Dynamics and Fluids uni exam, i just wanted to ask what mode my calculator should be in for this because i am not sure
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Klein group 4
isn't it just Z2 x Z2? what do the numbers in your screenshot have to do with it?
Actually I do not know Z2×Z2 mean
dark side gf does not know algebra like this
They are saying that the subgroup {1,5,7,11} of Z12 is isomporphic to the klein 4 group, because they possess the same multiplication table
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
This is an odd way to define it, yeah. Usually defined as Z2 x Z2 or with a permutation group or via matrices
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I'm not sure I get where lcm(a,b) came from
lcm(a, b) is defined as the smallest integer such that (1) it is a multiple of both a and b and (2) it is smaller than any number which is a multiple of both a and b
yes
So first they construct an m which clearly satisfies condition (1) right (in their first paragraph)
And next they let c be any number which is a multiple of both a and b and they then show that m must be a divisor of c
And m is a divisor of c implies that m <= c such that the second condition is satisfied and m is the lcm
No, c is an arbitrary multiple of both a and b
Hmm I'm not quite sure about that
Bézout states that there exists numbers x, y such that ax + by = gdc(a,b)
yes
In your case this would mean that gcd(a, b) = gcd(c/b, c/a) which I don't think is true in general
hmm, ok
But maybe back to the original question what part did you not understand
from (c/b)x+(c/a)y, how did they get lcm(a,b)=ab/d?
Well, the core idea of this proof is to define m = ab / d ( = ab/gcd(a,b)) and then show that this m satisfies the 2 conditions for being the lcm
So when c/m = vx + uy, we know that c = m(vx + uy) where vx + uy is an integer such that m divides c which in turn implies that m <= c
I'd say there is a more elegant proof of this fact if you know how the gcd and lcm relate to the prime factorizations of both numbers
I think I'm only introduced to primes in the next chapter
. Thanks alot for the help
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What is dominant and how to calculate it and for what is it used compared to average, median,
@obsidian grail Has your question been resolved?
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Find the gcd(143,227) using euclid's algorithm
so this is what I've tried
224=143+84
143=84+49
49=35+14
35=2*14+7
14=2*7+0
which is wrong
why is this wrong?
First step
oh
Yeah you have done addition wrong on multiple lines
addition is going to be the death of of me 
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prove that gcd(a+b,a-b)=1 or 2
What have u tried?
alternatively
I was able to determine one is always odd
and one number is always even
wondering if there's any way to use that
^ you can't make or arrive at any assumptions about a or b since you asked to prove it for arbitrary a and b
hmm, ok
(Well you could make assumptions if you're splitting into cases that cover everything but that doesn't seem the right strat here)
is this supposed to be an easy problem ? Like should I revise the theory once more, or would I understand the theorom better by solving this?
that d|a , d|b \implies d|ab?
no
so, lemme state it again
Given integers $m, n$, $\text{gcd}(m, n)$ is the unique integer which satisfies $\forall a \in \mathbb{Z}, a | m \wedge a | n \iff a | \text{gcd}(m, n)$
Pseudonium
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
Max
^ youre trying to show that if its bigger than 1, it must be 2
hmm, but gcd(a,b)=1
yes, which means that $d | a, d |b \iff d | 1$
Pseudonium
that’s the universal property
indeed!
hm, so
could you state the universal property for $\text{gcd}(a - b, a + b)$?
Pseudonium
$d|a-b; d|a+b \iff d|1$
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
$d|a-b \land d|a+b \iff d|gcd(a+b,a-b)$
it’s an if and only if
ah,ok
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
how do you mean?
it can be rewritten in arguably more meaningful ways
hmm,could I have a hint please
operators
Full proof:||wlog a is odd (they're not both even), let d=gcd(a+b, a-b) = gcd(2a, a-b)||
||so d|2a, meaning d | 2 (ok) or d|a||
||in that second case d | a+b||
||this implies d | b, meaning d | 1||
Line 1 is your hint
odd and even numbers
odd/even is relevant here
one has to odd?
yes
so I solve case-wise?
no need
I don’t quite understand this proof
How are you justifying ||d | 2a means d | 2 or d | a||?
we deduce that ||d | 1 or d | 2|| which is what we want
Notice ||a being odd|| is used on line 2
so I have gcd(2l+1, m)=1
This is the place I get stuck
I still don’t get why
Euclid's lemma?
That says ||if d | ab and gcd(d, a) = 1 then d | b||
how are you using that here exactly?
hmm, I'm lost, is it a bad idea to look at the proof and learn from it?
||if d doesn't divide 2 then gcd(d, 2) = 1, then d | a||
well atm im trying to understand the proof bezier posted
||this is false, 4 doesn’t divide 2 but gcd(4, 2) = 2||
||4 ain't odd||
||im taking issue with your implication “if d doesn’t divide 2 then gcd(d, 2) = 1”||
that is poorly phrased, lemme go back
I have a different proof in mind anyway
have you tried using my hint?
I will try now, your hint was to use addition, right?
Pseudonium
hmm, I could add them
to determine if d|2a
and subtract them to determine if d+2b?
||a=9, d=6 is more convincing, I'm thinking about it||
||that's impossible as then 3|b hence not coprime||
that’s a good idea
so
similarly if d|2b
no, I'm saying if that's true
||d|2a. Assume d doesn't divide 2 nor a. Then there's k | a st d = 2k. Then k > 1 is a common divisor of a and b, contradiction||
That details line 2, proving its conclusion
d|2b
I would recommend showing this first
it is true that if d | a - b and d | a + b then d | 2a
hmm
indeed, it’s true generally that if d | k and d | r then d | k + r
$a+b/d=k_1$
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
$a-b/d= k_2$
order of operations..
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
as written these are not correct
what’s K?
What’s K_1?
a constant
Unfortunately you have to be more specific than just “a constant”
What’s the definition of divisibility?
I think something like one number is a multiple of another
and what does that mean?
so specifically, if d and k are integers, what does d | k mean?
when is it true?
you really have to make sure you’re familiar with these definitions
otherwise these problems are gonna be a lot harder
so having an intutive understanding isn't enough?
$k=nd$
no of course not
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
you need the definition
where n is a constant
I'll qoute my book
An integer b is said to be divisible by another integer $a\neq 0$ in symbols $a|b$, if there exists some integer c such that b=ac.
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
oh, ok
in general for math
so if I mention $k_1, k_2 \in \Z$ this is right?
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
you need to be absolutely watertight with definitions
tbf this is arithmetic it's implicit that we're exclusively working with integers
well you still haven’t fixed the order of operations
implicit can often lead to confusion
Pseudonium
that’s what the definition says
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
so addinf them I get $a = \frac{(k_1+k_2)d}{2}$
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
now this isn't always divisble by d though, right? $\frac{k_1+k_2}{2}$ could be a non -integer
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
oh right
yeah, that's always an integer
similarly ${k_1-k_2}$ is always an integer
No
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
or 2b
And what do you mean
K_1 is an integer, k_2 is an integer, so their sum is an integer
as is their difference
ok
oh that's so much simpler
I just missed that
$\frac{a+b}{d} = k_1
\
\frac{a-b}{d}=k_2
\
2a= d(k_1+k_2)
\implies d|2a$
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
similarly $d|2b$
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
Ok
Can I show you how I’d write this proof?
Because there’s a few issues I take with how you’ve laid it out
ok, thanks for the help
Pseudonium
By definition, this means $\exists k_1, k_2 \in \mathbb{Z}$ such that $a - b = k_1 d$ and $a + b = k_2 d$
yes
Pseudonium
Then, summing, we get that $2a = (k_1 + k_2) d$
Pseudonium
Moreover, since $k_1, k_2 \in \mathbb{Z}$, we have $k_1 + k_2 \in \mathbb{Z}$
Pseudonium
So, by definition, $d | 2a$
Pseudonium
The main thing you were missing was this step
And this step
I won’t make you write out the proof for the other one
But I would recommend doing it at some point
It’s good to keep things clear and explicit as much as possible in a proof
Appeal to definitions wherever you can
Anyway, we’ve successfully shown that $d | a - b, d | a + b \implies d | 2a, d | 2b$
Pseudonium
So… now what?
hmm, gcd(2a,2b)=2
How do you know that?
bézout's lemma
So now, what can we use this for?
(I said this cause I didn’t see that myself and that’s a neater way than what I had in mind)
So, I had something else in mind
Why not just use the universal property?
So, what does the universal property say for gcd(2a, 2b)?
this
yes
Pseudonium
So by the universal property, $d | \text{gcd}(2a, 2b)$
Pseudonium
Which means $d | 2$
Pseudonium
So d is either 1 or 2
Does that make sense?
Cool
but how do I learn to think like this?
So, can I summarise what we’ve done so far?
ok
Just get used to using universal properties more
yeah that's why I made my commit that it was so much simpler
Pseudonium
Instead of looking at it directly, we’ve looked at the universal property
It doesn’t tell us what the gcd “is”, but it tells us what the gcd “does”, how it relates to other integers
Specifically, it tells us that for $d \in \mathbb{Z}$, $d | \text{gcd}(a - b, a + b) \iff d | a - b, d | a + b$
Pseudonium
Then, we showed that $d | a - b, d | a + b \implies d | 2a, d | 2b$
Pseudonium
And by another universal property, we have $d | 2a, d | 2b \iff d | \text{gcd}(2a, 2b)$
Pseudonium
Moreover, using Bezout’s lemma and gcd(a, b) = 1, we can deduce that gcd(2a, 2b) = 2
So, overall, we have shown the following
$d | \text{gcd}(a -b, a + b) \implies d | 2$
Pseudonium
Does that make sense?
yes
What were we trying to show originally?
that the gcd is either 1 or 2
Mhm
not really, no
We can use the Yoneda Lemma!
what now?
Namely
This is true for all integers d, right?
yes
a =5, b=3
d=1 is always true
d can be 2, but I don't see how that helps
Pseudonium
yes
This is essentially applying the yoneda lemma
what is the yoneda lemma though, google talks about group theory when I look it up
Oh dw about it for now
Anyway, what happens if we substitute this?
then d=1 or d=2
And isn’t that what we were trying to show?
In general, what the yoneda lemma says (for this category) is that
If you have $\forall d \in \mathbb{Z}, d | m \implies d | n$
Pseudonium
Then $m | n$
Pseudonium
I see
thanks
had a slightly unrelated question
so I'm going to be starting my UG in maths in around a month and a half, and NT is only a 2nd year course at my uni, would doing this now, as my first introduction to college math be a bad idea?
again, thanks a lot for all the help!
Closed by @sharp smelt
Use .reopen if this was a mistake.
lol I can’t believe I got to use category theory for a number theory proof
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, rotate
Lmao thx
Why V=2e^2x
,w product rule integration
Also you are supposed to integrate V in first part
That isn't product rule
What you have written jn first line is
But I'm supposed to do this by the integration by parts method
Yeah
Integ by parts and product rule is same?
U is X squared
V is 2e^2x
V is e^2x
That is a formula for different things
What 😭
Look at what you have written in first line
How do I use the integ by parts formula then
That is integration by parts
I'm my picture?
Yeah
Where I solved the quesuin?
Yeah
No

