#help-38
1 messages · Page 189 of 1
ohhh
i remember my teacher say something like that]
10 divided by 500
0.02
?
nah i get the same aswer for b
what are you doing for b now?
0.02 x 350
which is 17500
because 10 divided by 500 is 0.02
then to find y you do x by 350
so its 17500
for b
oh my god ma
are you multiplying or dividing?
oh yeah
7
multiplying
i did 350 x 0.02
it was supposed to be the other way
thats how i got 7
how did you get 7?
this is correct. 350 x 0.02 would have also been the correct
thats 17500
you were probably doing 350 / 0.02
yeah
figured
it just requires patience
is it only for this topic that you divide by the smaller
don't move so fast, and read carefully what you are doing
wdym
"the smaller" of what
it doesn't matter the order
oh
350 x 0.02 = 0.02 x 350
ooh
what about inverse proportion
i dont get that at all
and the video was useless
this is always true btw
Inverse proportion is almost the same. Direct proportion is $y\propto x$, and inverse proportion is $y\propto \frac{1}{x}$
SWR
so its just fractions
yup
nooo
im cooked
are you good with ratio
sharing ratio and that stuff
something like this
what do i do
the angle of a trangle are in the ratio 1:2:9. What is the size of the largest angle
?
angles of a triangle add to 180
is that the aswere
no
oh
I'm just helping you set up the solution
Let the smallest angle be x, then the largest angle is 9x and the medium angles is 2x
they must add to 180
what?
10
why did you do this?
why did you do this?
$\frac{18}{180}\ne 10$
SWR
9 x 2 because you need to find the biggeest angle
You are mixing up 180/18 and 18/180
how does this find you the biggest angle?
no it = to 18
because i need to make 180 so after i find 9 x 2 i then divide by 180 by 18
9 x 2 since its the angles given
Okay
- The angles must sum to 180
- what does 9x2 have to do with any of that?
- how does 180/18 mean the angles sum to 180?
by doing 9 x 2 and then dividing that by 180 i get the answer. then i x all those together (the ratio thing) and i get 180
it sums to 180
?
what do i do
okay, and now what do we do?
okay, now what?
No. That makes no sense
oh
remember what your 9+2+1 represents
sorry
your angles are in a 1:2:9 ration
we don't know what any of the angles are yet, so they're just unknowns
let's say that x is the smallest angle
Then the angle ratio from smallest to medium is 1:2
So, if x is the smallest angle, then what is the medium angle (in terms of x)?
x2
It's more common to write 2x, but you are right
yeah
and, what is the largest angle?
9x
yup
so, your angles are x, 2x, and 9x. And they're angles of a triangles, so they must add to 180
how would you write that algebraically?
minus 12?
what equals 12?
what happened to all your x?
yes, and this is equal to 180
would you need to write x?
yes
okay
because 1, 2, and 9 by themselves mean nothing
12x = 180?
Your angles are x, 2x, and 9x
yes, precisely
so techinically all we did was just add them up and put x in
your angles x, 2x, and 9x sum to 180. That is, x+2x+9x=180. You simplify the left, giving you 12x=180
we added x, 2x, and 9x, and set that equal to 180
x, 2x, and 9x are your angles. x+2x+9x is the sum of your angles. The sum of your angles is 180, so x+2x+9x=180
yes
ohhh okay
yooo thankss so much
legend
would that question be higher level or foundation
a ratio like $1:2$ just means that one value is twice the other. We don't know what those values are, we just know what we get when we divide them. If the smaller value is some unknown $x$, then the larger value must be $2x$, because $\frac{x}{2x}=\frac12=1:2$
SWR
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plug 2 into the x
like this?
i leave the g(2) alone right?
just carry it down when solving the right side
yea
your answer is correct
sure send it
ok so in general if you are given f(x) and you are told that it has an inverse do you know the process of finding f^(-1)(x)?
sorry i lost internet for a min
yes, you change the x into a y
or at least i was taught that way from what i remember
you replace x by y or f(x) by y ?
no actually thats not what you should do
you replace f(x) by y
then solve for x in terms of y
after that swap x and y
the result will be y in terms of x
yeah
so lets do this
great what next
exactly
what i meant is to rewrite as y=4x-1 then you work to get x=... , this ... is something in terms of y after that you switch the places of x and y
what you are doing is similar
oh ok
ok so from this what do you get
x+1 = 4y
and then ?
so f^(-1)(x)=?
x+1 divided by 4 right?
exactly
you can check that by plugging this into f
it should give you x
since f(f^(-1)(x))=x
into this?
or you can plug f(x) into this
so $f(x)=4x-1$ which means $f(\frac{x+1}4)=4(\frac{x+1}4)-1=x+1-1=1$
pirateking0723
or you can do this by saying $f^{-1}(f(x))=f^{-1}(4x-1)=\frac{4x-1+1}4=x$
but why did u have to divide by 4
pirateking0723
u have y = f(x) = 4x - 1 right?
yes
(y+1)/4 = x
us is the is the y fx-1?
but you have $f^{-1}(x)=\frac{x+1}4$ right
pirateking0723
yes
so $f(f^{-1}(x))=f(\frac{x+1}4)=4(\frac{x+1}4)-1=x+1-1=x$
pirateking0723
thats where the division by 4 came from
ohh ok
i see
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im most likely glossing over something for this problem. I'm trying to use using a non-homogeonous solution, and i've gotten to the following point:
y'-y(1+x) = 1 + x
when i apply the μ(x) portion, i get that μ(x) = e^(x+x^2/2)
but im finding that this doesn't check out
silly mistake, nevermind
.close
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938c2cc0dcc05f2b68c4287040cfcf71
well 1 + i is a root
-1 is a repeated root
1 - i is another root
because RRT , because P in R[x]
so the polynomial is a quartic
what are its factors
Who started this trend 💀
maximo
P(x) = a((x-(1+i))(x-(1-i))(x+1)(x+1)
yes those are factors
the hard part is the last condition
in general P(x) = ((x-(1+i))(x-(1-i))(x+1)(x+1) * f(x) for some f in R[x]
plug in x=i
u can simplify this
-2a = 28
bro it takes a second to check
be thankful tf
lmao, mb
u can check on wolfram alpha
!volu
Helpers are just people volunteering their time to help you. Be polite and patient.
,w p(x) = x^2, what's p(2)
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the answer from the video and the answer from the solution is different... which one is correct? im really confused... (from ap classroom vid)
What video
ap classroom video
Which one is which
Blue is video?
the red one is a right riemann sum
yeah the blue one is video and the red one is the from the answer key attached
video is correct
so they kinda confused themselves...? when writing solution?
yes
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How do I set this up? Like I understand the total needs to be <3.2ppm
Would I average them like (2.7+3.42+x)/3 to get the average?
yup
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area of a circle
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what
its semicircle right?
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y>0
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i mean yea technically you want a quarter circle
looks pretty easy
simple formula based
but just know the formula for a circle and divide it by 4
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no
just find the area of a circle with radius 4 then divide it by 4
since you have a quarter circle
Yeah but how to integrate it
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let x = 4sin(u) lol
you’ll just get to the same shit
I forgot trig sub
big waste of time
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dawg turn off dark mode on desmos
you have reverse contrast on
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you can’t see see the grid
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jeez what is this
!occupied
Someone else is already using this help channel. If you need help with a question, please open your own help channel/thread (see #❓how-to-get-help for instructions).
15 no. Please
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bro wtf is wrong with your desmos
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how did you manage to make it so gross
what are yall doing with desmos bruh 😭
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Desmos get obliterated
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In the quadrilateral ABCD AB 14 BC 48 CD 40 and AD 30 find the diagonal AC and the area of the quadrilateral if AC divides its area in the ratio 14:25
im having a tough time with this one
what did u try?
is trigonometry allowed
i tried to find the half perimeter
the i tried a herons formula but it didnt help much
it got complicated
i dont think thats gonna help us out that much
So like, AC divides the shape into 2 regions and ratio of those is 14/25?
ye
I mean heron's formula does do the trick here but the equation is very complicated
its just some x^2 and x^4s lmao
That's the problem
In a test for example, it wont be an effective method because expanding it is very troublesome for such a small time
Though if nothing else works then ig its a last resort
can trigonometry solve this tho?
it will only get harder with trigonometry
I think it can, if we focus on B and D and find its connection through the area ratio
Then use law of cosine to find AC
yea, but too many unknowns
Sigh
Wait for a few sec
oh look how convenient it is
sin B = sin D
that means B + D = 180
that means cos(B) = -cos(D)
done, problem solved
oh
tbh i also did not expect this
Although, something isn't right
From my observation, S_ABC is definitely smaller than S_ADC
Is the figure drawn not to scale?
If it isnt then B+D=180 will cause it to be an isosceles trapezoid
(Which obviously isnt right at all)
@gray swallow
not really
huh.
lemme try the opposite way, assume S_ADC < S_ABC
yeah no that obviously doesnt work lol
@gray swallow im pretty certain something is wrong with the problem. the sine ratio should not be 1 because it will make it an isosceles trapezoid
either that or something is wrong with the figure
(yeah no the problem lies at the... problem. i have tried every possible way to draw a trapezoid but nothing satisfies the given problem)
aw man
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$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{n^3}{n!}$
kronium_
I tried to do it
in my mind
but for some reason I keep failing and cant pin point the reason
everything I do just seems to make sense but it doesn't get me to the answer
$e^x$ = $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{x^n}{n!}$
kronium_
kronium_
kronium_
kronium_
it doesn't still start at 0 though
what
the n = 0 term is a constant so it goes to 0
so the first term is n = 1 after that
yes
like
what ur saying is
$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{n^3}{n!}$ = $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{n^3}{n!}$
what?
kronium_
how is it false
but i don't see how it pertains to what i said
i am talking about when you took the derivative of both sides of the equation
what then
,, \odv*{\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{x^n}{n!}}{x} \ne \sum_{\mathcolor{red}{n=0}}^{\infty} \frac{nx^{n-1}}{n!}
cloud
not the second one
yes the second one too
the second one isn't even a power series
but the second one still becomes e
not an approximation
exactly 'e'
I MEAN
e^x
mb
e^x
$e^x$
kronium_
i suppose it doesn't matter that much since the first term is 0 anyway
right
so
what happens if
is
nx^(n-1)/n!
n! = (n-1)! * n
the n's cancel each other out
so
u get
sum from 0 to infinity
x^(n-1) / (n-1)!
and since n starts from 0
the first term will be (1/x)/(-1)!
which is
INFINITY
so it becomes 0
and then like normal
what i'm saying is that you are applying the power rule to say [ \odv*{x^0}{x} = x^{-1} ] which makes no sense
cloud
kronium_
x = 0 
i mean ||there's an easier way to evaluate this series||
but i'll let u figure it out a bit more until u give up 
how so
$e^{e^x}$ = $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{e^{nx}}{n!}$
kronium_
so whats ur easier way
||instead of focusing on this, why not just keep differentiating?||
||also you should observe: n^3 = n(n - 1)(n - 2) + 3n(n - 1) + n||
this I also like
yep
so
if I differentiate
3 times
it stays e^x
and then replace x with 0
so it becomes 1
so its
uh
if you do x = 0 then the series will collapse 
x = 1
OHH
BRUH
MB
MB
I KEPT THINKING THE WRONG WAY
damn
I see now where I went wrong
I totally forgot
I thought x was the exponent
im my head
ahhh
mb
yeah got it
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4x^2+13x+2x^3-80=0
you sure you've copied the question right?
yes
😭
wait a sec
mb
try diviiding the equation with different factors
like x+1, x-1 and stuff
not quite
huh
if the sum of the coefficients of the terms equal 0, (x+1) is a factor
if the sum of the coefficients of the terms with the odd powers equals 0, (x-1) is a factor
actually yeah that doesnt work here
but just in case, keep those in mind, they're helpful
can i ask how you solved it
f(x)/f'(x)
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is the sum notation a must to write
i basically moved the everything except S outside the integra
its wrong to write it twice
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Hi could I ask how do I rationalize or smth this question in order to find the limit?
im a bit confused because im used to rationalizing, but apparently that is not the correct term to use when trying to cancel out the numerator
and when cross multiplying, instead of -8, its positive 8..?
The limit doesn't exist
thats honestly so cool, can I ask how were you able to solve it
As x aproach 0
The denominator became smaller
Wait
the other answer I got was 1/16, is that wrong
Hmmm
ive double checked with calculators, AI, and manually checked it on my own but each one is different
😭
Let me solve it first
,w limit of (sqrt(x^2+64)-8)/x^2
this is worth like 80% of my performance task so I was desperate and had to search for a math server
1/16 is right yeah
okay thankyou
oh wow
okay thankyou
im genuinely so afraid to submit this
okay thankyou legends ill try submitting
okay it was correct thankyou so much everyone
I appreciate it
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This is an Undergraduate level mathematics question, would like some help as I got no clue how to covert the given equations of a great circle into an equation of a sphere.
what class is this from?
i dont get how that circle is defined
the first equation is equivalent to
(x+1)^2 + (y-2)^2 + z^2 = 0
and this defines a degenerate sphere (as in 0 radius)
(so actually a single point)
and the next equation is one of a plane
i.e. the great circle I suppose
i dont get it
the first equation defines a point, the 2nd one defines a plane
where is the circle?
That's what I was confused about myself, I think the question might just be flawed, probably gotta ask the professor himself 🥲
That'll probably be best
First one is sphere
show him this
2nd one is plane
Alrighty then
Anyways it's a circle
I think that the sphere was meant to be non-degenerate and then the intersection of the plane and the sphere would define the great circle
I think so too, I'll just ask him before class, thanks guys.
(-1, 2, 0) is the point. The plane doesnt pass through this point. So the intersection is empty and we have no circle
Oh lol i didn't check, ty for clarification
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Is 1+0.5+0.25+0.125… an integral?
No, it’s an infinite sum.
Specifically, $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\qty(\frac12)^n$.
;(
Isnt that what an integral is?
No, that’s a sum.
Can you explain the difference between an infinite sum and an integral?
Or recommend something to watch to understand it?
An infinite sum is just a sum, but has infinity as an upper bound. An integral is a “smoother form” of a sum. In other words, a sum is discrete, and an integral is continuous.
No.
For?
I’m confused
Ohh
Wouldn’t say that, necessarily.
Why?
Yeah it's too oversimplified
Because something like the euler-mascheroni constant exists.
Is that the fancy “i”
,w euler-mascheroni constant
Is the root of -1
This comes from the sum of 1/x subtracted by the integral of 1/x to infinity.
That’s just the imaginary unit.
😵💫
Diffrent number
Yeah, but i still confused 😭
There’s no better way to put it.
$\int_a^b f(x)dx=\lim_{n\to\infty}\sum_{k=1}^n \Delta{x}f(x_k)$
It might help you to know I’m 13 and dont have any experience in calculus other than sigma notation
;(
Read James Stewart calc book
Good book
If you really want to learn it
in the context of measure theory, yeah
you can view it as the integral of 1/2^n w.r.t the counting measure
if you do more analysis, you'll see that actually sums and integrals behave quite similarly
for example, if a series is absolutely convergent, then you can sum up the series in any way you want
similarly, if you have a double integral where integrating the absolute value gives < infinity, then you can rearrange the 2 integrals
anyway that's some motivation (not the main motivation tho) behind having measure theory cus then that unites the theory between sums and integrals
@velvet gorge Has your question been resolved?
Thanks
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938c2cc0dcc05f2b68c4287040cfcf71
if you take a vector out of S_1 how does it transform under the action of f?
the output is in S1
yes but you can write it more specifically
if you take any vector out of S1 you can represent it as a linear combination of basis vectors in your case v_1
and then you can apply the linear transformation to the linear combination
λf(v1) ∈ S1
that might not be the case
in general
if u is an element out of S1, then
u = λ*v_1
λf(v1) ∈ S1
this doesnt work?
yeah
thats correct
so?
f(u) = f(λ*v_1) = λf(v_1)
so
but f(v_1) has to be equal to some non zero number times v_1
because it is a 1-d subspace and it only has one possible direction
Im sorry I gtg
@urban copper Has your question been resolved?
@urban copper Has your question been resolved?
@urban copper Has your question been resolved?
@urban copper Has your question been resolved?
If you haven't found how to continue
just remember that S1 = span(v1) and S2 = span(v2,v3)
so if f(S1) = S1
that means in particular f(v1) in span(v1)
so f(v1) = a*v1
and a is not 0, otherwise f(S1) = {0}
try the same reasoning for S2
f(S2) = S2
f(bv2 + cv3) ∈ S2
what are b and c
non zero scalars
b,c∈ R
where do they come from
isn't it easier to just investigate f(v2) and f(v3)?
since f is linear
problem is, is not as easy because S2 = <v2,v3>
f(v2) ∈ S2
f(v3)∈ S2
f(v2) = bv2 + dv3
for b,d ∈ R nonzero scalars
f(v3) = cv2 + ev3
for c,e ∈ R nonzero scalars
look
we know
f(S2) = S2
S2 = <v2,v3>
s2 ∈ S2
s2 = αv2 + βv3
f(S2) = αv2 + βv3
also we know
f(S2) = <f(v2),f(v3)>
not necessarily
some of b,c,d,e can be zero
true
f(S2) = <f(v2),f(v3)> = S2
If V = {v1,v2,...,vn} is a basis of some space E
and A is an n*n matrix
when is AV = {Av1,...,Avn} a basis of E?
if A is bijective
I mean when it has only output for every single input
aka when A is invertible
yup
is still possible that f is bijective but one of the basis vectors in S2 map to 0
if a non zero vector is mapped to 0
and the zero vector is also mapped to 0...
.
why do we care about S1 ∩ S2 ={0}
.
I don't understand what you mean by that
we have two supplementary sets S1, S2
so we can create a basis of R^3 that is basically a basis of S1 + a basis of S2
I dont understand why they give S1 (+) S2 = R3
is possible that for example S1 + S2 = R3
when dim S1 = 2, dim S2 = 2 and dim S1 n S2 = 1
yeah
dim(S1 n S2) = ...
dim(S1+S2) = dim(S1)+dim(S2)-dim(S1nS2)
dim(S1+S2) = 2 + 2 - 1 = dim(R3)
yeah I was pondering, not that it matters
The question statement is generally not to be questioned with, the guys creating the exercise set the stage however they want
you can question it if what they set is false
Hi
well if f(S2) = span{f(v1), f(v2)}
and f is bijective
then span{f(v1), f(v2)} is also a basis for S2
you mean {f(v1),f(v2)} is also a basis
but yes
so
well if f(S2) = span{f(v1), f(v2)}
and f is bijective
then {f(v1), f(v2)} is also a basis for S2
like that?
so
restrict f to S2
then M_(v2,v3) (f) = some matrix
and since f is bijective from S2 to S2
that matrix that represents f must be...
the matrix with columns (f(v2))_S2 and (f(v3))_S2
invertible
nonzero det
and there you have it!
so with the exercise's notations:
f(v_2) = bv_2 + dv_3
f(v_3) = cv_2 + ev_3
$Mat_{{v_2,v_3}} (f) = \begin{pmatrix}b&c\d&e\end{pmatrix}$
rafilou is not not born in 2003
$|Mat_{{v_2,v_3}} (f)| \neq 0$
rafilou is not not born in 2003
what part
how do you prove for example f is bijective
aka an isomorphism, you used it, but we assumed Mb(f) dets is nonzero
a surjective function between two sets of the same finite dimension
rank/nullity theorem for example
etc...
every endomorphism is surjective then?
no
I said that every SURJECTIVE endomorphism is bijective in finite dimension
well R3 is finite dimension and our f is an endomorphism because f: R3 -> R3
but how do we show is surjective?
f is surjective, but we're not interested in that
if you want to prove it in your own time, it's because since R^3 = S1 (+) S2, every vector of R^3 is the sum of a vector of S1 and a vector of S2
but since f(S1) = S1 and f(S2) = S2
it's gonna be easy finding an inverse image for each component
and thus by linearity, we get an inverse image of the original vector
anyways
we're more interested in:
f:S2->S2 is bijective
we can call it a different name since we changed domain and codomain
say g:S2->S2 is the endomorphism such that g(v) = f(v)
okay
so
g is bijective
because it's a surjective endomorphism in finite dimension
(g(S2) = f(S2) = S2)
so
$Mat_{{v_2,v_3}} (g) = \begin{pmatrix}b&c\d&e\end{pmatrix}$
rafilou is not not born in 2003
g is bijective
so this matrix is invertible
det(this matrix) != 0
now we can assert that M_B(f) = this
and we proved everything
in fact, here's the alternative proof of why f is bijective
now that we've shown M_B(f) = this with a !=0 and det(...) != 0
M_B(f) is invertible
i.e f is bijective
I mean, proof seems okayy, is not like I can actual advice about the proof since I am still learning and I am new to linear algebra, but at least I am convinced is true when a is nonzero, about the determinant of {{b,c},{d,e}} I think we need to take that for a fact, otherwise f(v2) is a linear combination of f(v3)
again, if that last part was blurry to you
I invite you to go back to the proof of:
"let f:E->F linear
then f bijective <=> f sends any basis of E to a basis of F <=> f sends at least one basis of E to a basis of F"
is okay I found the link, apparently is a theorem
thank you for the help and ty for the invitation, I think is solved I think
the determinant of {{b, c},{d, e}} needs to be nonzero because
that's the only way f is an isomorphism
like if S2 = {v2,v3} is a basis
M_S2(f) = {{b,c},{d,e}}
and since f(S2) = <f(v2),(f(v3))>
we need {f(v2), f(v3)} to be a basis for S2 aswell
so if M_\S2(f) = {{b,c},{d,e}}
(f(v2))_S2 = (b,d)
(f(v3))_S2 = (c,e)
meaning we need
f(v2) = bv2 + dv3
f(v3) = cv2 + ev3 to be linearly independent otherwise
M_S2(f) is non invertible and thus
f is not an isomorphism
and if f is not an isomorphism then
{f(v2), f(v3)} is not a basis for S2
you see what I mean? I think I got it, unless I made a boo boo
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how do you diff 1/e^(x^2)
write it as e^(-x^2)
and from there chain rule
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how does the general solution look like when 2 same eigenvalue gives one eigenvector
@sweet turret Has your question been resolved?
I think we're missing more context
meaning?
what the given system was
this was the question
i wanna find the actual answer
can the same eigenvector be used twice?
<@&286206848099549185>
nop
you need another vector independent of (1 0)
So there's no solution to this..?
ofc there is, just take (0 1)
and you get the result described here too
you can check by directly solving for x & y too
it gives the same result
Why is (0,1) valid
Let's say if I didn't use the online calculator how would ik (0,1) is an answer
if you have a defective eigenvalue you can solve for it with (A-lambda * I) * new_vector = existing_eigenvector
which in your case is
(A-lambda * I) * (v1 v2) = (1 0)
which yields v1 = 0 and v2 = 1
Lambda is 1 also?
so (0 1) is your new "constructed" eigenvector
Then I find the inverse?
yes
to generalize the process:
you had an eigenvalue that's a double root in the characteristic polynomial
so its arithmetic multiplicity is 2
however you found out you can only get 1 independent eigenvector
meaning the geometric multiplicity is 1
Yea
therefore you need to "construct" more eigenvectors, which aren't true eigenvectors
but they are uniquely determined by the corresponding eigenspace
Yea I def didn't learn this shi 
hm but how was the procedure taught to you?
They only taught us basic of finding eigenvalues and eigenvectors, and the examples given usually has 2 eigenvectors for 1 eigenvalue
111
000
000
you mean arithmetic and geometric multiplicities always aligned?
Like this matrix I know that y and z are free variables
Not rly but mostly yes
hm k
for the eigenvalue 0?
And does that mean (0,0,1) is also an eigenvector?
Ya
I mean any multiple of (1 0 0) gets mapped to 0
why'd it be
Introduce x as free parameter?