#help-38
1 messages · Page 194 of 1
You could prime factorize 3024 to see if there are any simple values for x
Or use the rational root theorem to find roots of the cubic
Sorry I don't understand what you mean by this
i believe there is some sort of formula for this
just can’t remember it
I didnt understand the question at first but now I think I do
I'd start by looking at each component of each term
i got 3024=2^4x3^3x7
For example, a seems to be increasing by one when n increases
it would be really easy if the 4-6 was a 4-5 but
im not too sure now
So you can try to find combinations of 3 numbers that fit the form x,x-2, and x+4
I just checked and yes there is a valid solution
wouldnt that take a long time
Yes it would
Idk i just guessed
Idk since the 3 numbers have to be sorta close it limits the combinations
Are you sure the second term isnt 3(6-5)
is x=14?
Thats what I got
yeah i asked my teacher and he said its the original question
i just tried x=16 and it was too big so i went down by one each time lol
Wdym
So is it 3(6-5)?
Or 2(4-5)?
the question i said is the original
Huh
Well another thing is that b increases by 2 each time
c not so sure
You are only talking about arithmetic sequences right?
im pretty sure
i dont think 6,6,7,8 is part of an arithmetic sequenc
yeah it makes no sense imo
😭
would there be 2 different equations one for higher and one for lower values of a
idk man
2n+2
algs
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does this look tright
(a / b)^n ✅
(a / b)^(-n) ❌
Neither ❌
youre missing some that belong
so swap one of them?>
Not swap. You dont need to remove anything from the (a / b)^n or Neither columns
this one?
it says its not correct
Shoot, the neither column has one that doesn’t belong
Show all three so i can verify properly
For which one
Yes, $b^n a^{-n} = b^n \cdot \frac 1{a^n}$
King Leo
Sry for late response, but you can combine b^ n / a^n, and then it conforms to one of the other columns
how would i dot aht
@lone basin
@shy valley Has your question been resolved?
@shy valley Has your question been resolved?
basically $b^n a^{-n} = \frac{b^n}{a^n}$
Ohm Shankar| 20240
and that can also be written as
Ohm Shankar| 20240
and then you can factor out the -1 power from both exponents so it becomes
Ohm Shankar| 20240
which conforms to column 2
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yo
how do you find the derivative of absolute value?
example
f(x) = x |x|
I used chain rule and got x / |x|
but it says its wrong
how exactly does the chain rule figure into this?
|x| = sqrt(x^2)
it is correct, just less common
we are definitely not
If you chain rule this you get 2x/2sqrt(x^2)=x/abs(x) so you are correct kinda
But the function is not abs(x)
It is abs(x)*x
Use product rule
Did I kill chat
👍
Gah
@wraith hinge does this clear things up for you?
yea ill just use the piecewise one since its easier
Fair
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$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} arctan(\frac{n}{sin(n)})$
alwaysonce
How do you prove that n/sin(n) is infinity
as n approaches inf
this is for a determine whether the series conv/div problem
sin(n) belongs to [-1, 1]
so n/1 is inf if n is inf
(taking best case of sin(n) is 1)
$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \atan(\frac{n}{\sin(n)})$
Bonk
but what if sin(n) is -1
-inf
wait so then doesthat mean the series diverges
because dpending on sin arctan will approach pi/2 or -pi/2
yes
this is not quite right though
because it will oscillate between these
tan(pi/2) is inf or -inf depending on where you approach from
Oh
how would i express my answer in my work
Like im not sure how to articulate all of this
Because n/sin(n) oscillates between -inf and inf, arctan oscillates between -pi/2 and pi/2 thus its divergent?
the fact that you want to use is that for an infinite sum $\sum^\infty a_n$ to converge you must have $\lim_{n \to \infty} a_n = 0$
if this isnt a fact you have seen yet then its a good one to prove !
Acman
so then here lim n-> inf is oscillating betwen -pi/2 and pi/2 != 0 thus its not convergent?
also to be clear just because lim n-> inf = 0 doesnt mean that a infinite sum is convergent right
yes, though you need to be careful with how you word it
yes consider $\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n}$
Acman
oh right harmonic
how would you word it ?
this problem is an application of if $a_n \nrightarrow 0$, then $\sum a_n$ diverges
south
now because arctan is a continuous function, you have $\lim_{n \to \infty} \arctan(n/\sin(n)) = \arctan (\lim_{n \to \infty} n/\sin(n))$
south
you can interchange the limit and arctan
yes
yeah and then $\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{n}{\sin(n)}$ doesn't exist
goes to both -infinity and infinity
so the limit of this can't possibly be 0
south
also yeah this was mentioned before, just restating it for your benefit
prove it👀
wait so in my work i can write that lim n->inf of n/sin(n) oscillates between -inf and inf thus it doesnt exist?
I know I'm repeating other people's work
yes
also arctan(infinity) -> pi/2 and arctan(-infinity) -> -pi/2
you don't need to write this down; just thought it would be nice to explain where the other helper was coming from
no worries!
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lin.fei ‧₊˚❀༉‧₊˚.
g=10 m/s^2 💀
you have 2 things happening here
the time it takes for the stone to hit the water
and the time it takes for the sound to go back up
the time it takes for the sound to go back up is simply t=d/v
with d the distance and v the speed of sound
but you got t=10s
thats correct
what about it?
the speed of sound does not change
you are acting like its an object that has an acceleration of 10m/s^2
however, its not
its speed is constant
so the take it takes to cover a distance is t=d/v
wdym?
the formula $v=u+at$ is taken from $\dv{a}{t}=v$
however, the a is 0 because the speed of sound is unaffected by gravity
thus v is just u
Bonk
what? no. Final velocity is not speed of sound
final velocity can be calculated with v = u+at
initial is 0, and t you calculated as 10 sec
use that and you find v = 100m/s downwards
thats not the question thats being asked
the stone is freefalling under the influence of gravity
we dont care about the speed of the stone when it hits the water
yea we dont
explain this then
No
Like, there is no point in calculating hte final velocity of the stone
unless it is asked for
!xy honestly. Can you tell what you are expected to calculate?
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
cmon bro
its two unrelated parts
time it takes to hit the water
time it takes for the sound to travel up
thats all
Yea, I know. I am asking coz she wants to find final velocity of the stone. I expected there would be something more that she wants to calculate it
So once you get the time to hit water, you can safely ignore everything about the stone
Yes. Coz there is no relation between velocity of sound and velocity of stone
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guys is tehre something wrong w my notes bc im not sure if i wrote down the right formulas (especially the one where i have to add by total area) i have no one to ask abt this im sorry 😭
why are you doing all your work on such a small paper?
its think its a cheatsheet
HAHAHA mbb i find it easy to memorize like that
nour its just my way of studyinggg
i put all formulas in one page
that is a cheatsheet
oh we're not allowed to bring one 😭
HELP NOOO
i SWEARR
but guys this is correct right
Can someone help me with algebra?
!help
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anyonee
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AB…HI regular 9-gon
AIJ=45
KIH=?
@thorn copper Has your question been resolved?
just help me show the circle is on the symmetry axis
all these angles are the same
from that you can find IAJ and IHJ
thus you can find IJA and so IJH
then you can find HIJ
with HIJ and AIJ you can find KIH
if AK is a straight line
@thorn copper Has your question been resolved?
i assumed AK was a straight line
then you have AIJ+JIH+HIK=180
yeah it isnt straight since the answer is 45
then im also kinda stumped
there must be a simple way to show this
or maybe i am blind and this requires complex analysis
nah i doubt it
there has to be smth simple we're overlooking
thats why i hate geometry problems
its always drawing that one line or extra angle that makes it simple
how do you know the answer?
I got KHI=60
yeah it is
geogebra
i mean i can solve it backwards but that means proof by contradiction
i dont wanna use the existence of backwards problem as a solution to this one
@thorn copper Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
?
this isnt your channel lol
but its still unsolved
don't ping for other people. you don't know if OP is here or not
doesnt matter, its not your channel, dont act in OPs behalf (unless asked)
i know helpers arent helpful on these kind of problems
so im waiting for a geo wizard to spawn
also this definetely isnt just that simple
we dont know yet house
house house?
house.
santa house house
if you can prove that KL = IL then KIH = 45
lol
$KL = HL\sqrt{3}$
General_Jacob
trust me this isnt that kind of question
!original
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yeah ik but im curious what the original is
the solution most definetely isnt
i was thinking inversion might be helpful
wherre did you get it from?
a friend sent me
i’ll go sleep please ping me if you find a solution before channel dies
so i can take a look
@thorn copper
i solved it
you can mirror it
and then find the angle
here you would be looking for the angle KAI
i assumed that MI and AK are perpendicular and i think i shouldn't have done that
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can someone help me understand or with my work
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
Can you define slope intercept form?
Okay.
Do you know the methods to isolate variables in an equation?
not really
Guys, I love math.
Okay. You have:
- Subtracting something on both sides
- Dividing
- Multiplying
- Adding
Basically, the 4 arithmetic operations, except you do it on constants/variables.
alright and if you subtract that you subtract it from itself and something similar on the other side of the equation right?
So you can remove that from it
If the english is englishing, yes.
hmm
so that means X is negative right so I’d guess you have to make X a positive value
Well, if you want, but there's a faster way.
What can we do to make that -x a 0 on the left hand side?
Okay. Do you know how to solve one-step equations?
I think so
is it 1?
Should be a variable in terms of x.
uhh
I feel like I know it but I’m not sure
because we were told there always an invisible coefficient infront of a variable that should be one
Yes.
Yes.
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Hello
u just opened a channel?
.close
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help
i wanna
use remainder/factor thereom
to show that P(2) = 0
how to i do this with all the m
long division
i dont wanna tho
then find (z-2)(az^2+bz+c) find a,b,c
that also takes long but ig that works
i mean, long divison is easier
and faster
and simpler
but if you dont wanna do it
there arent many alternatives lol
you can get m as a coefficient
try doing long division and show me where you get stuck
not for part 2 though
how does this show that 2 is a factor tho
so youre gonna have to factor it out either way
right thats true
you can write a polynomial as the product of its roots
P(x)=k(x-x1)(x-x2)...(x-xn)
with n roots
yeah
@red mountain im asking tho how could trying to find m through factor theoreom show that 2 is a root
for any m
factor out (z-2)
!noping
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nope
ok sry
oh okay
yeah i understand
so, you gonna do long division or keep stalling?
sry its just i dont like long division but if i must :(
ive been stalling this question for 4 hours its time
its a useful technique, i recommend you learn it
the divisor is (z-2)
yes
@azure dagger Has your question been resolved?
@red mountain so im doing long division
and
how do i subtract with the variablkes
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Learning abstract algebra kelly tables, why is the axiom of closure satisfied when every element only appears once in a column or table?
like in this case, what would be wrong if Q was there multiple times in row 1
Spasificly how does it corralate with closure?
@real herald Has your question been resolved?
that's to do with different properties (specifically cancellability)
if closure was an issue it would be because an element not in the group showed up on the table
besides that if you assume all elements to be distinct you would quickly derive a contradiction
@ionic pendant ok so its not related to closure?
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If you look at 6:55
thats kinda where im lost as to what the explanation is trying to say
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✅
I think what he's trying to say is that because of this latin square property (each element appears exactly once per row/column) it implies closure (the converse is not necessarily the case)
@limpid dawn so if each element appears exactly once per row/column it implies closure?
why is that the case?
how is closure defined
You cant get an element outside of the set if you complete an opperation with two elements within the set, ie and opperation on (S,.) with a,b being in s, a.b must also be in s
yes the first part sums it up
for every a,b in some set say S with some operation o you want that a o b is also in S
and well each element after the operation is still an element in that set
im still lost, are all elemets still in the set regardless? how does this related to having it once each row / column
because the latin square property is necessary but not sufficient for a table to form a group basically
you are staring at the multiplication table
do you see any element outside of the set in the table?
@real herald Has your question been resolved?
nope
but again, what does that have to do with rows and columns, i dont get the corralation for closure
ok
what does it imply? just closure?
it doesn't
latin square property is too strong for closure
it implies closure but closure is a far weaker assumption
ok thats what im curious about, why does it imply closure"?
well what does the latin square property say about all rows
They only have one of each element
oh
you can also tell by just seeing there are no outside elements tho right
idk why he explained it as such lmaio
well yes
that's why i said this
cool
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Increase obviously
10 full periods
nice
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[
T(N) = \sum_{0\le i< N}\sum_{0\le j < i^2} 1 \q (j,\operatorname{mod} , i = 0)
]
Aero
Could someone explain to me how to go about computing this sum
this is what i came up with
the inner loop procs when j=0, then when j=i, then when j=2i, all the way up to j=i(i-1)
a total of i times
but also do you not want to start i at 1 not 0?
otherwise the time complexity will be O(1) because the code will exit with a division by 0 error.
So it just reduces to [
T(N) = \sum_{i =1}^{N-1} i
]
Well I am starting from $i = 1$ to fix the error you mentioned
Aero
So, O(N^2) pretty much
yep
Alright so i have a side question now
just found this result earlier and i was curious if you are able to prove this in general via induction
it seems like the sum of the first n bth powers is O(n^(b+1))
from just messing around with these problems
if you are summing first n natural numbers, thats gonna be O(n^2)
n^2 naturals, O(n^3)
and so on
is this actually something that holds in general however?
also wait going back to this, i think our assumption was incorrect wasnt it
you still need to compute the modulo operation every iteration
that's correct
even when b isn't an integer
oh yes that's true. the if check is not free
well then i guess it's O(sum[1,N] i^2)
which is O(N^3) technically
Hence, [
T(N) = \sum_{0\le i< N}\sum_{0\le j < i^2} 1 \in \OO(N^3)
]
Aero
woah well that if statement was a devious little distraction lol
very interesting
anyways, thanks for you time. Have a great day!
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what does this mean
FR is typing..
Js insert the x into the function val
ok so for a i) y=2
whats the function val
what?
f(2) the function val is 2
idk i made that up i meant the value inside the function
what does the function val do
Idk if its an actual term
1
Yessir
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No problem
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i need to study the convergence of sequence an+1=1-(1/4an) where a1=1 for n>=1s
You can try to see if it's bounded by considering the limit, and also write down a few terms to see how it behaves monotonically
$a_{n+1} = 1-\frac{1}{4} a_n$?
ann.in.a.teacup
$a_{n+1} = 1-\frac{1}{4a_n}$
ann.in.a.teacup
like this?
yes
the fractions are always decreasing in their ending value but converging to 1/2
yes i replaced an+1 and an with L and solved the quadratic equacion
i found out L=1/2 is that all i need to do?
yeah
what if when i am solving a problem like this i find out that L can have 2 different values
probably choose the one that makes the most sense
both are algebraically right and hold some form of importance, but usually one is the obvious answer
are you sure you know know what you are talking about?😭
i think so, anyways
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on an example (while not directly the same, the method is quite similar) $\sqrt{12+\sqrt{12+\sqrt{12+\sqrt{12+...}}}} = -3, 4$
because $x=\sqrt{12+x} \Rightarrow x^2-x-12 = 0$ has those two solutions
4 seems logical, -3 is related to how you operate with roots in complex realm
zzz0nnn
yeah i know this type of problems
well, happy to help ig
lol
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I don't really understand the last part of this question:
yeaa idk what the last part means
does your textbook ever define this notation
cause i highkey have no clue what they mean by it either, despite knowing my way around complex number stuff
ohh yea it doesn't defin the C ever
like i was thinking it had something to do with the first part, like seketching S and T but idk what the link is
wait i found something
This is the solution they gave but im so confusedd
Like do i just substitute the Cartesian equation of T into the one for S, which also happens to be the same as R?
ohh i think they want me to find T = S, but its worded really badly
like the set of points that satisfy both S and T, but idk why they said C
thankk you for helpingg
i think ill close it, its probably just a bad question
.close
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rq the domain for this should be {X E R | X cant be equal to 2 } right
if you cannot type ∈ the best substitute is in not E
how did u type that
i have an AutoHotkey script set up to produce some math symbols with shortcuts
but that doesnt matter for my point
and likewise for ≠ you should write it as != if you can't do the symbol
also lowercase x not uppercase X
but yes {x in R | x != 2} is correct.
and for range its { y ∈ R | y != -1 }
yes
where should i start for this
do i need to use the U sign
i forgot whats it called
union
for range i was thinking of maybe { x ∈ R | ( - inf , -1] U (0, inf) }
or just R = ( - inf , -1] U (0, inf)
uh wait
okay
do you want it in set builder notation or in interval notation
uhhh
you can't really mix the two like that
ok my teacher wants it in the form of either
either one is good?
in that case (-∞, -1] ∪ (0, +∞) is just fine
{ x ∈ r ( x , x ) }
but if you wanted to write it in setbuilder: {y ∈ R | y ≤ -1 or y > 0}
smth like these he said is both fine
do we use or
like the word "or"? yes
the U means union, the flipped U means intersection. those two are pretty fucking different.
but neither one would go inside set builder notation usually
oh
wait for this u can write it as this right using the union
oh ye u said
mb
rq how did u get the 2nd part
oh does the "or" mean its split up
the or means it's a union of two intervals
ic
one described by y ≤ -1 (that's your (-∞, -1] ) and the other by y > 0 (that's your (0, +∞) )
for domain is it then
hmm
wait how would u do it
hmm
(- inf , -2) U (-2,2) U ( 2, inf)
how do u write with < >
Hm?
like what they did here
Oh.
Well, there’s an upside down arrow symbol for stuff like that, symbolic wise
why do we need to add the x
Forgot how to render it using LaTeX
upside down?
hmm i dont think ive learnt that yet
so that it becomes a condition placed on x, rather than the true but pointless statement "the number -2 is below the number 2"
Kinda like 
???
bruh you are just confusing op
ohh
im gonna respectfully ask you to
and, not or
oh
it is good practice to write the "in R" bit
but it's not that big of a deal if you forget it here, since it can be inferred from context
if i do it everytime i wouldnt loose marks would i
no, you wouldn't.
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For the question in the left corner why does the answer key say we are subtracting and not adding even though we are going towards the left
@wooden hamlet Has your question been resolved?
substraction is the same as adding
@wooden hamlet Has your question been resolved?
I thought when you go to the left on the graph you add and to the right you subtract
as substracting or adding they're equivalent
as for your question that depends on whether u're adding a negative thing or adding a positive thing
Bro what
@wooden hamlet subtracting from the input of a function moves the function to the right
do you even study algebra ? xD
substracting a positive number be specific
This is the reason you think I haven’t studied algebra?
u said what as if you're pointing out that i said something wrong?
well u're preuni so u obviously haven't studied it
Because you’re implying a - b = a + b
yeah u didn't study algebra yet so its okay
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guys when the limit of $n \to +\infty$ goes to $+\infty$ or $-\infty$ is divergent, if it goes to $L \in \mathbb{R}$ is convergent, escpecially if L = 0 is infinitesimal
nico.alesi
but what if the limit doesn't exist? is it just indeterminate or is there a name?
so I should classify it as divergent
thank you
yeah that makes sense
thank you once again
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<@&268886789983436800> spam
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need some help for multivariable calculus. I need to check if a function is continuous.
!da2a
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yesi can read it
and you want to fibure out if its continuous
for that you need to take the limit
yes
I did, I just want to make sure that it is correct. I figure out that the limit (of the cos stuff) is 0. Since cos is multiplied by x (approaching 0)
meaning that the function is continous.
can you show that is actually true?
Proof, aw didnt think of it.I mean it is intuitive.
No, no we didnt cover that.
hint: take y=0
There's a simple way of provin that using theorem of the gendarmes.
squeeze theorem?
yes.
squeeze theorem is a 1D theorem
it applies to functions from R to R
we have a function from R^2 to R here
ah, sure.
Can you explain?
im sure you can make a 2d version of the squeeze theorem but i dont think you have that here
if you let y = 0
what does the top piecewise part become
it'll be 1 everywhere except for x = 0
the limits for every single paths to (0,0) needs to be equal
Not ***
that's why i say it's not quite intuitive in this sense
thus if you can show two paths that give different limits, its not continuous
i just showed you it's not continuous
it's 1 everywhere except at x = 0 it is 0
Got it. Understandable.
the paths need not even be straight
typo
that's where the polar coordinates come in when you get to it
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We have a U Magnet with a scale. Given the system, the switch is turned on(current starts to flow), the reading of the scale increases. Find the direction of the magnetic field(X-> Y or Y -> X)
@velvet parrot Has your question been resolved?
@velvet parrot Has your question been resolved?
use the right hand rule to see if the beam and magnet attract or repel. current goes out of the + end and field goes from north to south on the magnet
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Help
where did the bounds 0 to 3pi come from? did my prof make a mistake or smth
yeah he did nvm. I'll change the bounds for t to 3pi lol
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I forgot how to do these, Ik ln(e) = 1
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Guys how do I approach the 2.5.9 stuff?
so what we want to do in the end is create explicitly that subsequence
it's a good idea to understand how we're gonna create it first
First of all, is it clear that S is an interval?
It's clear that it's from minus infinity to the lowest number on the sequence, whatever that is.
And I think that this sup S will be the lim inf of the sequence
How so? isn't it less than a_n for infinitely many of em?
we never asserted that sup S is in S itself
in fact in many cases, sup S is not in S
if you want to think about easy examples, think about a_n = (-1)^n
sup S would be 0 in this case, no?
no
a_n oscillates indefinitely between -1 and 1
there's an infinite amount of each
so S is in that case all x < 1
oh right right, for some reason added a 1/n as a brain fart
sup(S) = 1 is not in S
but what we do find is that it's the lim sup
we're not gonna try to prove sup(S) is the lim sup here in general
we're only interested in showing it's a limit point
Ok I think I see what you mean, basically that the subsequence with the biggest limit will converge to s, which is sup S. that's how the gist of it is, right?
weellll kinda
we can try to show afterwards (after the initial proof is done) that sup(S) = limsup(a_n) if you want
but right now let's try and prove what's asserted in the exercise
one thing to start checking is to see if "sup S" does exist
how can we be sure?
by the completeness of the real numbers
so what do we need to apply axiom of completeness
Okay so It's like any nonempty set of real numbers that's bounded above has a supremum
Since the sequence is bounded then it def has real number values from start to finish
we never doubted that every a_n is real, even without boundedness hypothesis
but you can guess that boundedness comes a lot into play
to get that S verifies those
so maybe first, why is S non-empty?
I think boundedness def comes into play here, if it was unbounded negative S will be empty, no?
so yes lower bounded will come into play here
can you perhaps be more specific as to why (a_n) lower bounded -> S is not empty?
maybe come up with an explicit element of S?
what did you try @hybrid mauve
Let's say bounds of the sequence are (m,n) then S has elements from (-infinity, m) no?
Dunno mate I just saw this and feel like a headless chicken
yes any number below m will definitely be in S
so great we have that S is nonempty
why is S upper bounded?
To construct the subsequence, we exploit the fact that s=supS ensures that infinitely many terms of (a_n) are arbitrarily close to s.
Since every element above m will have an element in the sequence below it, right?
I'm assuming in that case you explicitly have m = inf(a_n)
but that's not enough
even if for x > m there will be some elements in the sequence below it
it doesn't prove/disprove that there could be infinitely many a_n above x
so no it's not about the lower bound of (a_n)
and if it's not about lower boundedness...
I'm hella lost, think I should slow down and solve more of the questions in the previous chapters.
oh xd
we're not even in the subsequence creation part yet
take your time to deepen your understanding of sets and set theory
Yeah it's just, don't think I really understand real numbers
it takes a huge part in everything around BW and real numbers
Yeah I'll get back to this one later, thanks though, really appreciate taking your time with me
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Prove that a 4-digit number is divisible by 3 if and only if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3.
i labelled the number as abcd and split it into 1000a + 100b + 10c + d but not sure where to go from there
well you have to pick a direction first
which direction of the proof do you want to do first
@shrewd summit
no idea
well it’s an iff statement
there’s the if part
and the only if part
you need to assume it’s divisible by 3 then show the sum of its digits are
then do the reverse
oh
assume the sum of its digits are divisible by 3 then deduce that the number is divisible by 3
you can do this direction first yes
do you need help?
or can you do it from here
uh idk where to go further w the algebra
well see if you can split up the 4 digit number into something + a + b + c + d
since the sum of the digits is divisible by 3 you then need to show that something is divisible by 3
which would complete that direction
yeh i did a + b + c + d = 3m
did you understand what i said here
idk where the something came from
you have to find what it is
1000a + 100b + 10c + d = (some shit) + a + b + c + d
find (some shit)
wait so
for this
i make an equation for each of the letters
what?
then sub into