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Yeah that's very clever proof
I have to go now, good luck! (open a new channel if you have more questions)
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Am I doing this wrong?
ale co masz zrobić?
I have to graphically present the points
.
aren't you polish?
@frozen solar Has your question been resolved?
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Help
at what value of x does -2x + 4 = 0?
@vast lichen Has your question been resolved?
Could you rearrange -2x + 4 = 0 until you achieve x = something?
Try adding 2x to each side and then dividing through by 2.
The answer is below if you get stuck but give it a go first :))
||4 = 2x -> x = 2||
So x=2
yep, that's your c
Aah
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given this diagram (ignore blue writings), find the correct statement
find the correct statement out of the following
these are my calculations so far
the things i box are vital information
If the graph is at scale, then d = 0 and (x-3)^2 and x factorize y ??
oh youre right
hmm, i think the first is correct
doesnt check out with the anskey, but its probably wrong anyway
thanks
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second
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hey, im completely stuck on a math problem. The problem is to determine if the function has an inverse. f(x) = x* tan((pi*x)/2) with domain (-1,1). with my knowledge, a function has an inverse if it is one-to-one in the domain area. i know you can derivate and find out if the derivated function > 0 or < 0 in the domain to find out if it is increasing or decreasing and then also if it has an inverse.
well, the derivative doesnt look nice and im just thinking if there is any other way i can see that this function doesnt have an inverse? without looking at the graph itself
i mean
swap vars and solve for y?
if u can, i guess it has an inverse
pretty cool once u graph it
yea, it isnt x/2 but pi*x is divided by 2
oh, nevermind
yea i saw that
$x\tan\left(0.5\pi x\right) \rightarrow x = y\tan\left(0.5\pi y\right)$
yea thats the one
ren
idk how you would go from swapping vars and solve for y
that's how u calculate an inverse function
well from my ujnderstanding the function doesnt have an inverse in the domain (-1,1)
wait what if we convert to polar
does that help? i got no idea
yea, i just dont know how i can actually calculate or use any theories to support that it doesnt have an inverse in that domain
cot (0.5piy) = tan theta
so on
then arctan cot 0.5pi * y = theta
etc
,w arctan (cot (x))
omfg
why can't WA just simplify
i know what it is
just might as well check
,w differentiate 0.5x(x + 2 arctan (cot x))
yea, idt it's very reducible, is it?
these looks like pretty ugly numbers so i cant imagine that my professor wants me to do it like this
ok hang on
googled to reconfirm MY answer
pi/2 - t
so basically, arctan (cot 0.5piy) = theta
arctan (cot t) = theta
pi/2 - t = theta
pi/2 - piy/2 = theta
(pi/2)(1 - y) = theta
oops, dc italics hang on
wait--no
not in the interval (-1, 1)
sighs
one sec.
it doesnt have an inverse in (-1,1)
how can i show it?
dk
yea, been stuck for like 2 days lol
i mean it looks impossible to calculate the derivate and solving for f'(x) = 0 using only simple calculator, so i imagine there must be some theorem or something that can be used to explain why it dont have an inverse in that domain
,w inverse function theorems
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yea idk
np, this is university type question though am i in the wrong channel
what
im an idiot
rip
ok wait i have a small idea
$\cot 0.5\pi y = \frac yx \rightarrow \frac {\cos (0.5\pi y)}{\sin (0.5\pi y)} = \frac yx$
ren
impossible
there're gonna be 2-4 or smth values
with cos 0.5pi*y = y
that's an assumption we're gonna have to make
so that means y is constant
which means that x is constant
which means inverse doesn't exist
HOWEVER this assumes that cos 0.5pi*y = y
idk that logic, x can be whatever number between (-1,1) and limx->1 = infinite
ok ykw
idk
IF you figure out that cos (0.5pi*y) has to equal y for the inverse
then there is no antiderivative, basically
(by my logic)
idk man
damn, thanks for your help though
@lilac trail Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
it's legit PINNED
its pinned yea
correct yea
its (pi*x)/2 not pi/2x
hmmm
but looking at the function x*tan(blah blah) it doesnt have an inverse in that domain or am i tripping?
yea but at point 0 it goes from decreasing to increasing
to disprove that it has an inverse just plug in -1 and 1
and f(-1) = f(1)
or going the derivative way
the function cant "turn around"
yea, but the function isnt defined at -1 or 1
then look at the left, right hand limit
or literally plug in any point from (-1,1)
you get that its equal
1 sec
f(-x) = -x * tan(pi/2 * -x) = -1 * (-1) x * tan(pi/2 * x) = f(x)
its symmetrical around x = 0
hmm alright thanks, i guess i can use that
or
2nd derivative has to be 0
but why would you even bother if you can disprove it with a counterexample
yea, but there are other functions to prove also, and just for example checking each number in the domain doesnt really work, so it feels like cheating kinda just doing f(-1) = f(1)
nah just show that its symmetrical around x = 0
meaning 2 inputs share the same output
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Hello, how to show that this is a distribution for all φ in D(R) ?
@surreal smelt Has your question been resolved?
I think I'd need context for what phi is, isn't a distribution just integral = 1 and always nonnegative
phi is a test function D(R)
I don't think distrubution is just integral = 1 !
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pretty sure it's because x_(n+1)/x_n goes to c
@silent bramble Has your question been resolved?
oh okok
how do you know there exists such M_0 > n_0
is it because there exists such n_0 for
and by the triangle inequality you can say there exists such m_0
i think so
ok
Im guessing here, they imply for all y in B
but if someone can confirm thatd be appreciated
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if we divide a by a number by 11 we will get 8 remaining if we divide b by 11 we get 3 remaining what will we get if we divide a+b by 11
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@rigid trench Has your question been resolved?
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Result:
7.3924855102639
,calc 12cos(-125)
Result:
9.4525741457308
are you working in radian or degres on your calculator?
you shouldn't be evaluating sin or cos of -125° for exponential form
you shouldn't really be touching sine or cos at all
how do i convert it to component form then
no
i'd recommend that you start by looking that up
either way
the question asks me to do this
through what we know
so there has to be a way
we havent gone over complex numbers
for (5e)
why is my answer wrong
oh sry,, misread the question
misread component as exponent
what answer were you getting
oh 😭
i got -6.88i and -9.83J
this gave me different answers
but
heres the thing
neither of these are correct
i do have an answer sheet
if you'd like to see
what does the answer sheet say
my rounding up was definitely not wrong when doing 12cos(-125)
and the J value is just so off
i dont know what i even did wrong
were there any issues with a,b,c,d?
seems like an error in the book then
even if it is, i changed modes to check and i didn't get anything like the answer
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Can someone please help me
do you know derivative and its concept ?
No, I don’t think so
it is that
Ok
Should I just search up the derivative and its concept on YouTube and watch a tutorial?
idk because it needs some basics.
Like?
Ok
like limit
I think I’ve covered everything except for functions
Do you know what the best way to revise for GCSE is?
i dont take these exams because our education system is different so no sorry.
the best way is to just keep doing practice exams
it might be boring but thats the best way to understand what the questions want from you
I’ll keep doing that
The thing is that because we’re doing advanced maths
We have a normal GCSE (edexcel)
And an advanced maths qualification (AQA)
So I have 2 different exam boards to study for
yeah i did the same, realistically the edexel one is the one you should properly focus on and hte AQA one is a nice bonus, but it is worth revising for both. but you still have loads of time before gcses start anyway
We’ve got our mocks in May
For both
And if I get under 90% on any of them, my dad isn’t gonna be happy
And if I do bad on the AQA one especially, I’ll get moved down to normal maths
i find just doing past papers the best form of revision, you still have a long time to revise for it to get your 90%, there is a lot of resources on youtube as well that will walk you through exam prep and how to answer questions the best way
also, do you have a preferred video on how to answer exam questions the best way?
i dont know any good gcse videos right now, it has been about 5 years since i revised for my maths gcse. there was a channel called the GCSE tutor that i found quite good but i dont know if they are still doing good videos now
no worries, good luck for your mocks
ty
hey, just to hop into this rq, im revising for FSMQ Level 3 Additional maths rn, along with the normal maths gcse. I've found one of the more effective methods is past papers. focus on questions about topics that you aren't very strong on. for a 90%, make sure that you can do most questions in a reasonable time frame, preferably quicker than the time allocated, so that you have more time for those questions you'll inevitably find harder
just as an example, if you have a 90 minute long paper, and its worth 90 marks, aim to get around 60-70 of those marks within 45-50 minutes, so that you'll have a little more time on the harder ones
well for the edexcel one, theres a tool on the pearson edexcel website to find past papers
Our easy-to-use past paper search gives you instant access to a large library of past exam papers and mark schemes.
Thanks a lot
and is the aqa one advanced maths or further maths
I wasn’t able to find many for the AQA one tho
Further maths iirc
Let me check again
It’s AQA level 2 further mathematics
its alright lol
Thanks a lot!
dont worry about it :))
🙏
good luck for the mocks
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\textbf{Question:} Two spheres, each of radius $R$ and carrying uniform volume charge densities, $+\rho$ and $-\rho$ respectively, are placed so that they partially overlap. Call the vector from the positive centre to the negative centre $\vj d$. Show that the field in the region of overlap is constant.
\vs{5 mm}
\textbf{My attempt}: I basically reduced the problem from a physics problem to a vector problem; the electric field for each ball independently is: \[
\vj E_1 =\4{\rho R}{3\eps_0} \vc*r \qq \vj E_2 =-\4{\rho R}{3\eps_0} \vc*r
\]
my question now becomes how do I exactly deal with the intersection region vectorially?
@midnight haven Has your question been resolved?
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Why do we call it closed domain if they don't contain their boundary points
What's the reasoning behind it
Uhh in trigonometry
Like for example we are given sin domain which is [2π, -2π]
That's open domain
Why is it called open
What's the logic behind naming them
who calls that open
@shell brook Has your question been resolved?
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I hope you can explain it to me in detail, because my English is not good
@meager imp Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
@meager imp Has your question been resolved?
@meager imp Has your question been resolved?
@meager imp Has your question been resolved?
@meager imp Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
here
but I find it not feasible, I want another more concise way
@meager imp Has your question been resolved?
That is the scariest thing I have ever seen
Throwing my hat in the ring: Change of coordinates $x \mapsto u := x/R, y \mapsot v := y/R$, then we integrate over the domain $u^2 + v^2 = 1$ and get a new integral $$ R^2 \cdot \int \int_{u^2 + v^2 \leq 1} \frac{1 + 2 v^2/R^2}{1 + (...)/R^4} - \frac{1 + v^2/R^2}{2 + (...)/R^4} du dv$. Note that the factor $R^2$ in the beginning comes from the change of variables
Lartomato
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The integrand itself (without the R^2 in front) converges to 1/2 (first fraction to 1, second fraction to 1/2) as R goes to infinity, and I am pretty certain that it does so uniformly. I think for fractions of polynomial functions, this isn't terribly hard to try and check
Because of the uniform convergence, the integral itself converges to $\int \int_{u^2 + v^2 \leq 1} \frac{1}{2} du dv = \frac{\pi}{2}$, we're just integrating over a circle. But then, clearly, $R^2 \cdot \int\int(...)$ must diverge
Lartomato
(uniform convergence implies we can exchange integral and limit)
@meager imp what say you
FUCK I got the change of variables wrong
that's what it should be
$ R^2 \cdot \int \int_{u^2 + v^2 \leq 1} \frac{1 + 2 R^2 v^2 }{1 + R^4 (...)} - \frac{1 + R^2 v^2}{2 + R^4(...)} du dv$
thanks for nothing bot
what demon has asked you to solve this integral
@meager imp Has your question been resolved?
@meager imp Has your question been resolved?
@meager imp thought: heuristically, you could rewrite the integral into an integral over the unit disk like in this screenshot
then, if you rewrite it in polar coordinates, you can write it as an infinite sum over annuli, first one from r = 1/2 to r = 1, next one from r = 1/4 to r = 1/2, next one from r = 1/8 to r = 1/4 etc etc
so $\int_{0}^1 (...) dr = \sum_{k = 0}^\infty \int_{1/2^{k+1}}^{1/2^k} (...) dr$
Lartomato
heuristically (???) maybe you can pull the limit $R \to \infty$ into the infinite sum (that one you'd have to think about) and into the integrals (that should be fine, since we are in each individual integral not close to any singularities, the convergence under the integral should be unfirom)
Lartomato
so then you can carry out the limit $\lim_{R \to \infty} R^2 \cdot \frac{1 + 2 R^2 v^2 }{1 + R^4 (u^4 + 6u^2v^2 + v^4)} - \frac{1 + R^2 v^2}{2 + R^4(u^4 +v^4)} = \frac{2v^2}{u^4 + 6u^2v^2 + v^4} - \frac{v^2}{u^4+v^4}$
Lartomato
any by god, that doesn't look so bad anymore in polar coordinates: https://www.wolframalpha.com/input?i=simplify+v^2(u^4+%2B+v^4+-+6u^2v^2)%2F(u^4%2B6u^2v^2%2Bv^4)%2F(u^4%2Bv^4)+with+u+%3D+(r+cos+phi)+and+v+%3D+(r+sin+phi)
and by god, the integral over phi is zero: https://www.wolframalpha.com/input?i=integral+-(16+cos(4+ϕ)+sin^2(ϕ))%2F((-17+%2B+cos(8+ϕ)))+dphi+from+0+to+2+pi
so my guess: the integral will converge to zero
you can close this channel if your question has been resolved
i don't think this question has ever been resolved though
i'm also guessing my solution won't work b/c there is no reason for the limit and the infinite sum to be interchangable unfortunately
dominated convergence will likely fail b/c the function is approaching a singularity for R to zero
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did you do it or did you give up 😦
seeing the amount of messages here I'd give up too 😭
@meager imp there might be an approach that revolves around the residue theorem; however, for multivariate functions of complex variables it's a little more complicated, and not something I'm completely familiar with
@meager imp i have now bruteforced both integrals so much
and i am getting increasingly sure that the answer is 0
what i have done is: rewrite in polar coordinates, x = r cos(theta), y = r sin(theta), substitute u := sin theta; this then gives """relatively""" tame integrands which wolframalpha can indefinitely integrate to horrible artanh expressions which simplify relatively well on the bounds u = 0 and u = 1
ah fuck but then i still haven't done the integral over r
omg
suffering never ends
yeah, actually, at first I thought the answer was 0, I just had trouble proving it
No, I didn't give up, I just saw someone reminding me to close the channel when I finished solving the problem so I thought this was necessary. 😦
But somehow miraculously, this channel is still here and we are still struggling with the problem
It's true that suffering never ends

but honestly i think this strategy works
i wasn't very careful but the polar coordiantes -> u = sin(theta) substituion -> integrate for u -> integrate for r will proably give you a result
@meager imp can i ask if there is any context at all for this problem?
if this was for a class where you're currenlty learning about green's theorem for example, that would be hopeful
From the beginning we approached the problem using polar coordinates and some people have also said this is the right direction
oh okay
This is not a problem that must be solved, in fact we are only 11th graders, this problem was given to us by a 12th grader.
💀
they will be hunted down
Usually we will encounter calculus problems that are less complicated than this, the transformation process of this problem is quite complicated for me.
😆
Yesterday you told me I could approach it through the residue theorem, but actually it's quite complicated for me to deal with multivariable functions.
But something keeps this channel from disappearing
Will it be here forever?
Yes, the residue theorem for multivariate functions is an area of active research and deals with high level constructions
I didn't know you were a high schooler
we are making horrible progress
the last steps of either equation chain is bruteforcing with wolframalpha
i fear for our purity
:))) really can't imagine a scenario without wolframalpha
hm
i mean, i guess, could make sense, this whole thing goes like 1/r which notoriously does not converge
yeah this is the 1D-integral that this whole chain ended up with
i'm just curious whether one could have foreseen this from the integrand itself
suspicious
hmmmm
The previous oldest thread: “why is sqrt(a+b) not sqrt(a)+b”
Oldest thread now:
haha XD
Owo whats this
lastly, subtracting the polar coordinate expressions and just checking the highest-degree terms, we get
$ r \cdot \frac{1 + 2r^2 u^2}{1 + r^4(1 + 4(u^2(1-u^2)))} - r \cdot \frac{1 + r^2 u^2}{2 + r^4(u^4 + (1-u^2)^2)} = \frac{3 r^7 u^6 + p(r,u)}{r^8 (1 + 4 (u^2(1-u^2)))(u^4 + (1-u^2)^2) + q(r,u)}$
where $p,q$ are polynomials in $u$ and $r$ and of degree $< 7$ and $<8$ in the variable $r$ respectively. So the large scale behaviour of the polynomial is like $1/r$, whose integral diverges for $r \to \infty$
Lartomato
I guess that's the general rule here, never should've assumed this converges to anything nice -- would've saved me some calculations
@meager imp the answer is confidently $\lim_{R \to \infty} f(R) = + \infty$, by the above reasoning and since we see that the coefficients of the highest degree terms in denominator and enumerator have positive coefficients
Lartomato
and if you want to make the large scale behaviour argument more precise, factor out $r^7$ in the enumerator and find that, because the degree of $p$ in $r$ is less than 7, the function $r \mapsto p(r,u)/r^7$ is bounded away from zero (so bounded on $[c,\infty)$ for any $c > 0$). Same argument for $q$. So as $r$ becomes large, we have that the expression is larger than $\frac{r^7 \cdot const}{r^8 const} = \frac{1}{r} const$ for some constants that only depend on $u$.
Lartomato
hence, for large enough r, the integral can be estimated from below with the integral over some constant times 1/r, and that's divergent
i'm done with this exercise now omg
I really admire your efforts
even though this problem isn't yours, you're awesome

From the beginning, I tried to approach it using polar coordinates
The appearance of the arctanh function made me pretty sure it was going to 0
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Will this be our end?

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1+tan^2Angle/1+cot^2angle
Help me solve this problem using identities pleasee
I dont get it
use tan = sin/cos and cot = cos/sin, and write 1 as a fraction
Huhhh, i don't get it😭
there is no left side or right side
also do you mean the "angle" is theta?
well I guess they're trying to get a simpler expression
Yess
pretty they said it here
much*
Do i just have to substitute or stufff
when you've got trigonometric expressions like that, you'd always want to express everything in terms of sines and cosines
Can you give an example please
so you go "What's tan(angle) ? -> It's sin(angle)/cos(angle) ! "
then " what's cotan(angle) ?"
you rewrite the expression step by step with what you just found
I have to rewrite this?
yeah, I mean I guess that's what you want
so you start a chain of equations
step by step rewriting the same thing in different terms
then things will cancel out, and you'll get a simpler expression
I still dont get it😭
Wait imma do youtube tutorial stuff
I dont even understand youtube
you know that tan = sin/cos right ?
Yes
It's basically Soh cah toa
Wait
Nvm
Oh i just know it
Now what is next step
well tan = sin/cos so you can rewrite the tan²(angle) as something else now
What is the angle hereee? 2?
Ohhh i get ittt
So basically i can just cancell it
well the angle is just "angle" or "theta" if you like, its value is not important
Do i cancell?
for any angle, it can be 2° or 145° we don't know, but for any angle tan(angle) = sin(angle)/cos(angle)
so you just continue the calculations with that "angle" remaining there
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For this
I don’t really understand how it relates to AB=/ BA
ab is not equal to ba so we can not cancel those out , if thats what u are asking about
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Hello, I need help with this certain problem my teacher gave us. I was able to solve for the derivative of the following but i dont know how to proceed further with the conclusion that symbolab gave me
implicit differentiation involving transcendental functions
btw if u are differentiating with respect to x
then derivative of cos y would be -sin(y)* (dy/dx)
ah yeah mybad forgot to put
u should now try get all the dy/dx terms to 1 side
wait
changed acc?
i had not clarified whether
nope
i had not clarified whether its
lnx(y) or ln(xy)
ylnx
i think its lnx(y) cuz they wrote the derivative like that
burhhhhhh
most of my classmates r writing ylnx
i thought it was ln xy
As a helper, please do not give out answers that could be copied as a homework solution. Have the student work through the problem themselves and guide them along the way.
my bad
always write the multiplying factor behind the function
not after it
in this case the factor is a variable y
that has to be ln(xy)
okok wait ill try to
if the y was not in the brackets they wouldve totally writen it as yln(x)
thank you for bearing with me
❤️
ln(xy) = lnx + lny = 1/x + 1/y(dy/dx) it would be impossible to get this in ur answer
btw
i solved the question and sorry but u wrote it wrong
the way u wrote it first was correct
its ok
im getting ur answer
i genuinely need help understanding it haha
its y lnx = sinx/cosy
this was correct
the book should have used brackets but they didng
cuz with that u dont get the answer u posted
with y lnx i am getting the answer u posted
i solved it both ways
its not my answer and
symbolab might have interpreted it as
ylnx
oh u used a online calculator
ye
well if ur teachers says its ln(xy) then its gotta be that
it only gives the ans but not the soln
now try to seperate the y'
i moved y'sinxsiny from the right
im very sorry and thank you so much 🙏
$$\frac{1}{x} + \frac{y'}{y} = \frac{cosy\cdot cosx + sinx \cdot siny (y')}{cos^2y}$$
multiplying both sides with $cos^2y$
JustToPro
no worries
oh ok so no denominator
so u get this
$$cos^2y(\frac{1}{x} + \frac{y'}{y}) = cosy\cdot cosx + sinx \cdot siny (y')$$
JustToPro
yeah no denominator , it becomes hard kinda
ok wait ill try
and go on from there
and try to go on from there*
so i multiply cos^2y to both fractions
yes
and then u can get the sinx siny y' thing to the left side
$$cos^2y\frac{1}{x} + cos^2y\frac{y'}{y} - sinx \cdot siny (y') = cosy\cdot cosx $$
JustToPro
now u can take y' common / factor out y'
i moved the first part to the right side tho
the one with no y prime
its good
okok wait
i was going to do that next step
u can just divide the entire left side parenthesis on right side
ahye
and then with a bit of simplification , combine them into 1 fraction and u got ur answer
just know that $\frac{\frac{1}{x}}{y}
= \frac{1}{xy}$
JustToPro
ohh
ok wai
t
ok so
from the bottom
y
the denominator of the bottom cos2y
i can put that on the numerator
yes
as (cosycosx cos2)y
but im not too sure as to how i can do the same for the x denominator
(cosycosx - cos2)y
u can do the same
n bring it down?
wait wait i abit wrong sorry my bad
u need to make sure the fraction have common denominator
like the numerator fraction is 1 single fraction before u can do that
(it would be to hard to type this out in the image thing i did before )
now u can bring down x and take y up
what i said u didnt do D:
i told to make the denominators common before doing this
wait :'))
just an example but ye
here
how to
disable
when done
type '.close'
.close
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thank you
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hello
why is this incorrect? I just used the y=mx+b formula
oh
am i supposed to look for the line tangent to the derivative? or... how do i go about this
what i just said makes no sense
whats a translation?
use point slope
yes
like, the tangent line probably doesnt go through the origin
but youve written a line of form y = mx
got it got it
jan Niku
wait
so i need a different y intercept?
and a new slope
you dont control the y intercept
no
we can write it more explicitly
you know the derivative gives you the slope of the tangent line at some point
yes
so, we can replace that for m here
$(y-y_1) = \qty( \frac{14-x_1}{y_1} ) (x-x_1)$
jan Niku
does -(322 sqare root 51)/255 look right for the y intercept?
I can't really say, I'd suggest plotting it
ill do that
i would sanity check on something more readily intuitive too
like, the slope you can maybe eyeball, at least as far as the sign and whether its bigger than or less than 1 or 2
and what happens at x=x1
im goin around ping if u reply 
i can tell that it should be negative and less than 1
oh i see my mistake
4.2 is my x value
if its helpful
this is a little more functionalized
man what am i doing wrong
that helps
but im sort of confused with that notation
the most i learned was y=mx+b
this is just one way to write a line
usually, its best to use the form of the line that corresponds most closely with the information you have
y=mx+b is slope intercept
but with a tangent line, point-slope is much more convenient
(a, b) is some point you want the line to go through
so x is a?
so given that the line has slope $m$ and goes through $(a, b)$, you can write the line as $$(y-b) = m(x-a)$$
jan Niku
you have to be a little careful here
x is a variable, its value can be anything in the domain
but a is some fixed value, its the x coordinate of the tangent point
like, when you write this equation of the line, you assume that a and b are given, and are fixed. Then, we let x and y vary together.
so a would be 4.2, and x can vary?
a would be 21/5
oh, yea, 4.2
and x can be anything
well, i guess, we dont pick an x here, that x can be anything is what gives us a line
🤯
were getting a little into the weeds with parameterization
i worry its making this process seem more complicated than it is
sorry
my brain feels a little twisted but im learning 👍
you mean we can ignore x here right?
its just like
when you have an equation of a line
you know its gonna have an x, and a y
and then some numbers
right right
so you dont want to plug in a number for x or y, because you want them in the final equation
but the rest, the a, the b, that all becomes numbers
so we assume you plug stuff in there
thats all im really saying
yea, it is
heres a version without the b
if its less confusing
either way the name is a placeholder, remember, it ultimately gets replaced by a number
so we can call it more or less whatever we want
got it
sorry im still very lost
how do i find the slope of this tangent line
when there the slope itself contains an x variable
you gotta ping reply lol
this equation you have for the slope
as an input, it takes in a point on the circle
and it spits out just a number
the number is the slope of the tangent line at the point on the circle
so you just use the formula $m(x,y) = \frac{14-x}{y}$
jan Niku
where x,y is some point on the circle
youre maybe overthinking this
There are less moving pieces than it seems like at first
but im not certain exactly where you are worried
If youre concerned about the variable issue, I could suggest going back and reviewing finding the equation of a line using given information
with the entire calculus context removed, just algebra
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how do i solve a problem like
1.2 ^ x = 2
mm a little bit but i am not sure how to use them properly
Ok well logs basically tell you what power you have to raise "a" to, to get "b", so log to the base a, of b, would give you the power of a that makes b
So in your case, x = log base 1.2 of 2
ohh
And you'd basically just put that in your calculator
,calc log_1.2(2)
The following error occured while calculating:
Error: Undefined symbol log_1
oo
Result:
0.36464311358791
,calc 1.2^0.36464
Result:
1.0687414406298
The following error occured while calculating:
Error: Undefined symbol log1
The following error occured while calculating:
Error: Unexpected type of argument in function pow (expected: number or Complex or BigNumber or Fraction or Unit or Array or Matrix or string or boolean, actual: function, index: 0)
,w log(6/5, 2)
Thank you 🙏
Result:
3.8017840169239
Yeah so if you write log without a base next to it, so for example log(100), this normally means log base 10
And you may also see ln, this is called the natural logarithm
And it is log to the base e
,calc log(100)
Result:
4.6051701859881
ohh i thought log was assumed to be base10
It is yeah
I don't know what this is
In programs like wolfram log means ln
Right but e^4 isn't 100 either?
it is
Result:
100
ty for teaching me how to use logs... this was like the only basic algebra rule i was missing
i learned how to take the derivative and integral of logarithm before learning how to use logs now 😭
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can someone help me with this
f(x)= e^1-x
what are you struggling with on this question? @sand torrent
idk how to find the area
Integrate the function for the given interval
wouldn't that be
e^1 - e^-1
yes that's correct
Yes
so the answer is
e- 1/e
Should be correct
Yes -e^(1)+e^(-1)
you do 2 first
yeah i forgot to integrate it, but i still managed to get the correct answer
integral of f(x) from a to b is F(b)-F(a)
Yes
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I don't understand how to do this using multivariable calculus
i know we have to treat S as a constant
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5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
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Hey doing test corrections, wondering if anyone can help me out its simple algebra 2
8% is crazy 😭
hey man dont judge me bro
it doesn't look like you really tried to solve any of them...
i cant even becuase i dont even know the formula
Do you understand the concept of fractional exponents?
yes
my teacher teaches one thing
tho
its like different from online
so every hard
Well it really isn’t
It seems to me that your teacher is attempting u-substitution in a very weird way
for number 5 i got pl;us minus 36x^4(y-5)^3
First let’s focus on the top half then we will work on the bottom half
ok
first i got 256^-1/4
-64?
because 1/4 of 254 is 64, and cant forget about the negative
For fractional exponents, the denominator is the power of which the radical is (like square root or cube root) while the numerator power the number that is being radicalized is held to
so is it -64?
No


