#help-36
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The problem is in Z team now
^
is this Permu nd Combi
yeah
Good problem
That approach ain't getting us anywhere
yea nah havent revised PnC from a while
obv it wont, ydk permu nd combi
Ikr
I have studied
hm ok wht
Later I'll tell
werent you confused w trignomentry a while back
from adv 2024
ya it i
Later
👍🏼
Leme
Idk if it's wrong
But i got smthin wait
!nosols again, as a reminder
As a helper, please do not give out answers that could be copied as a homework solution. Have the student work through the problem themselves and guide them along the way.
man dw we both arent able to figure it out
mostly trying things lol
hence, as a reminder. I've seen quite a lot of newcoming helpers just slap the solution and call it a day
okay i guess
umm sorry to ping but do you have any idea how i can begin with that q
well I didn't look at it closely, but I guess I'll take a look
i appreciate it
whats that
assume no restriction exists, then subtract all invalid cases
somewhat like this?
I don't see why it would be set theory, it's a combinatorics counting technique
incomplete
2 x 8C1 only deals with the first individual in team X. what about the other 7?
Total - n(A U B)?
I would probably focus less on seeing these as sets
and just seeing these as events
I mean I suppose you can see them as sets, then which the final answer is exactly what you said.
2 x 8C1 will give me all the teams which can formed when S1 is a member right
or rather, it will be using inclusion exclusion.
all the possible team X, yes. but you want the overall number of team comps, don't you?
it was from the sets pov
N(Y)=120
like i say the invalid teams of X is that and then find the invalid teams of Y
and subtract w set identities
N(Z)=6
you know what? perhaps you should finish your idea and then I'll take a look at it
and see? what did I say about nosols?
Am I right?
not only did you not even provide any explanation about where these numbers came from
Bro
Let me
Tell
X= 8•7
=56
then you have failed to understand the question at all
its wrong
Then u explain if u get it
why do you think I'm stepping in to help?
but I'm not gonna dish out the full explanation right away
please let me do my thing with OP
now OP, back to this
you may ping me once when you're done
K
I will drop OP a hint: the final answer is a 3-digit number
this has to be the ans
compute it and let me know
but from the grouping it does look promising, even though that is not how I am looking at things
i messed up the multiplication while doing manually so used a calculator
665
correct
now if you wanted to know how I saw it
yeah
I didn't use any sets
from the get-go, team Z is kinda picking up what's left after teams X and Y are assigned, so it is always 4C4 = 1
so we don't have to really consider team Z
then I know that if I count the total, I will then need to subtract the case where A is in team X, and where B is in team Y.
but if I do that, then I would have subtracted any case where BOTH A is in X and B is in Y one time too many, so I need to add any case where both A is in X and B is in Y once
i didnt understand the 2nd part of this
so that ends up being:
(9C2 x 7C3) - (8C1 x 7C3) - (8C2 x 6C2) + (7C1 x 6C2) = 665
specifically?
entire thing
but if I do that, then I would have subtracted any case where BOTH A is in X and B is in Y one time too many, so I need to add any case where both A is in X and B is in Y once
so this part
yeah]
yeah
but now let's say I've subtracted the cases where A is in X
amongst those cases will be cases where B is also in Y
anyway this
oh
wait
i get it
so thats what i did right
like n(A int B)
basically what you did (which is called inclusion-exclusion)
is the 1 case which you added
just without the set-theoretic framing
oh new term for me
because for a problem like this having to come up with sets is a minor bit slower for me
oh i see
implicitly I guess I'm still using sets. but the main computation is combinatorics
either way, you seem well-versed enough to be comfy with it anyway so that works enough for me
anything else?
nope
aight
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did i start this correctly? this question is very confusing
why y2'=0y1+0y2=0
i dont know, before someone told me that i should set y' = y1 and y = y2
thats all i got, i dont really understand how to do this problem at all
yes
though i would do y1=y and y2=y' rather be cause of the order
That's how you get y2'
okay let me try this on my paper
@keen hare Has your question been resolved?
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Anybody here familiar with Gina Wilson all things algebra ? If so please dm
Please don't occupy multiple help channels.
You should probably go to #book-recommendations if you haven't been there yet
i think the one they are referring to is some courses not book
It's a website/course, yh
[this is also a duplicate channel, yh]
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numiro 15
what I did was convert cos into sin by sending to the other side
then found values of xsqr +x =0
is this method correct
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Please help me to solve it, idk what to do
,rccw
hi
Hello
so what are your thoughts for part i?
Idk, put 300 in place of x?
you want to put something in place of x, but not 300
Idk what to put
can you explain what h(x) is?
and what x represents
It's height function
it is the height at any x, then when the van begins moving, what is x?
0
yes! try solving (I) now
Ok I am
it seems to me that x is the horizontal distance travelled by the van
and h(x) is the height along the x-direction
yes but 3 what?
do you realize the answer to (i) now
Hmmm....
read the last line of the question
3 times 100?
where h(x) is the…
yup. 3 times 100 meters, specifically
yes but (in 100m)
So i have proved (i).. now how to solve second?
Yes it's proved now
do you know what turning points of a graph are?
No
Yeah ik
do you know differenciation?
Yeah
at any point of a graph, where the derivative is zero, that is, at the local maximum, minimum, or the point of inflection of a graph
it is the turning point
a cubic graph has two
a turning point is a place where the function changes from concave up to concave down, or the other way around
do you get it?
Then solve for x?
apologies, I got mixed up with point of inflection. Ignore what I said
the ATMs exist at the turning points of the path traced by the van ( x , h(x) )
the turning points of the path are at where h'(x) = 0
(II) requires you to deduce the location of the ATMs
I would assume you need to state the x-coordinate, and the h(x) (height) they exist at
sure
don't assume. be certain
Ohkk
Wait one of the x values has to be rejected right?
I think i have to put 2 and 4 in h(x) right? Then substract them
Let me guess
there are two ATMs
No there r two ATMs
Oh
yes
that would give you the height at 2, and 4
it appears to be
does the book not have answers at the end?
It's the question from my final examination
A past question paper? I see
be sure to realize the concepts this time hahah
Sure haha
What about the last one ? What do i have to do?
think about it
I don't understand what the question is asking about
Do you understand the first sentence?
Yes difference between the heights of location of atms is more than 1 km
Ohh yes it's refering to 3 part
if it is more than 1000m then we need 1 more guard
My answer is coming 800m.. which is less than 1000m so no guard needed
LoL thanks a lot dude
I feel so bad now for leaving this question
No worries. you can .close now
.close
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can someone help me read slope fields, I dont know how to differentiate between the bottom two
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@lament gale Has your question been resolved?
Try integrating it. The answer is that the slope field is reversed (at least that's what I think)
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hello, help me check answer ples
First one is good.
For the second part, what's an easy example of a function you know which is continuous everywhere and differentiable everywhere but at one point?
f(x) = 1/x?
f(x) = lnx?
Hmmm there's an easier one.
It's defined on all of R.
It's continuous
But there's a pesky corner
f(x) = |x|?
1/x works too btw
how is it differentiable
Oh yeah true
?
Verify that it satisfies the formula you have and that the limit exists. Is it differentiable at x=0?
Ill try to hint at it, try to think why the definition of derivative includes f(x0) either for left or right evaluation
|x|?
Yes either one
because we are finding if it's differentiable at x = x0?
wdym either one
--You can do 1/x as well as Laplace transform said--
But beyond that, what could be the problem if instead of f(x0) we use the limit of x tending to x0
I searched on google and didnt understand, whats laplace transform
Which is the same as x0 + h with h -> 0
im laplace transform (my nick)
lol no idea
then f(x0) may not exist
but everything surrounding it may
What happens if f(x0) doesnt exist and we try to evaluate the derivative
we can't
Not necesarilly.
it is given in the first sentence, how
Wait actually why does 1/x work as a counter example though? The limit exists? Am I tripping?
In this part of the problem, we want to show why that isnt suitable as a definition for the derivative.
limit to the left + limit to the right = 0
so the derivative at x = 0, equal 0 too
Shouldn't it be 1/x^2?
quick sec.
I see I see
The two sides slope version runs into the problem of not being able to tell if the function is well defined at x0
now that i think abt it, yea 1/x isnt well defined on 0
got it got it
holy this is tricky
Btw, |x| isnt exactly a good example
yea I dont know how to differentiate that
the left sided derivative, the right sided derivative and the two sided slope all exists.
but they dont match
Yes but isn't the point to find such a function for which the limit with +h and -h exists, but for which the function isn't differentiable?
For |x| that limit exists, it's 0. But it's not differentiable at x=0.
For 1/x the limit doesn't exist. 1/x^2 works
the problem is that youre assuming a function being differentiable is already a thing we can conclude.
And we want to show why the two-sided slope isnt a good method to tell if thats the case.
They're asking whether it is necessary that if that limit exists, then the function is differentiable.
1/x isn't a counter-example since that limit doesn't exist in this case.
hey may I ask what the intial problem statement is cuz I would like to help if I can
part b from my pic ples
ok
this
oh no mb, wrong two sided, lmao.
I now understand the reasoning on why it's false, but I don't get why this reasoning makes sense given that it is well-defined on x0
The first part is essentially showing that differentiable implies two sided limit exists.
The second part is showing the converse (or that the converse doesn't hold, which it doesn't).
So you need an example where the two sided limit exists and the function isn't differentiable.
isn't differentiable at that one specific point right
Yes
I think any function that is not differentiable at a point but is even around that point works as a counter example.
1/x^2 works and is even more striking since you can argue that 1/x^2 is not even continuous at 0.
But |x| is the easier/typical example.
what but isn't 1/x not cont. at 0 too?
The issue with 1/x is that the limit doesn't actually exist.
If you plug it in the limit, you end up computing $\lim_{h\to 0}\frac{\frac{1}{h} - \frac{1}{-h}}{2h} = \lim_{h\to 0}\frac{1}{4h^2}$, which blows up to infinity. (Should've been 1/h^2 but same thing)
Azyrashacorki
but for |x|, do I need to split cases
where x neg and pos
nvm lemme just write first
how do we bound |x0 + h| - |x0|
I mean can I write lower bound as |x0 + h - x0|?
What you get when you plug in $|x|$ for the function at $x_0 = 0$ is $\lim_{h\to 0} \frac{|h| - |-h|}{2h}$.
Azyrashacorki
shoot i am tripping, its supposed to be f(x0 + h) - f(x0 - h)
mb
why u write x0 = 0
the question generalizes it to x0
Well you want a counter example at a certain point.
ah right lol
The claim in a) is "differentiable at x_0 => symmetrically differentiable at x_0".
In b) you're trying to show that the converse doesn't hold.
yes understood
The problem essentially shows that this new limit is a weaker notion of derivative (it's called a symmetric derivative). Weaker in the sense that differentiable => symmetrically differentiable, but not the converse.
There is an analog of this I think for the second derivative which, in this case does yield a correct equivalent definition of the second derivative without having to take the derivative of the derivative.
I see
well after reaching this, do I find upper and lower bound then squeeze
or check 0+ and 0-
but denominator is also 0
But for any nonzero h, the numerator is already 0
So the expression is 0 for any h < 0 and any h > 0.
You can take the left and right sided limits if you wish but it shouldn't be a surprise that the limit of something which is always 0 (except at 0) is 0.
yes
understood
then for the 2nd half, I just show lim when x -> 0+ and 0- is not equal and conclude its not differentiable at x = x0 righ?
x = 0
hello everyone
Yes you may show that |x| is not differentiable like that explicitly using left/right sided limits.
any other easier way? I would like your view on this
No I think if you're using the definition then that's how you'd show it's not differentiable.
It depends how in depth you want to go. To me it would be sufficient to explain that you know |x| is not differentiable at x=0, but showing it directly is great.
ok just wanna confirm once more, I should find lhs limit = -1 and rhs limit = 1 right?
Yep, those essentially agree with the fact that the right branch is a line with slope 1 and the left branch is a line with slope -1.
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Task 11. (0–2)
For a performance in a certain theater, tickets were sold according to the following price list.
A total of 200 tickets were sold for this performance.
After paying the costs related to organizing the performance, amounting to 25% of the ticket sales revenue, the organizers had 4665 zł left.
Calculate the number of reduced-price tickets sold for this performance. Show your calculations.
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Is my understanding of why $g(x) \neq 0 \forall x\neq a$ . First we can see if $g(x) = 0 \forall x \in I$ it would be the limit of something undefined which is undefined. Then if it is $g(x) = 0$ for some $x\in I$ I think we would just have the same issue because as x approaches a there would be points where the limit is undefined
BigBen
if g is 0 at one point in I you would be able to solve this by making I smaller so that the point goes outside
essentially the condition is so that it makes sense to take a limit
there are weaker conditions where it makes sense as well but for the purposes of what the author will talk about this is all you need to know
im not following
a limit of a function that is not defined at a point can exist
they're just called removable discontinuities
I was thinking of say f (x)/0
ok so say we want to take lim_(x → 0) f(x)/g(x) in I = [-2, 2] but g(1) = 0
it can sometimes happen that if you had x approaching a where g(a) = 0
but it's like continuous and differentiable
(alongside f)
it may be true that
to solve this we would take a new I to be [-0.8, 0.8]
the limit can exist via l'hopital's rule
im saying that it was 0 to begin with
i'm sorry but the issue you're talking about isn't related to the problem they have on hand
I don't see why we take a smaller interval
this is so f(x)/g(x) is defined in I \ {0}
for example you would actually have an issue if g was 0 at all 1/2, 1/3, 1/4, 1/5, etc.
so we change the interval to make the quotient defined. but what about removable discontinuites?
you don't care if g looks like this, f(x)/g(x) will still make sense
what if it was just undefined at say 0 1 and 2
then you would take I = [-0.8, 0.8] which excludes 1 and 2
you don't care about 0 since that is your a
so then my initial thought was right we need our quotient to be defined on the interval we are working on
it was in the right direction but hopefully what i said brought you some clarification
in practice you will not need to worry about this at all
the condition is imposed there solely to restrict the class of functions g you can talk about
ok so to make sure the distinciton you made it sure it could be undefined at some points but then you can change the interval
but this class will include all nonzero rational functions
yeah
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why is the domain x > 0 and not x =/ 0
the domain of a differential equation solution should have no gaps in it
so anything including and bigger than 1?
it can go before 1, just can't go past a discontinuity
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ignore the answer on the right it's wrong,i need to calculate the elements of matrice X if X*A=C-X
only thing i knew how to do so far is make X*A+X=C
@frigid laurel Has your question been resolved?
That's true, one step further,
$$ X(A+I) = C $$
wifix
$$ X = C (A+I)^{-1} $$
If $ A+ I $ is invertible
wifix
And obviously $A+I$ is invertible, since $\det(A+I) \ne 0$ .
wifix
@frigid laurel Has your question been resolved?
thank you so much man
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out of context but how does it feel to write latex by hand
or did you copy the codes
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how do you prove this theorem using the theorem from above
@gentle zephyr Has your question been resolved?
Is the sequence ${b_n-a_n}_{n\in\N}$ monotone? Is it bounded?
Azyrashacorki
unsure
Then check.
yes because the limit of bn - an is 0
Well that's what you're trying to prove.
so L = 0 and then bn - an is bounded and monotonic
oops
Actually no it's assumed. Is there any conclusion to this "consequence"?
care to elaborate?
The consequence you've written down is saying "If I_n are intervals such that 1) and 2) hold".
There is no conclusion.
The conclusion should be something like "then there is some x in R such that the intersection of all the I_n is {x}."
Consider the sequences ${a_n}{n\in\N}$ and ${b_n}{n\in\N}$. Show that both are bounded and monotone. This will use condition 1) in how $I_n$ are defined.\
Then you can use condition 2) to show they actually converge to the same value.
Azyrashacorki
Then you can show that this value, say x, lies in the intersection, and that it further is the only point in the intersection.
how?
Is ${a_n}{n\in\N}$ bounded? If so by what?\
Is ${a_n}{n\in N}$ monotone?
Azyrashacorki
but i dont understand
What don't you understand?
idk if its boubded or mone
Do you understand intuitively why the general claim is true (that the intersection of intervals with those properties is just a single point)?
Okay. Now a_n is just the sequence of lower endpoints of those intervals.
Do you think it's bounded?
what?
The intervals are [a_n, b_n]
The sequence with terms a_n is the sequence of left endpoints of the intervals.
I'm asking you whether you think it's bounded or not.
If you don't know or you're unsure, try to come up with some bound you think may work, or an explanation as to why you think it's not bounded (if that's what you think).
wdym
a_n is the left endpoint of the interval [a_n,b_n]
yes
The sequence (a_n) is the sequence of left endpoints of the intervals [a_n, b_n].
wut
wdym?
x_n is a banana
The sequence (x_n) is a sequence of bananas.
yes
That's the same thing. Replace banana by "left endpoint of the interval [a_n, b_n]"
ah i see but how come xn is banana and (xn) is a sequence of banana
Because each x_n is a banana?
(xn)_[x >= n]
Yes. I'm saying that you should consider the sequence (a_n) where a_n is the left endpoint of I_n for each n.
AH
So now this
how to prove is bounded
From how the intervals are defined, how come can a_n not just go to infinity?
Regardless of whether b_n - a_n goes to 0. From condition 1) alone you should be able to find a bound.
what
In+1 = [an+1, bn+1]
In supset In+1 => an >= an+1
maybe?
Note that since $I_{n+1} \subseteq I_{n}$ for all $n$, in particular, $a_n \in [a_1, b_1]$ for all $n$.
Azyrashacorki
Does that give you bounds on a_n?
well ordering principle?
No
It's just by definition. The first interval contains the second interval which contains the third interval ...
how did you get this
So any one of the I_n is a subset of I_1
sure
lower bound for an ?
why
It should give you both a lower and an upper bound on a_n if you agree that a_n is in [a_0, b_0].
n in N so n >=1
how?
Do you agree that a_n is in [a_1, b_1] for all n?
I'm not sure
Well if [a_n, b_n] is a subset of [a_1, b_1] for all n ...
yes
Then it should be clear that a_n is in [a_1, b_1] for all n
no the other way around
No, ... [a_3,b_3] is a subset of [a_2, b_2] is a subset of [a_1, b_1]
In supset In+1 forall n in N
Read the statement again.
ln = [an, bn] so [an, bn] supset ln+1
if n = 1 then
[a1, b1] supset l2
and l2 supset l3
so l1 supset ln
Yes, which means that a_n is in [a_1, b_1] for all n.
sure.
Ok. so is (a_n) bounded?
By what
a1 and b1
Ok, so the sequence (a_n) is bounded.
both act as lower and upper bound
Now why is it monotone?
we need to prove is decreasing or increasing sequence
Yes. Do you think (a_n) is increasing or decreasing?
how would I know dat
Again it comes from the fact that I_(n+1) is a subset of I_n.
How can you conclude that a_{n+1} >- a_n from that?
an+1 in ln
a1 is lesser than or equal than every other
unsure
You said yourself that a_(n+1) is in [a_n, b_n]
Can you conclude that a_(n+1) >= a_n?
how
What does it mean for a_(n+1) to be in [a_n, b_n] in inequality notation?
an = L
ln = [an, bn]
l1 supset l2
l2 supset l3
l1 supset ln
bn in [a1, b1]
ln supset ln+1
in particular a1 <= bn <= b1 forall n in N
so (bn) is bounded
ln supset ln+1 so bn+1 in an <= bn+1 <= bn
so (bn) is bounded
and (bn) is monotonically decreasing
@blissful meadow
Yes, so (bn) converges to some value M.
Now, if you know (b_n - a_n) converges to 0 and both (a_n) and (b_n) converge to L and M respectively, can you say something about L and M?
Yes.
So now let's call x = L = M.
Show that x is in I_n for each n.
Show that if y is in I_n for each n, then y=x.
how
Start with the first one. Why must x be >= than any a_n? Why must x be <= than any b_n?
unsure
a_n is an increasing sequence with limit x.
so
It should be clear that a_n <= x for all n. If not, then assume that a_n > x for some n and show a contradiction.
if lim an = L1 and (an) is increasing and bounded how is L1 = sup(an)
the proof seems hard
this one is a little easier to read
@gentle zephyr Has your question been resolved?
@gentle zephyr is there translation of the original question?
yes of course
can you translate it, is it just "prove monotone convergence theorem"?
no
no to "translate it" or no to the latter or no to both
yes to the former no to the latter
i see pls do translate it
this latex bot sucks
if texbot don't work ill use the tex bot built into my brain
\noindent\fbox{
\begin{minipage}{\textwidth}
\vspace{0.2cm}
If $(a_n){n \in \mathbb{N}}$ is a monotonic and bounded sequence of real numbers, then there exists $\lim a_n = \ell$, or equivalently, $(a_n){n \in \mathbb{N}}$ converges.
\vspace{0.2cm}
\end{minipage}
}
\vspace{0.6cm}
\noindent \textbf{Some consequences}
\vspace{0.4cm}
\noindent \textbf{Nested Intervals Theorem}
\vspace{0.3cm}
\noindent Given a closed interval $I = [a,b]$
\begin{equation*}
I_1 = [a_1, b_1] \supseteq I_2 = [a_2, b_2] \supseteq \dots \supseteq I_n = [a_n, b_n]
\end{equation*}
\vspace{0.2cm}
\begin{center}
INTERVAL LENGTH = $b - a = \ell(I)$
\end{center}
\vspace{0.4cm}
\noindent For each $n \in \mathbb{N}$, let $I_n = [a_n, b_n]$ be a closed interval on the real line such that the following conditions hold:
\vspace{0.2cm}
\begin{itemize}
\item[1)] $I_n \supseteq I_{n+1} \quad \forall n \in \mathbb{N}$
\vspace{0.2cm}
\item[2)] $\lim_{n \to +\infty} \ell(I_n) = 0 = \lim_{n \to +\infty} (b_n - a_n)$
\end{itemize}
\vspace{0.4cm}
\noindent Then there exists a unique $x \in \mathbb{R}$ such that $\displaystyle x \in \bigcap_{n=1}^{+\infty} I_n$
\vspace{0.3cm}
\noindent $\iff x \in I_n \quad \forall n \ge 1$
which one do you need help with, or both?
OK do you have least upper bound property from class?
what is it
supremum of a bounded above set always exists if you are working with real numbers
yeah we can use this
well ${a_i:i\in \mathbb N}$ is a set. And we can set the least upper bound to be $a$. Show that $a=\mathrm{lim}_{i\to infty} a_i$
oh texit bot is offline that's why
you can try copying the text to your local latex thing
what does it say?
i am not in my home sorry
@blissful meadow
@covert tree
what?
I put your sequence into a set
that set is a bounded above set, and by Least upper bound property it has a supremum: a.
thats illegal
how so
the sequence is bounded not the set
Yeah use the fact that the sequence is bounded, to show that the set I gave is bounded
the set is this
this proof seems non standard
how so?
.
the first step is literally the same
"define S to be the set in terms of {a_n} and let L be the supremum of S"
i think their notation is a bit weird
it should be (a_n)_n\in \mathbb N
then proof that the sequence converges to the sup
in N not in Z
this is only the first step
mb typo
care to elaborate
supremum exists
supremum of a upper bounded set exists
^^^
how?
first try to show that the set is bounded
i thought u said you can use this fact
that supremum exists for bounded above sets
how do you know this set is bounded...
you use the fact that the sequence is bounded
what does it mean for the sequence to be bounde?
the sequence is bounded the set isnt
what does it mean for the set to be bounded
no the set is bounded. you can prove it
there exists a supremum
use the fact that the sequence is bounded to show that the set is bounded.
I think you are confusing the definition of bounded with the stronger thing that supremum exists
if the sequence is bounded from above then there exists some n in N such that an <= ai forall i in N
this is for a set
yes
yeah so its upperly bounded
there exists some upper bound
@covert tree
so you can see how (a_n) being bounded above would imply {a_n} being bounded above
how so?
give it a try, try to show it from definition I gave above
yeah try and show this
yes is proved
show pls
suppose (an) is bounded above then there exists some upper bound for (an) so call it b such that b >= an forall n in N, then grab every an in N and put it in a set call it S = {an : forall n in N} then since there exists some b >= an forall n in N, HOWEVER IS B IN S?
b is not necesarrily in S
good now you see
that (a_n) being bounded immediately givea {a_n} being bounded
so now, by what you said, supremum of this set must exists
Let's go back to what I said:
we have a least upper bound (ie, supremum), a. It should be somewhat intuitive that a should be the limit
so I want you to try to show that $a$ is the limit
qwertytrewq
oh bot is back
latex bot sucks
wut
a is defined above in the image
^^^
what's b_n?
and a is the minimum possible value that satisfy this
is not easy or intuitive
how
definition of supremum
we are trying to prove a is the supremum
we cannot assume it
@covert tree
u said this^
so u r saying we can't use the least upper bound property?
is it for sequences or sets?
for sets
sets have the least upper bound property
In mathematics, the least-upper-bound property (sometimes called completeness, supremum property or l.u.b. property) is a fundamental property of the real numbers. More generally, a partially ordered set X has the least-upper-bound property if every non-empty subset of X with an upper bound has a least upper bound (supremum) in X. Not every (par...
why is why I asked if we can assume this
if we cannot the proof goes a bit differently
we can.
and much longer
try it urself: try to use proof by contradiction
if a_n does not converge to a
show that a will not be the supremum
Note that this is a general case which isn't really necessary to continue the proof you were already doing Renato (although it's good to know). It's relatively simple to show that a_n <= x and b_n >= x without invoking the supremum property.
how
Assume you have some a_N for which a_N > x and show (using the monotonicity and convergence of (a_n)), that you get a contradiction.
(an) is bounded from above
in particular there exists some p >= an forall n in N
The point is that you want to show that x is an upper bound.
(of (a_n))
and then a lower bound of (b_n)
whats bn and x
You don't need to be rude. <@&268886789983436800>
Please remove this message.
That is extremely disrespectful to OP.
People have rights to ask, and you do not have to swear at him and move on.
They've magically disappeared
the proof we were working on, In is an interval such that In = [an, bn] , we were proving the nested interval theorem
While OP had mentioned that they needed help with everything they were really already done with showing that (a_n) and (b_n) converge to the same limit in their problem. What was left was showing that this limit, x, was contained in each interval and was thus in the intersection.
yeah can use monotone convergence for that
fairly simple afterwards
I thiught everything included the monotone conv theorem
like here
No they were proving a corollary
oh bruh all these time i coulda just assumed mvt? lol
If there is such an a_N, then by monotonicity a_n > x for any n >= N. Try to conclude that the limit wouldn't be x in that case.
(a contradiction)
i might need more hints
Use epsilon = a_N - x > 0 in the definition of the limit.
lim aN = x?
No. The fact that $\lim_{n\to \infty} a_n = x$ means the usual definition of the limit : $\forall \epsilon > 0, \exists K \in \N$ such that $$ n \ge K \implies |a_n - x| < \epsilon$$.
I'm saying that you can take epsilon = a_N - x to get a contradiction to the fact that x is the limit.
contradiction like what
Azyrashacorki
If you use epsilon = a_N - x, by assumption that a_N > x, there won't be a K like the definition requires.
The contradiction is that the limit of (a_n) is x, but the above would mean that it's not.
So there is no such a_N > x.
(an) is upper bounded so there exists some x in N such that x >= an forall n in N
so if epsilon = aN - x
then epsilon <= 0
@blissful meadow
Again, the goal is to show that x, the one you've found before, is an upper bound itself.
x is the limit of (a_n) you computed.
You need to show that it's in the intersection of all the intervals, so in particular, you need to show that a_n <= x <= b_n for all n.
To show that a_n <= x, you assume NOT, that is that there is some N such that a_N > x, and you can contradict the (proven) fact that the limit of (a_n) is x using the argument I gave you above.
suppose there exists some N such that aN > x then ?
since aN > x and x >= an forall n in N
we get aN > an forall n in N
You don't know that x >= a_n forall n in N. That's what you're proving.
Since a_N > x, and (a_n) is increasing, then a_n > x for any n > N.
Now use epsilon = a_N - x in the definition of the limit.
forall epsilon > 0 there exists some K in N such that N >= K => |aN - x| < aN - x
For all $\epsilon > 0$, there is some $K \in \N$ such that $n \ge K \implies |a_n - x| < \epsilon.$.
wut
Azyrashacorki
This is the definition of the limit.
In particular, since $a_N - x > 0$, there should be some $K \in \N$ such that $n \ge K \implies |a_n - x| < a_N - x$.
Azyrashacorki
x - aN < an - x < aN - x
Is that possible if $a_n > x$ for any $n \ge N$?
Azyrashacorki
the absolute value complicates things
It doesn't. Eventually you'll have a_n > x, so |a_n - x| = a_n -x >= a_N-x.
what if an < x
ƴeah since an is monotonically increasing if n >= N then an >= aN > x
@gentle zephyr Has your question been resolved?
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im not sure whats happening in the denominator, can someone explain
they multiplied it with a conjugate since a^n-b^n=(a-b)(a^(n-1)+a^(n-2)b+...+b^(n-1) where in this case, since the powers are 1/6 they just kinda did it with 1/6 at the bottom
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not sure what to even start to manipulate here
i wish
i did try to find the roots though just in case if it actually was
i dont think it is still
consider multiplying both sides of the first equation by (x-1) and you should recognise something special about x
diff of cubes?
is there anything special about the roots of x^2 + x + 1 = 0?
yes
i actually did that but i didnt know what to do after (x^3-1)/(x-1)=0
not that i know of
um how did you get that?
so, diff of cubes, not sum of cubes
still wrong
oh wait
cube roots of unity
i see
yes
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What makes a sine or cosine parent function positive or negative
parent function is a strange term, so im going to imply you mean sine function and cosine function
unit circle. have you heard of it?
-# hello this is a test message so it looks like a lot of ppl are answering
I mean the parent function like g(x)=cosx
tuff
jobs bro jobs
this is spam and has no merit
looks like Itsuki wasn't even needed for that to happen. alright.
fahhh
if further explanation required, distances to the RIGHT of the origin on the x-axis are negative.
I dont really get it
okay oaky sooo sososo-
okay but like can one person take over instead of the whole of #discussion
LOOK AT THE RED LINE HERE-
let's just shut up for now and let @gritty chasm do ts
wish some people got that memo
the wheel of truth spun and said annie should take over
Doesn’t it have to do anything with the function being even or odd in a graph
if further explanation required, distances to the RIGHT of the origin on the x-axis are negative. therefore if you consider the definition of the sine, and let's say the angle is in the second quadrant, then:\
$$\cos A = \frac{\text{Adjacent}}{{Hypotenuse}}$$
Now observe that the hypotenuse is ALWAYS taken positive in such situations(its the distance b/w two points).
the adjacent on the other hand, is the distance from the origin in the negative direction of the x-axis. so it is negative. i'll quickly pull up a figure if you don't get it. (so the cosine is negative)
Annie Maqionde
yes, but the unit circle is a much better explanation
here you go.
its a bit small but its visible
the hypotenuse is positive,
the adjacent is on the negative x-axis therefore it is negative
@dusk shoal from the diagram here, can you tell me whether sine is positive or negative?
use the definition of the sine as opposite/hypotenuse
its not visible, the text isnt readable
well (ig you dont need it)
the text isnt really required
yeah
So basically sine = opposite/hypotenuse
But I don’t really get how to determine if either is negative or positive
the hypotenuse is ALWAYS positive
did you get why the adjacent is negative?
its on the negative x-axis
correct?
left of the origin
Yeah
now, tell me, is the OPPOSITE side, is it on the positive y-axis, or negative y-axis?
Positive
it can be parallel to also, you just have to tell me whether its 'above' or 'below' the x-axis
precisely
so the value of the opposite is positive
therefore sine is?
Positive
Since it’s sine = +/+ right
Basically if the adjacent is above the x axis it’s positive and below it’s negative
Hypotenuse is always positive
the adjacent here is on the x-axis, is it on the negative x axis, or the positive x axis?
And adjacent if it’s in the positive area of y axis then it’s + and vice versa
eh
Positive?
I mean the value of x=0 can’t be either right?
ok so lemme make a quick table.\
- Hypotenuse: always positive\
- Adjacent: On the negative x-axis(left of origin): $-$\
On the positive x-axis(right of origin): $+$\\ - Opposite: Above the x-axis(or on the positive y-axis): $+$\
Below the x-axis(or on the negative y-axis): $-$
Annie Maqionde
-# not to interruput but is it okay if i add a bit of visuality to ur current explination?
@dusk shoal use this always.
ofc.
you can really see this in this gif here!!
notice how sin(the red line) is potive when above the x axis and negative when its below)
and cos is pos when its to the right of the y axis and neg when its to the left)
ASTC guys
Okay I got it
-# yes but this is why ASTC exsists
Sine is basically the y axis and cosine the x axis
-# in this gif yes!
And if sine is on the upper region then it’s positive
And if cosine is on the right then it’s positive
And vice versa
Tysm
exactly!!! as annie said earlier here^!!
and tan would just be sin/cos which is why tan is POS in the 3rd quadrant!!
!done
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