#help-38
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@halcyon stratus
ok
in the 4th question you have to use a power series
and it will end after a few terms
probably 2 or 3 terms of the series
I’m back
great
Do u think we have time
How much time left?
2 hours more
What was the expression for y(t) in the 2nd?
I directly substituted infinity
but that will give you an indeterminate result
We need to differentiate 1/e^2x aswell right
It has c
X*
No worries
Thoughts on 3a
I belive he is using Alpha and Beta instead of A and B
or he expects you to do so
Yeah, and you need to find them
this contradicts my previous hypothesis
he is using A, B, Alpha and Beta
So basically we need to find equations in terms of alpha and Beta
yeah
seems to be correct
What about b
let me think
.
Do you understand that?
Where did the limit go
Right
applying it to both terms, separately, we get to that expression
I mutliplied the whole expression by e^(-t)
to isolate the exponential
in a way that I could make it go to 0, as t->infinity
So what are the conditions for alpha and beta
Basically the 1/e^4t will always become zero
No matter what conditions we give to alpha and beta
no
no
it will get become zero, but the other term won't
that will create a false statement
Yup that’s what I’m saying
The one term will always be zero
The other will have a condition
we need to get rid of both exponentials
in order to determine the values of alpha and beta
How do I confirm this solution in graph?
that make this y go to 0, as t becomes larger and larger
you can use geogebra
it's online and free
this makes the first term disappear
and you're left only with the second term
the decreasing exponential
I told you that 4 hours would be enough
you're doing great
Lmao yeah
Last and final question bro
let's do it
Well, I've been in undergrad for quite a long time, changed major from computer engineering, to physics, and gave up to go back to computer engineering.
since 2017 at university
at least the public ones are tuition free here in Brazil
and I like to teach
I’m doing computer science
Honours in computer science
Double minor in math and physics
Damn how do I do this
Bro I don’t understand a thing
Oh yeah I remember Taylor series
it's just equivalent to a taylor series
Lmao so he just used summation
yup
My question is only asking for order 1
I can’t do it bro
why?
How do we find the general solution
I asked ChatGPT
it is error prone
The solution kinda makes sense
To show that ( y = x ) is a solution to Legendre's equation of order 1 and find the general solution for (-1 < x < 1), let's start by substituting ( y = x ) into the Legendre's equation and then solve for the general solution.
Legendre's Equation of Order ( n ):
[ (1 - x^2)y'' - 2xy' + n(n + 1)y = 0 ]
For ( n = 1 ):
[ (1 - x^2)y'' - 2xy' + 1(1 + 1)y = 0 ]
[ (1 - x^2)y'' - 2xy' + 2y = 0 ]
Step 1: Verify ( y = x ) as a Solution:
Substitute ( y = x ) into the equation:
First derivative:
[ y' = 1 ]
Second derivative:
[ y'' = 0 ]
Substitute ( y, y', ) and ( y'' ) into the equation:
[ (1 - x^2)(0) - 2x(1) + 2(x) = 0 ]
[ 0 - 2x + 2x = 0 ]
[ 0 = 0 ]
This confirms that ( y = x ) is a solution.
Step 2: Find the General Solution:
To find the general solution for (-1 < x < 1), we need another linearly independent solution. Since ( y = x ) is a solution, let's use the method of reduction of order.
Reduction of Order:
Let ( y_1 = x ). We seek another solution of the form ( y = v(x) x ), where ( v(x) ) is an unknown function.
Substitute ( y = v(x) x ) into the Legendre's equation:
Derivatives:
[ y = vx ]
[ y' = v'x + v ]
[ y'' = v''x + 2v' ]
Substitute into the equation:
[ (1 - x^2)(v''x + 2v') - 2x(v'x + v) + 2(vx) = 0 ]
[ (1 - x^2)(v''x + 2v') - 2x^2v' - 2xv + 2vx = 0 ]
[ (1 - x^2)v''x + (1 - x^2)2v' - 2x^2v' = 0 ]
[ (1 - x^2)v''x + (2 - 2x^2)v' = 0 ]
[ x(1 - x^2)v'' + 2(1 - x^2)v' = 0 ]
Simplify and divide by ( x(1 - x^2) ):
[ v'' + \frac{2}{x} v' = 0 ]
This is a first-order equation in ( v' ):
Let ( u = v' ):
[ u' + \frac{2}{x} u = 0 ]
Solve using an integrating factor:
[ \mu(x) = e^{\int \frac{2}{x} dx} = e^{2 \ln |x|} = x^2 ]
[ (x^2 u)' = 0 ]
[ x^2 u = C ]
[ u = \frac{C}{x^2} ]
Since ( u = v' ):
[ v' = \frac{C}{x^2} ]
[ v = \int \frac{C}{x^2} dx = -\frac{C}{x} ]
So the second solution is:
[ y_2 = v(x) x = -\frac{C}{x} x = -C ]
Flix 🇫🇷
LaTeX source sent via direct message.
```Compilation error:```! You can't use `macro parameter character #' in internal vertical mode.
l.51 #
## Legendre's Equation of Order \( n \):
Sorry, but I'm not programmed to handle this case;
I'll just pretend that you didn't ask for it.
If you're in the wrong mode, you might be able to
return to the right one by typing `I}' or `I$' or `I\par'.```
Can you write step by step solution and send me please
Thanks
I lost hope
ok
Are u willing to try
His video is too long
Makes sense why he gave it as the last question
It's been some time since I took the calculus 4 course
It’s okay you helped me a lot bro
it's been already answerd at math stack exchange
I would trust it more than chat gpt
If you're working while atteding university, that would explain a lot, like your difficulties, and the scarce time to solve the exercises.
I understand now
do it
yaaay
to do what?
Basically we know y1 and I found y2. That’s the solution
yeah
none, I don't even watch football
You’re a nerd fr bro
It was my pleasure to help you
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Solve the limit if $[\cdot]$ denotes the greatest integer function
$$\lim_{x\to \infty}x^{\frac{1}{[x]}}$$
pun pun
x^(1/x) is a continuous function over the reals so i don't think there's a reason that the continuous limit should be any different than the discrete
so just take the limit of x^(1/x)
ok yea im so dumb i was thinking infinity raised to the power 0 is 0
😭
it should be 1
thanks for the help anyway
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how does this imply the only way to write zero is if all elements are zero
like if I'm having two subspaces
can't one have the element (1,1...) and the other (-1,-1...)
sure
but subspaces are closed under scalar multiplication
so if a subspace contains (1,1,...) it also contains (-1,-1,...) and vice versa
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hello
was doing this question, and i was slightly confused about the second assertion (second dot point)
wait i got it lmao
you essentially equate two planes together
and after pulling everything to one side, you get a new plane equation that passes through the origin
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wait can you elaborate on this
that's not what I got from reading it
so i assumed that a has arbitray components a1, a2 and a3
and same thing with b
and the same thing with x
as a dot x = 0, we can do component wise multiplicaiton to get a1x1 + a2x2 + a3x3 = 0
same thing with b
so you get a1x1 + a2x2 + a3x3 = b1x1 + b2x2 + b3x3
can you reopen this
and then pulling the b's to the other side, you get an equation for the plane
.reopen
✅
ok where does it break down?
you are using 0-0=0 to justify why this is a plane
did you use the fact that one of the vectors is 0?
we are discussing the second bullet point right?
the 2nd is if "exactly one of a or b is 0"
oh frick
im really sorry
i meant the third bullet point
very sorry for the confusion
even in that case this reasoning is flawed
you are essentially reducing your two equations of contraint into one equation of constraint
you need to use the fact that they are parallel
hmm i guess you could reformulate the second equation where you replace the b's with lamba * a's
i think you can simplify this down using inner product distributivity property
do you want to try again to see if you can come up with a good explanation
this makes proving parallel case extremely nice :3
tag me if you want me to look over it
ok i think i got it
so we have the first equation, a dot x = 0
now we consider the second equation
b dot x = 0
since they are parallel, we can say that b = lambda dot a where lamba is an element of the real field
thus we can reforulate the equation to be lambda * a dot x = 0
we can divide both sids by lambda to get our previous equation a dot x = 0 which is a plane that passes through the origin
@twilit latch would this be correct reasoning?
very cool
i sometimes get formulate my proofs incorrectly so this was very educational
one more question
regarding the last dot point
i thought that W must only be the origin
but the solutions imply that its a line passing through the origin
so we want to think about this in two important ways
geometrically
and also algebraically
what does a dot x = 0 tell about how vectors a and x are related
they must be orthogonal
right
oh meaning that a and b must be parallel
nope
that would be true in R^2
in R^3 we have a three dimensional space
you want to think about problems like these are in terms of dimension/rank
so what is the span of two lineally independent vectors
what is the rank of that vector space generated by 2 linearly independent vectors
should it be 0?
doesn't it refer to the linear combinations of the vectors a and b
oh shit i got confused by the definition of linearly independent vectors having some constants that make them 0
anyways, the span can be represented by a 3 by 2 matrix
of what rank
....rank 2
i had to google search this
but apparently it tells us the dimension of the vector space generated
ok I'm going to answer this so we can move on
rank 2 geometrically is a plane
rank 1 is a line
point is asking what is orthogonal to a plane
(it is more than 1 point)
no
ah yeah i was thinking about the vectors in the plane
unless we have more than 3 dimensions
then it's possible
R^n can have at most n linealy independent vectors
ok algebraically
every unique linear equation
adds 1 dimension of constraint
ie your solutions will have 1 less dimension than the vector space they live in per unique equation
sorry i don't really understand this notion of constraint
let's go back to high school level examples
how many unique equations do you need to solve for two variables in R^2
2
how many equations do you need to specify a line in R^2
1 right?
1 equation
is this in R2?
you put no constraint on the possible solutions
what would that equation be lol
other than some tautology like 0=0
like the plane equation ax1 + bx2 + cx3 = 0?
which actually contains no ifnormation
this is R^3
okay i thought we were operating in R2 my bad
okay
you are kind of seeing what is happening, no?
in R^3 we need 1 equation for a plane
in R^2 we need 0 equeations for a plane
In R^3 we need 2 equations for a line
in R^2 we need 1 equation for a line
in R we need 0 equations for a line
so before we have any equations contraining what our point can be
it can be anything in the vector space
since we know nothing about it
but there are two equations, meaning that it has to be a line?
for point 4 yes
so if the vector has n dimensions
and you have k unique constraints/linear equations
then the solutions are n-k dimensional subspace
does this make sense
each equation/contraint if it is unique eliminates a dimension
yeah i can kinda see the logic
actually for equations of the from a dot x=0 this just rank of the null space
you put a b whatever you have that is being dotted with x in a matrix
and then calculate the rank of that matrix
have you heard of rank nullity theorem
no
have you looked at null spaces at all?
indeed
isn't that the kernel
they are the same thing
so you would put a and b as the rows of A
which is just the equation you had a dot x= b dot x=0 in matrix form when solving for the nullspace
linear algebra is very cool
still my favorite part of math
one they it will all click
it is kind of like that
just takes some more exposure
learning linear algebra is non-linear lol
lmao
btw, if you don't mind, could you explain why planes with dimensions higher than 3 can be orthogonal
or if that is too time consuming, a resource will do
just something to itch my brain cause i distinctly rememver learning something very similar to it
2+2=4
ok I will elaborate
but that is literally what it is
a plane takes needs two dimensions
to have two orthogonal ones you need at least 2+2=4 dimensions
hmm i remember that in R4 you can have the planes intersect at one point
yes this is it
hmm that makes sense
if you want an explicit example the plane spanned by [1 0 0 0]^T and [0 1 0 0]^T is orthogonal to the one spanned by [0 0 1 0]^T and [0 0 0 1]^T
in R3, would it be correct that two planes just always intersect
but in R4, you can have them never intersecting
planes can be parallel, but would no longer be vector subspaces
like the plane z=1 and z=2
good idea
thanks for all your help arsam really appreciate all the help
you're welcome!
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sorry arsam for reopening this, i just was confused why we are looking at the span
.reopen
no worries
by knowing where your points aren't, you find out where they are
we were looking at what object the solution vectors had to be orthogonal to
if x is orthogonal to a and b
it is orthogonal to the span of a and b
so essentially, if x is orthogonal to both a and b, it must be orthogonal to their plane
so we can the plane of a and b being lambda times a + mu times b
of course assuming a and b are linearly independent and actually span a plane
times everything by x, we get lamda * a dot x + mu * b dot x
as a dot x and b dot x are 0, the sum must also be 0 meaning that x and the span are orthogonal
perfect
np
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$\int_1^{2} x \ln x dx \$
here would I start with the antiderivative of ln x is x ln x - x + c
Tomi
Nah integrate by parts with u=lnx and v'=x
u would get xlnx-x
shouldnt it be u = x v'= ln x dx
oh i didnt see the question properly
How ?
typically u let dv equal the easiest thing to integrate
Since you find antiderivative of x its x^2/2
And you always want to take the derivative of ln
but like when working with definite integrals and integration by parts, it is the same thing the only difference is that I would need to evaluate it between the boundaries.
Dont you have to jusitfy the antiderivative of ln ?
Or it is allowed to take it out of your cap like a known thing ?
what? i dont know what you are saying
im trying to solve that integral
that i sent
Yeah but you want to take v' as lnx
it works both ways here
(not always the case)
but the way you're approaching it is more complex
if u let dv=lnx then you'll end up with xlnx-x as ur 2nd integral, which is a recursion which is fine but idk why u would complicate it
okay but I end up having these 4 variables, dv = x dx, v = x^2/2, u = ln x, du= 1\x dx
Yeah
Put it in formula
dv = x dx
but yeh
$\ln x \cdot \frac{x^2}{2} - \int \frac{x^2}{2} \frac{1}{x} dx$
Tomi
Ye
and now this is trivial
$= \frac{\ln x ^2}{2} - \frac{1}{2} \int x^2 \frac{1}{x} dx \$
$ =\frac{\ln x ^2}{2} - \frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{x^3}{3} \cdot \ln x \$
Tomi
is this correct to this point? now I just have to simplify and evaluate it between the bounds.
no
oh that is another ibp there
no
integral of a product isn't the product of the integrals of the multiplicands
why not just simplify x^2 * 1/x
well that is just one x
and also how are you getting ln(x^2)/2
which is x^2 over 2
Why do you put x^2 in ln ?
Ye
$\frac{x^2 \ln x}{2} - \frac{x^2}{2} \Big|_1^2$
Tomi
@clear cloud is this good now?
Yeh
Oh yes
$\frac{x^2 \ln x}{2} - \frac{x^2}{2} \cdot \frac{1}{2} \Big|_1^2$
$\frac{x^2 \ln x}{2} - \frac{x^2}{2} \cdot \frac{1}{2} \Big|_1^2 $
delete that space at the end
Tomi
yeh
ideally you'd put brackets around the expression
$\left[ \frac{x^2 \ln x}{2} - \frac{x^2}{2} \cdot \frac{1}{2}\right] \eval_1^2$
ℝαμΩℕωⅤ
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hey
English or spanish
i remember someone saying that we can take create a matrix with columns being our linearly independent vectors as well as basis vectors
then row reduce
the pivot colums will be our basis
however, here they are doing a different method wherein they augment the original matrix with the identity matrix
was wondering how this works
<@&286206848099549185>
<@&286206848099549185>s
<@&286206848099549185>
thats a totally math next levels
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I would like to have this verified, I would also like a hint on how to proceed in the backward direction
@marsh forum Has your question been resolved?
You kinda already proved the backward direction when you mentioned b = 0 to be necessary for the zero element
Also what does [ \lambda\int_0^1 = 0f ] mean 
A Lonely Bean
I mesant $\lambda \int_0^1 f=0
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Rewrite the inside sum like this
$\sum_{k=0}^{10} \frac{1}{\cos \left( \frac{7\pi}{12} + \frac{k\pi}{2} \right) \cos \left( \frac{7\pi}{12} + \frac{(k+1)\pi}{2} \right)}$
Samuel
yes
i get it
7pie/6
after that what
once u get 2/whatever u get
u get this
Rewrite 1 in terms of sin
$\sin\left(\left(\frac{7\pi}{12} + \frac{(k+1)\pi}{2}\right) - \left(\frac{7\pi}{12} + \frac{k\pi}{2}\right)\right) = 1$
Samuel
1/2 cos x+y + cos x-y
,w is sin((7pi/12+(k+1)pi/2)-(7pi/12+kpi/2))=1?
Yes i did correctly
is this correct?
im not cpable of that:c
idk what to do
ill do what u tell me to do
Ok now what
<@&286206848099549185>
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Is a zero vector of n parameters always a vector space?
I'll just use a vector of 3 parameters as an example
If <0,0,0> is the only vector in its own space, that means it's already closed under addition and scalar multiplication
Any number satisfies the scalar multiplication identity, and <0,0,0> is its own additive identity
Addition with <0,0,0> is both associative and commutative
The distributive property also holds true
<0,0,0> is its own additive inverse
Scalar multiplication for <0,0,0> is associative (e.g. 2*(3*<0,0,0>) = (2*3)*<0,0,0> )
So The Ten Axioms Of A Vector Space Are Met, Yet It Feels Wrong To Say A Single Vector Is Its Own Space When It Is The Only Thing In That Space```
sounds like you got a vector space there
So there's nothing wrong a vector space only having one vector?
Like the span of the entire space is just itself?
Could someone help me with plane geometry?
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yes, you can have a vector space with one vector
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np
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what does it mean by eveluate??
is it just do the thing?
find the number
find the numerical value of:
oh ok
so just split the fration up then indecey laws and then integrate then the squair braket stuff sub in and take away
thank you
🫡
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can someone explain why the volume of the prism used for this question is $$ V= (b^2)h$$?
this is the solution
Thyroxine
why is the volume not b*h?
b*h is a two-dimensional value
If it's a volume, it must be a three-dimensional value
So u need 3 parcels
b*h is just 2
So b*h means an area
Volume u can right has area times the height of the prism
Since it's a square base, the area of the base will be b*b = b²
Then the total volume will be that base area times the height h
So, V = b² * h
ah okayy, thank for clarifying!
You're welcome!
im smarter than everyone
@sour lagoon Has your question been resolved?
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<@&268886789983436800> spam
Dead
oh hey Dami is here
Discord autodelete pls
blessed sloth
can Dami check my proof also? 
i got u higher
continuous means that the preimage of open sets is open. it does not mean that the image of open sets is open
wait did I write that?
oh shoot
I did
uhh
hm
your direction <= didnt even use that f is bijective so thats a bad sign


I can use the fact that f^-1 is continuous though, right?

which way are you prov ing
so the converse statement is a problem
cause I haven't used bijectivity
uhhh
let's see
where does my argument break down 
it's gotta be the "then by the given assumption" line
hm
okay wait
is it true that since f is bijective, there is an open set W in X_1 such that f(W) = V?
why
one part of bijectivity is surjectivity
right
what does surjectivity guarantee you
suppose V is open in X_2~~, aka V is in T_2~~
what
this part is only about the bijectivity of f, f does not know how to deal with open sets (yet)
so anything regarding open sets is sort of a moot point when it comes to f (for now)
if x is in X_2, then there is at least one a in X_1 such that f(a) = x
that is the def of surjectivity
what to do with this
yeah but now we want an entire set not just 1 point
well this is true for every x in X_2, and in particular for every x in V
there exists some W in X_1 such that the image of W under f is V
that's surjectivity for whole sets of points
I have not seen this version of surj before
i mean
hmm
so we have a set W in X_1, where f(W) = V
yes?
err actually im not too sure about that
hmm
im not sure if it matters though..?
what is the justification for the connectedness of W
idt it does yeah
but just an observation
why d oyou need W to be connected?
we dont know if V is connected either
if we look at the assumption in line 1
mhm
assume f(W) open <=> W open
ah, we picked V to be open, and f guaranteed a W in X_1 to exist
such that f(W) = V
but then since we assumed V was an open set, and surjectivity of f guaranteed that W exists such that V = f(W), so f(W) is open in X_2
then by assumption W is open in X_1
slight problem
oh
this is not enough
fml
LOL
I forgot
okay but
f is invertible cause it's bijective
I need to show that f^-1 is cont
uhh
yep
it's not for free
you can make functions that are bijective and continuous but its inverse is not continuous
yes, I'm aware
unlike in LA where bijective + linear automatically gives linearity of the inverse
let's see
okay
we have to show that f(U) is open in X_2
ah but this is trivial
because U is open in X_1, f(U) is open in X_2 by assumption

yep
that's why the if and only if is important too
in the assumption
cos you need both directions
yeah

(i've never done an exercise like htis before
)
you've done topology before yes?
i have very informal understanding of topology
i've looked at the definitions a little bit, enough to understand borel sets
I see
I'm having a lot of fun with topology so far
it's like analysis but better

it does seem fun you should do probability after
perhaps
it's just analysis with fancy words
real
final product
I think it looks good now.
thank you Frosst and Denascite!
now onto the next problem 
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really stupid question: when we say that f|_U is a homeomorphism from U to f(U), are we saying that its codomain is automatically f(U)?
sort of implied from the fact its a homeomorphism since then its image is its codomain
right...
but if I had to show that f|_U is a homeomorphism, must I show that the codomain being f(U) is the only way to make it bijective?
or is this just obvious
no because its automatically a map to its image
right, so I should prove it then
prove what?
that the codomain should be f(U)
you have been provided with a map f_U : U -> f(U)
am I?
its codomain is f(U) by construction
or am I provided with f_U : U -> Y?
cause I thought that usually
when we restrict stuff
the codomain remains intact
well you can always reduce the codomain of a (set) function to its image
which makes it surjective
right, but do I know a priori that the codomain will be f(U)?
I'm sorry this such a stupid question LOL
bc they have told you where the map is going from and where its going to
maybe not as explicitly as you'd like
hm
but they are literally describing this
so this then
right, okay
yea
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how does the equation (2x14^1/3)/3 equal (2x2^1/3)/3?
Whats the original question
(2x^1/3)/3
The expressions you provided are not equal
substituting 14 in for x
i googled my answer but i want to understand how they got that number
(2•14^1/3)/3 ≠ (2•2^1/3)/3
whats the original question?
exactly as it was said to you
Whoever/whatever told you those to be equal was wrong
(2x^1/3)/3
do you have a picture of where you got the problem from
yes
send it
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
calculate the expected number of wins by substituting x with 14 in the formula (2x^1/3)/3
its (2 times 2^1/3)/3
(2x2^1/3)/3
And theres nothing after it?
Ok then send all of it
What site is this
gauth
@sweet pagoda Has your question been resolved?
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@trim jolt pls slove this math
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A triangle has side lengths of 12cm, 15cm, and 19cm. Determine the smallest angle in this triangle to the nearest degree. is it 52 or 32 degrees?
Well, it says "the smallest angle". so, i think its 32 degrees
did u solve it and get that? becuase me and my friend both got diff answers and cant figure it out lol
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Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
sorry for messy work just a rough draft of an quiz
how come 52 degrees is smaller than 39 degrees????🤔
your right i feel stupid but still is 39 degrees correct? or is my process wrong or did i have an error
It's 39
ok great thank your
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it says the function satisfies which values to be contineous
@rapid horizon Has your question been resolved?
This is the whole context? Wouldn't polynomials in $z$ be continuous across any complex number?
Azyrashacorki
i guess it has to be
but they are claiming a radius too in the options
which forms circle
.coose
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can anyone help with qn 6c and qn 9b?
that’s just my random working
how to find the two coordinates for 6c?
so you noted that B was the midpoint of AC
then you just added the difference from A to B
which seems fine to me really
wdym?
AB=BC
Use what you done in the first part
To identify length of BC
and just work backwards
BC = 5units
so I create an equation with the line segment 5
You have an equation for the line, you just need a point on the line that will satisfy BC=5
Just look at the vector connecting AB
That will be the same vector for BC
what’s a vector?
u not seen a vector?
yeah
?
anyways, the change in x and change in y will be the same for AB and BC
as its on the same line, and the same length
Change in x for AB was 3, change in y was 4
ok thanks
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Please don't occupy multiple help channels.
<@&268886789983436800>
Banned
good that was not friendly to see at 3 am...
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$x \cdot \tan x - \ln |sec x | + C \$
why does the book say?
$x \cdot \tan x + \ln |cos x | + C \$
Tomi
$\int \tan x dx = \ln |\sec x | + C$
Tomi
kheerii
Use properties of logarithms
oh so that is 1 - cos x
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2cosx =√3 solve over the domain 0≤ x ≤ 2π
Are you sure that you have wrote the domain correctly?
Thanks I didn't see that
I know it's quadrants 1 and 4 cuz it's positive and cos
But I'm not sure what the 2 means
Like what it changes
X =3





