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for b) i am unsure whether it is a function or not
Not sure how much this helps, but you may want to try to assume that (x, 2^(m)) and (x, 2^(m+r)) are both in the relation and try to derive a contradiction.
thanks that sounds like a good idea
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I need help
which one
We can start with 13
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1
$\frac{(4z^{-2}x^3)^2}{2z^5x^2}$
Krish
first, start by using the identity $(xy)^a = x^a \cdot y^a$ and rewrite the numerator.
Krish
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Given triangle ABC inscribed in a circle with center I, ID is perpendicular to BC at D, M is the midpoint of BC, prove that BAD = MAC
Please help me
can you do a sketch
isnt ABC supposed to be inside the circle
or am i tripping
i think you drew it the other way around
abc outside
do you have the original question
this
noo abc outside and the round inside
that is not what the question says
do you have an image
bruh abc is supposed to be inscribed in a circle
<@&268886789983436800>
yes this is what it should look like
you can just ping once
the circle should be on the outside
gotta make sure
i am bad at english sorry
it's alright
this is right
i need bad=cam
is this hard ex?
i feel it is insane
what is your native language
i am vietnamese
ok thanks
then we can worry about translation
cho tam giác abc nội tiếp đường tròn tâm i, id vuông góc với bc tại d, m là trung điểm của bc, chứng minh rằng bad = mac
Chứng minh rằng góc bad = mac
yeah it appears that the circle should be on the outside

cho tam giác abc ngoại tiếp đường tròn tâm i, id vuông góc với bc tại d, m là trung điểm bc, chứng minh rằng bad = mac
cho tam giác abc ngoại tiếp đường tròn tâm i, id vuông góc với bc tại d, m là trung điểm bc, chứng minh rằng bad = mac
this
hope you help me
it is correct if question says circile is inscribed in triangle
if you had a image of question would be better
!original
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
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i dont understand how to do Q11
what’s confusing
write out what u_r and u_r-1 are
how?
^
^
do you know factorial version for n choose r
n-r!?
🤔
i dont know
$\binom{n}{r} = \frac{n!}{r!(n - r)!}$
knief
write n choose r - 1 like this as well
this ratio isof ur+1 and ur so you would get your results for r>3 instead
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Hello i need help
my question
Two large and 1 small pumps can fill a swimming pool in 4 hours. One large and 3 small pumps can also fill the same swimming pool in 4 hours. How many hours will it take 4 large and 4 small pumps to fill the swimming pool? (We assume that all large pumps are similar and all small pumps are also similar.)
.pin
hello
what have you tried
wait but dont i need to find time??
Yeah you do, but first
we have to find the values of r and R
So that we can apply the third eqn, t(4R + 4r)=1
ohhhh
wait so now
t= 5 over 3 hours
which equals to 1 hr 40 mins
wait is that right??
no
.
i remembered in class i did smth like this before
Yup thats correct!
but i still dont understand
howd you calc T
without r and R
,w 4(2x + y) = 1 ; 4 ( x + 3y) = 1
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btw ans doesnt seem right
Yeah that what wolfram did too
what does over mean sorry different region
go to channel and roles
ok
You can get your helper role there
ok ty
And then if you need any basic knowledge, you can js read the rules and what not
okey
anymore?
Np!
no thats it
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yeah what about it ?
how do i do it
<@&268886789983436800>
there's an explicit formula to compute that x* using A and b
$x^* = (A^T A)^{-1} A^T b$
aPlatypus
bruh how tf am i suppose to remember that
for (a^t times a)^-1 thats same thing as doing a^t times a first and then finding the inverse of it?
yes
does it matter if its a^tb is done first instead
and that is multipled to (a^ta)^-1 instead
it doesn't
is that the same for the formula a=pdp^-1 if im tryna solve for one variable on the right side
if you compute dp^-1 or pd first it doesn't matter yes
if i solve for d i get d=app^-1
and p^-1=ap^-1d^-1
r those right
no you don't
i multiplied pp^-1 both sides
ok but multiplication ain't commutative, if you multiply on the left it has to stay on the left
like p^-1 a = p^-1 p dp^-1 = dp^-1 is correct from there
ap^-1 = .... = dp^-1 is not
so d=p^-1ap
and p=ad^-1p?
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Exercise g ive been trying to see what value it converges to, the guide says it converges to 0 but cant seem to get it to that
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Did you try writing out a few terms. n=2,3,4
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Two cats, tofu and chloe are walking in the park at night. Suppose that tofu is on $(0,0)$ and chloe is on $(m,n)$ for natural numbers $m,n$. The two cats move according to these rules: $\ (a)$ They take turns moving, where tofu moves first $\ (b)$ They only either move up or down (parallel to either the $x$ or $y$ axis) $\ (c)$ The distance in each move is in form $3^k$, where $k$ is a nonnegative integer. $\ (d)$ There can not be two moves of the same distance and the same direction (For example, if tofu moves to the right 3 units, both tofu and chloe may not move any distance of 3 in the $x$ axis, but can still move along the $y$ axis) $\$ Determine all pairs $(m,n)$ such that these two cats can meet.
Copter
i get thst you can just think in only one axis, and the same algorithm would apply for the other one and the distance moved would be in base 3
but i dont really know how to think of the (d) restriction
@lime crest Has your question been resolved?
its probably every natural m,n right
yeah
d) just doesn;t come up
2,0,1,2,0,2 whatever
it doesn't matter whose turn it is
2 turns remove a 2, cooperatively, 1 turn to remove 1
and you can remove 2*3^k too right
becuase it's the opposite direction
it's not clear if it's allowed I guess
kind of confusing rules
it is
6,0
cat goes left, 3,0
other cat goes right, 0,0
then you can just keep removing the base 3 representation of m until theyre at the same axis
the cool thing is you don;t care if you pass the turn
but what if we had like m = 2 + 2*3 + 2.3^2...
your idea was to remove 2*3^k you move to the right 3^k+1 and backwards 3^k right
but 3^k+1 would already be used somewhere here
no, i don't do this borrowing thing
oh oki
youre saying like cat a moves right 3^k and cat b moves left 3^k?
that contradicts (d) im pretty sure
by "direction" they mean one axis
left or right and up or down
theres probably a way without borrowing
oh wait i think i got it
if we write m as a_i *3^i where ai is 0,1,2
we can change each ai = 2 to 1 or -1 and 0
then if its -1 just move backwards
if ai = 2 add a{i+1} by 1 and ai = -1
if any ak is 3 we just carry over to the next thing
does that work?
it's probably still possible, with borrowing
so it's just one cat
you should be able to make any number
each digit is just 1 or -1 now so they can just take turns removing each digit
i mean just skip the zeros
you get like 121222121211
handle the 11, and you have something that ends in 2, so you make that 2222222222, and fix
becomes -10000000001
by this
or are you trying to do another way
it's just one cat, that tries to reach the point
you can make any substring of 1 and 2, you make 111 at the end if necessary, then make 22222222 by borrowing from the 0
and make 1s, you can't make the last 2 into 1 but we don;t need to
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i want a biholomorphic map from the open unit disc to the intersection of upper half plane with the unit disc. i have been trying to think of such a map for quite awhile now but can't seem to find one.
@mint coyote Has your question been resolved?
@mint coyote Has your question been resolved?
@mint coyote though I admit to being out of my depth on this one, with some googling around I came across a math.se post that mentioned that a Bergmen kernel could be used to explicitly map biholomorphically from one domain to another.
Wikipedia happens to give the kernel for the unit disc, but it might be tricky or impossible to compute it for just the upper half of the disc from what little I've read. You might have better luck asking in #real-complex-analysis
https://mathoverflow.net/questions/107212/how-to-produce-a-biholomorphism
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bergman_kernel
I know this isn't a complete answer, but hopefully it's enough to signpost you in the right direction.
thanks for the information, my prof really pulled all stops in making the assignment for us it seems. i have never heard about a Bergman kernel before or that it pertains to our course or not but regardless thanks, i will research around myself.
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Hi, i have to resolve this
Gabryx412_
your result seems fine
book is wrong
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we construct the Cauchy closure of a $\mathcal V$-enriched category $\mathcal C$ as follows. a profunctor $F : \mathcal X \not\to \mathcal Y$ is $
F : \mathcal X \times \mathcal Y^{\rm op} \to \mathcal V,
$, with composition
$$
(FG)(X,Z) = \int^{Y \in \mathcal Y} F(Y,Z) \times G(X,Y),
$$
making the category of (small) category a 2-category. like $\mathbf 1$ is the category with only one element $$ and $\mathrm{Hom}(,*) = 1_{\mathcal V}$. the Cauchy closure of $\mathcal C$ is the profunctors $\mathbf 1 \not\to \mathcal C$ with right adjoints.
above are basic category constructions. but im here to ask 2 questions.
why the category is called Cauchy closure?, how to relate it to the ones studied in topology courses?
what is the inituition behind this construction? what lead people to this elegant but magic definition?
1048576Orz
go to the advanced channels
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is this true?
and if it isnt then why
these should follow from convention
not sure about (2) though
never seen that before
well you could do (2) but that should basically never be needed
would it be wrong if written that way?
no
and why wouldnt it be needed
well you are just basically never taking weird roots
so it wouldnt be needed because its rare to see this or because theres a better way of writing it?
rare to see this
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and you would rather writr it as g^1/f
"true" is the wrong way to put it. It's a notation. It can't be true or false.
It's clear enough such that I understand it without an explantion, which is good!
It's not commonly used, which is not good.
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In baby rudin, a surface is defined as a $C$-mapping from a compact set to an open set. So here the surface is the mapping. In my calculus textbooks, the surface is thought of as the image of the mapping, not the mapping itself. Two questions:
Annie Maqionde
i mean think of it this way
integration fundementally requires a parameterisation
hmm
When do we use which definition?
i think they are not the samr though
a mapping contains far more information than its image
Example?
like if you have a mapping that traces s asphere exactly once but another mapping that traces it three times
I don't know what a manifold is 
in your usual calculus definition that u are talking about they would represent the same surface
but rudin treats them separately
What is the advantage in doing so?
Like, where do we have to differentiate between surfaces with same images?
calculating flux and that sort i suppose?
like for a vector field
if you learnt about those
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you too!
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I need help with 1+1
I don't feel any helper with help you 1-1 if you don't provide context about subject, topic, etc.
or is this spam 
<@&268886789983436800> ban em for 11 days
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my thought is that x and y are in the format rcos(t) because its circles
oh wait
since this circle equation is not x^2+y^2=r^2, i dont need to square root the r
mb gang i just needed to type it out ig 😅
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I'm having a tough time understanding rank
\textbf{Definition - Rank:} If $x$ is a well-founded, define $\operatorname{rank}(x) = $ least ordinal $\beta$ such that $x \subseteq V_\beta$.
toast
well intuitively it makes sense i think, its the least ordinal "above" some set
so like rank(x) here is just beta
because Beta is the least ordinal such that X is a subset of the class V_\beta
so i had this assignment on a previous homework where i needed to find $rank(\cdot_\mathbb{N})$
toast
and currently i need to find $rank(5_\mathbb{Q})
and $5_\mathbb{Q} = [(5, 1)]_\approx$
toast
so for both of these problems, what would be the general strategy?
@manic leaf Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
So er... what is the actual question?
Just to be clear, an ordinal in this context is explicitly the set of all ordinals less than it I presume
So 1 = {∅}, ω = {0,1,2,...} where those are all the finite ordinals
yes
uhh how do i approach rank(*_N) and rank(5_Q)?
Now what is V_β?
Is that "the class of sets which can be given well orderings isomorphic to β"?
Or "isomorphic to α for some α ≤ β"?
\textbf{For all ordinals $\alpha$}, $V_\alpha = {$ all well founded $x :
and this
Ahhhh
\textbf{For all ordinals $\alpha$}, $V_\alpha = {$ all well founded $x : \operatorname{rank}(x) < \alpha}$
toast
i guess i have a tough time relating some sets to a "nearby ordinal"
like 5_q is supposed to represent equivalence classes of $[(5, 1)]_\approx$
Okay, fair enough. "The depth of the set"
ye
I mean, it was always gonna be something like that, just exactly how it was expressed I couldn't recall
So you were looking at *_N. I assume here N is well... identically ω?
right, the obvious first step is to expand out what *_N is as a set
Have you done that at all?
Okay, but that doesn't actually tell us what it is.
oh
It tells us the useful properties, but as a set what exactly is it?
I think we can derivive it like maybe all $((a, b), c) \in \cdot_\mathbb{N} \iff a \cdot_\mathbb{N} b = c$?
toast
Yes
ordered pair $(a, b) = {{a, b}, {a}}$
toast
Now we just need all of those elements to be in V_α for some α
and it needs to be the least one right
You mean α?
ye
Well
Generally, you'll find that if a number appears in an object, then the rank of that object will be at least the rank of the number (unless the object is defined weirdly)
Good idea, but I don't know why you chose that triple specifically
Well, feel free.
You won't need to know all that much about it, but knowing more can help with intuition about these things, so always helpful
rank(2,3) = 5
rank((2,3),6)) = 8?
well it seems like it doesnt matter that its. + or * since we're just finding the ranks of elements that look like ((a, b), c))?
so would the rank just be omega?
Yea, because any object ((a,b),c) has rank finitely more than the maximum rank of a,b and c.
ahh
So since the rank of a,b,c are always finite (in this particular set), the triple's rank is also finite
I'm sure you can write a more specific value for the rank of the triples of this form, but you don't need to.
Pretty much
Write out the elements and figure out approximately how deep they go. Then narrow down the specifics once you're comfortable with what you're working with.
so in the case of 5_q = {(5,1), (10, 2) ... }
it seems like all ordered pairings which probably measn the rank of 5_Q is also omega
whats the Qsn?
Probably, why though?
hmm why what?
I just mean, make sure you flesh out the reason for it properly when you write it out.
.pin
oh
I would argue every element in $5_\mathbb{Q}$ is in the form of (a, b) where $a, b \in \mathbb{Z}$ Elements of $Z$ are elements of $N$ in the form of (x, y), so rank seems to be a finite number
toast
As a bit of an extra challenge if I define ℝ by Dedekind cuts of ℚ (where ℚ are defined as above), what is the rank of ℝ?
oh that is my next question haha
rank(5_R)
well hm
Ah, I now see an issue with this. ℤ isn't made up of pairs of ℕ
o rlly?
It's made up of equivalence classes of pairs of ℕ
Yes, but the set of all of them has infinite rank
oh hmm
(Sanity check: if a set is infinite, then it can't have finite rank since there isn't space: |V_α| is finite whenever α is finite)
you're right
oops
wouldnt we be able to map each pair of N to some natural number, so the set acts like a set of all finite ordinals,
[side note: |V_α| is a finite cardinal while α is a finite ordinal which actually makes them different kinds of finite lol]
the rank of such a set is just omega
ah 😭 we haevnt gotten to cardinals yet, i think we get to them next week or week after
What do you mean by that?
so like the set of equvalence classes to like. 5_Z would look something like
{(5,0) (6, 1) (7, 2) .... }
we need to find some ordinal $V_\alpha$ where each element is in $V_\alpha$
toast
We know each element in 5_Z is in some finite ordinal
but we don't have a "maximum" finite ordinal
so the minimum ordinal that would contain every equvialence pair would be just $\omega$
toast
With some rewording, that logic is correct
"Is in some finite ordinal" nope, is in V_α for some finite ordinal α
ye my bad
its not in an ordinal snce finite ordinals only contain ordinals
Oh, btw, I've kinda been just assuming it, but have you been shown the fact that V_α ⊆ V_β whenever α ≤ β
ye
correct
alright this makes alot of sense though
But yea, identifying the rank of a set is done by gradually deconstructing it into primitives you know the rank of.
ic
tysm this is so helpful lol
now i guess ill do the harder problem of identifying the rank of R
which is defined like an encoding of the rational numbers with dedekind cuts
Just to make sure, your problem is using dedekind cuts and not Cauchy sequences right?
yes
You could do either, but Cauchy sequences would be a bit more complicated which is why I thought it would be more doable
if i wanted to find the rank of $5_R$ could i identify it as the set $5_R = {x \in \mathbb{Q} : x <_Q 5_Q}
toast
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
ah
(And of course, they'd be different objects)
If you want to, I can go through that with you after just for the sake of it.
hm sure i think that would be interesting
Anyway, dedekind cuts for now
and oops this hsould be $x \in \mathcal{P}(\mathbb{Q}$
toast
This was accurate
(Unlike the code used to produce it)
kk
this should be instead $5_\mathbb{R} \in \mathcal{P}(\mathbb{Q})$
toast
but i mean would this just be omega, since the set 5_R just consists rational numbers
Just to clarify, let's go back to 5_Q
ye
I thought rank 5_Q was ω initially, but once we realised it was a set consisting of elements whose ranks were already infinite, this means it can't just be ω because every element of V_ω has finite rank
Yes
What is an element of 5_Q?
Its another equvialence class this time of Z
so like {(5, 1), (10, 2), (15, 3)} etc
\textbf{Definition:} Let $\mathbb{Z^} = \mathbb{Z} \times
(\mathbb{Z} \backslash {0_\mathbb{Z}})$. For $(p, q), (r,s) \in \mathbb{Z^}$, define $(p,q) \approx (r,s ) \iff p\cdot_\mathbb{Z}s = r\cdot_\mathbb{Z}q$.
toast
Yes, so, for example, (5_Z, 1_Z) is an element of 5_Q
ye
rank(5_Z) is what?
oh hm it would be omega
Yes, because every element of it is a pair of natural numbers each of which have finite rank, so together the pair has finite rank.
ahh
omega + 1?
Nearly, (5_Z,1_Z) := {{5_Z}, {5_Z,1_Z}}
So the pair construction adds 2 to the maximum rank of it's elements
oh wait
wait
from a proposition i remmeberd kidan cheating but
rank((a,b)) is the max(rank(a), rank(b)) + 1 right
but rank(omega) = omega
Hm... maybe I'm wrong
if it was like (5, 7) then you would add 2
i think
\textbf{2) If $a, b$ are well founded, then $\operatorname{rank}({a, b}) = \max(\operatorname{rank}(a), \operatorname{rank}(b)) +1$. (Also ${a, b}$ is well founded)}
\\
\textit{Proof:} Let $\operatorname{rank}(a) = \alpha$ and $\operatorname{rank}(b) = \beta$. Without loss of generality, assume $\alpha < \beta$. Then since $a \subseteq V_\alpha$, $a \in \mathcal{P}(V_\alpha) = V_{\alpha + 1} \subseteq V_{\beta + 1}$. Also n $b \subseteq V_\beta$ so $b \in \mathcal{P}(V_\beta ) = V_{\beta + 1}$. Thus, ${a, b} \subseteq V_{\beta + 1}$. Therefore ${a, b} \in V_{\beta + 2}$ so ${a, b}$ is well-founded. Therefore $\operatorname{rank}({a,b}) \leq \beta + 1$
toast
Ah, it's set pairs not ordered pairs
So you can use the same thing but with these
rank of {5_Z,1_Z} is omega + 1
rankk of {5_Z} is omega
so we take the max, oemga + 1, then its omega + 1 + 1
so its omega + 2
Er... the rank of {5_Z} is omega + 1 as well because the rank of 5_Z is omega and then we add 1 for having a set containing it.
But it still comes out at omega + 2 for the pair
ye
Anyway, the same logic means every element of 5_Q has rank omega + 2
ahh
Which means that the rank of 5_Q itself is?
so its just omega + 3?
Yea
oh
god damn
im trying to visualize it in my head but i guess its not supposde to be easy to visualize
hmm it would be containing elements of Q which have ranks oemga + 3, so it would be omega + 4?
Yea
You can answer that yourself
imma think
Have you confused yourself enough yet?
elements of R are elements of P(Q) so R is a subset of P(Q)
well the rank of Q is just all elements with a rank of omega + 3, so rank of Q is omega + 4
so rank(R) <= omega + 5
umm
perhaps lol
Congratulations, you over complicated things
ℝ consists of elements like 5_R which have rank omega + 3. Thus ℝ has rank omega + 4
oh shit 💀
i did overcomplicate things
wait oops
so Q has a rank of omega + 3 then
cuz its consist of elements that have rank of w + 2
If we concluded that rank(5_Q) was omega + 2, yea
Do you have any further questions that are important or shall I move onto Cauchy ℝ (and/or move to DMs to avoid taking up a channel any more)
you can move onto cauchy R i think, i would just need to practice rank questions on my own to really get comfortable
Actually we have TeXit here, that might be important
ye
Right.
Definition (Cauchy ℝ):
ℝ := {Cauchy sequences in ℚ}/~
it doesn't matter what ~ is since all Cauchy sequences will have the same rank.
yes
A Cauchy sequence is just a sequence satisfying a property, so an element of ℝ contains elements that are sequences in ℚ
Formally, a sequence in ℚ is just a function ℕ -> ℚ
So any sequence has elements (n,q) where n is a natural, q is a rational.
We earlier saw that any rational has rank ω+2, so rank (n,q) = max(rank n, rank q) + 2 = (ω + 2) + 2 = ω + 4.
ye
So the sequences have rank ω + 5, the elements of ℝ have rank ω + 6, and ℝ itself has rank ω + 7
oops i think i said this wrong, i think this should be oemga + 3*
so this would be w + 5 then
Yea, add 1 to the things that were based on that then
kk
makes sense now
But yeah, finite tuples of naturals are finite rank, anything consisting of those are rank ω, then work up from there (having worked down to find something like that)
i see why its more tricky
Sorry I made so many mistakes today. I haven't covered this in ages lol
Tis a fun topic though
no worries
im going to have alot of fun on this homework assignment
and exam next week
😩
we just finished covering axiom of choice and its equvialents
next problem i will attempt to do is like define the complex numbers and then find the rank of 5_C 🗿
but for now ill try it myself
thank you so much for the help!
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bck again 😔
\textbf{a) Define the complex numbers $\mathbb{C}$, along with operations $+\mathbb{C}$ and $\cdot\mathbb{C}$ (FYI, there
is no ‘meaningful’ way of defining $<_\mathbb{C}$ Possible hint: Every complex number can be
written uniquely as $a + bi$ for some $a, b \in \mathbb{R}.$}
toast
Is there any context to this? Like, what book is this from?
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. <@&268886789983436800> @tranquil pine
Yo I have a question
So when it comes to derivatives of normal parametric functions f(x) = y or f(x,y) = z, the numerator of the difference quotient is displacement right ? And if so is it a vector ?
Which means the velocity would just be a vector as well
Yes velocity is a vector
So in a function f(x,y) = z its displacement from one point to another is a vector ?
Yes displacement is also a vector
So how come we never write it as a vector
Like in vector form
Who is "we"
All math books
Lmao
In the world
I don’t see them writing the difference quotient in vector form
How come
Maybe don't pretend you've read all the math books in the world
That was a joke
A lot of math books don’t write it in vector form
If displacement and velocity are always a vector why don’t all books write it in vector form ??
Give one example
I’m not seeing any vector notation here
Why aren’t they drawing the tangent lines as arrow vectors
Idek
It’s implied tho
Wrong
Is instantaneous velocity not always the slope of the tangent line ?
Annie Maqionde
Just because velocity is a vector, that what you get by differentiating a function that outputs a vector, there is no plausible reason why let's say $f(x) = x^2 \implies f'(x) = 2x$ is a vector.
Annie Maqionde
So you can’t call this a velocity function correct
You would just say it’s the derivative function not velocity function ?
no?
derivative is not a function. its an operator.
its the derivative
that's it.
velocity is peculiar to only the physical case.
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how do you find the minimum of $\sum^{n}{i=1}\frac{a_i}{a_i+a{i+1}}$, with $a_{n+1}=a_1$, and $a_1,\dots,a_n$ are positive reals?
ihave<skissue>
n=1 is 1/2, n=2 is 1
but for n=3 you can do some bullshit like wlog a_1=1, a_i=eps^i for i≠1 and as eps aproaches 0 then the sum approaches 1
but i cant get the equality, i cant find it
unless theres some infimum bull but i dont know how that works
you won't
contradiction suffices
Let $x_i=\frac{a_i}{a_i+a_{i+1}}$ and note that $x_1 x_2 x_3=(1-x_1)(1-x_2)(1-x_3)$
Civil Service Pigeon
a_{n+1} is used here in the sum, and u r treating it as a_1 right?
oh wait im blind
i thought u said an=a1 lol
I should say this is because I wrote it differently
this might be right
but I'm lazy

huh
,texsp ||If the sum equals $1$, then $x_1+x_2+x_3=1$. Then
$$x_1 x_2 x_3=(1-x_1)(1-x_2)(1-x_3)=(x_2+x_3)(x_3+x_1)(x_1+x_2).$$
But by the AM-GM inequality, the right hand side is at least $8x_1 x_2 x_3$. So we have
$$x_1 x_2 x_3 \geq 8x_1 x_2 x_3.$$
$x_1 x_2 x_3$ is positive, contradiction.||
Civil Service Pigeon
x_1+x_2+x_3=1+x_1x_2+x_2x_3+x_3x_1
this might be relevant but my brain is too off to see the connection
I'm in my "I did something and it works so I quit" mood

i mean x_1x_2+x_2x_3+x_3x_1>=0 with equality at atleast two being 0 (cause it has to be positive), but that implies two of a_i being 0, and /0 contradiction
mmm ur orz if you say it works then it probably works
ur orzer tho
me dum
oh wait this is prolly generalizable?
yeah definitely
it's not hard to write out
actually this only proves that the sum cant be 1
whats stopping it to be less than 1 and basically skipping over it
or is it sum ivt thing
make sequence 
whar
im no orz i cant think
is this not approaching 1/2?
no?
oh wait no im stupid
but for n=3 you can do some bullshit like wlog a_1=1, a_i=eps^i for i≠1 and as eps aproaches 0 then the sum approaches 1
The idea of considering an exponential sequence is very relevant, but don't send eps to zero.
😅

example this works for all n i believe
or eps^{n-i+1} works as eps->0
prob just a typo
wait hold on
why is x_1x_2x_3=(1-x_1)(1-x_2)(1-x_3)
wont the variables be flipped
$$\prod^{n}_{i=1} \frac{1-x_i}{x_i}=\frac{a_2}{a_1} \frac{a_3}{a_2} \cdots \frac{a_1}{a_n}=1 \implies \prod (1-x_i)=\prod x_i$$
Civil Service Pigeon
because $$x_i=\frac{a_i}{a_i+a_{i+1}} \implies 1-x_i=\frac{a_{i+1}}{a_i+a_{i+1}}$$
Civil Service Pigeon
fr
I thought that $1-x_i=x_{i+1}$ for a min lol
Civil Service Pigeon
short term memory ahh
carb is the real orz
🎁
Civil Service Pigeon
WLOG assume that $a_n$ is the largest entry. If $a_i$ is not an increasing sequence, then you can show that there exists at least $2$ entries for which the $\frac{a_i}{a_i+a_{i+1}}\geq \frac{1}{2}$. And this means that the sum must be greater than $1$. Now we consider the case where $a_i$ is increasing, then it is obvious that $\frac{a_n}{a_n+a_1}+\frac{a_{n-1}}{a_{n-1}+a_n}\geq 1$ using the fact that $a_1\leq a_{n-1}$ and you also yield a sum greater than 1
dont throw trash in my help channel
lol
I think this works to show that the sum is greater than 1
qwertytrewq
You could also just do
,texsp ||Let $M>1$ and $a_i=M^i$ for $i=1 \dots, n$. Then the sum is
$$\frac{M}{M+M^2}+\frac{M^2}{M^2+M^3}+\cdots+\frac{M^{n-1}}{M^{n-1}+M^n}+\frac{M^n}{M^n+M}=(n-1) \left(\frac{1}{1+M} \right)+\frac{M^{n-1}}{M^{n-1}+1}$$
which tends to $0+1=1$.||
Civil Service Pigeon
yeah this gives a possible infimum, combined with what I wrote it shows that 1 is indeed the infimum
yeah do this for the general stuff then muirhead cause anything majorizes (1,1,1,...,1) (?)
Does Muirhead work
is there a sort of ivt for multivariable
yeah
you get (binom coeff)×symsum
how does it work
like in the bounds, if we fix every other variable except one, the function is continuous, so we can do ivt, and this is for any single variable, so can we do this repeatedly to get ivt for the whole thing
Don't you only have "half" of a symmetric sum? Ex. We have $a_1^2 a_2$ but not $a_1 a_2^2$. The intuition about majorising is probably useful though.
Civil Service Pigeon
Partial continuity isn't full continuity though. Also make sure that your domain is connected
yeah no idea what that means
we do though?
oh
,w expand (a+b)(b+c)(c+a)
lol i meant to pop in and out for 1 being impossible and I still gotta finish my fuud so I'm washed

,w expand (a+b+c)(a+b+d)(a+c+d)(b+c+d)
$\sum \frac{a_i}{a_i+a_{i+1}}$ lol
Civil Service Pigeon

I was trying to bs some shit with the numerator and denominator
but ur too orz to do something dumb like that
hence why I was like
am I missing smt
Imo the natural generalization: any continuous function $f:\mathbb R^n\to \mathbb R$ and two points $x=(x_1,\dots,x_n)$,$y=(y_1,\ldots, y_n)$ in $\mathbb R^n$, and for any $f(x)<a<f(y)$ there exists a point in $(x_1,y_1)\times (x_2,y_2)\times\cdots\times (x_n,y_n)\subseteq \mathbb R^n$, say $z$, such that $f(z)=a$
qwertytrewq
Let \(n \geq 3\). We have numbers \(t_1, \ldots, t_n\) s.t.\ \(\sum t_i = 0\) and wish to show that
\[ \sum \frac{1}{1 + e^{-t_i}} > 1. \]
Denote \(f(t) \coloneqq 1/(1 + e^{-t})\) for shorthand. Assume there exist \(t_i\) such that \(\sum f(t_i) \leq 1\) for a contradiction. Since \(f\) is monotonic and positive, and \(f(0) = 1/2\), we must have exactly one \(t_i \geq 0\). Call this \(t_j\). Then the other \(t_i\)s must be in \([-t_j, 0]\)---hence these must have
\[ f(t_i) \geq \frac{1}{1 + e^{t_j}} = 1 - f(t_j) \]
which is a contradiction.
nuh if it even works i wouldnt suggest if cause i i wouldnt even undersrand ir
But this works for any path connected subset of $\mathbb R^n$ instead of the hyperrectangle
what the whar
qwertytrewq
Anyway my lower tech generalisation was to sps $\sum x_n=1$, then
$$\sum_{j \neq i} x_j \geq (n-1) \left(\prod_{j \neq i} x_j \right)^{\frac{1}{n-1}} \implies \prod^{n}{i=1} (1-x_i) \geq (n-1)^n \prod^{n}{i=1} \left(\prod_{j \neq i} x_j \right)^{\frac{1}{n-1}}=(n-1)^n \prod x_k$$
and so
$$\prod x_i \geq (n-1)^n \prod x_i$$
which is bs
Civil Service Pigeon
if u wanna do n case doesnt this just work
if you want to show it has to be >1
we were going along with generalising this
Ah
ok yeah this would prolly be better
i c i c
cause muirhead i need to prove the coeffs are symmetric and such
is R^n (the domain right???) connected?
yes
wait so can we apply ivt then
connected means that you don't have two disjoint open set seperating it
no by path connected is a generalization of invervals for whuch you pick you point that satisfy ivt
byee
so im changing the "[x,y]" in " for all x,y and continuous function $f:\mathbb R\to \mathbb R$, and any $f(x)<b<f(y)$, there exists $z\in [x,y]$ such that $f(z)=b$" to a path connected region.
qwertytrewq
or, simply, a path from x to y
what does a path mean here
continuous function from $t:[0,1]\to \mathbb R^n$ such that $t(0)=x, t(1)=y$
qwertytrewq
you can think of this as traveling a path on $\mathbb R^n$ on the time interval $[0,1]$
qwertytrewq
such that you begin at $x$, and end at $y$
qwertytrewq
is a path like a generalization of an interval
ummm you couuuulddd think of it like that, it's more or less like drawing a line on R^n

the line has to be straight?
like the thing im really asking is can it just straight up do loops?
oh no no no, that's not what I mean,
u can curve or whatever
mmm
it's like one random stroke with your pencil
you can do loops
tbh i think the most natural generalisation is that continuous functions take connected sets to connected sets
so like, f is continuous and connected from R^n->R^n, if f(x)<b<f(y), then theres z on the path from x to y so f(z)=b
here is an example: take any $f:\mathbb R\to \mathbb R$ to be continuous, and let $t:[0,1]\to \mathbb R^2$ to be defined as $t(s)=(s,f(s))$. Then the curve $t$ basically draws out a graph of $f$ on $[0,1]$
qwertytrewq
not from R^n -> R^n.
R^n -> R

how r u ordering R^n in the first place to say f(x)<b<f(y)?
oh yea
if you say $a<b$ iff every coordinate is less
qwertytrewq
then this is a partial relation
and the statement would be false with counterexamples in $\mathbb R^3$ i think
qwertytrewq
what does that mean
this is intuitive it's not nothing formal i meant like it is not the case that a<b or a=b or b>a
if you define it that way
also bad word to use
i meant this is a partial ordering
partial order is formal and it means that not every two element are comparable
ohh
like if you have a tree, then the relation "ancestor of" is a partial order
because it is possible for two nodes to not be ancestors of eachother
yeah i think ive seen that before but dont remember the name
but it still satisfy everything we want for an ordering
so like, f is continuous and connected from R^n->R, if f(x)<b<f(y), then theres z on the path from x to y so f(z)=b
that is a>b and b>c then a>c stuff like that
yup
any path from x to y works
wow then wouldnt it be really general
yeah
because you can just compose the path with the function and you get a function from an interval to R i think
i think this ezample is for R^2->R (did i get it? :<)
yeah
wow ok
the function $t:[0,1]\to \mathbb R^n$ is what we call a parametrization
qwertytrewq
because sure, you can alk on the path, but at what speed are you traversing the path
that, t might be able to talk about (although keep in mind that this function might not even be differentiable)
okay okay
this is the immediate thing that I think i could generalize
but it honestly just reduce to the usual case quite easily
but afaik IVT is not a topic at all in multivar calc, probably due to this underwhelming generalization
i can't think of others ways one would generalize
you could also think of it like this: "if V is connnected and f is continuous, then f(V) is also connected"
what's connected in R, only intervals work (this is a pretty difficult proof for now), so f(interval) iis a interval too
if we were to apply it to our problem
f:=(the sum)
f is a function fron R^n->R
the domain R^n is connected
by contradiction, let there exist y such that f(y)<1. let x be some variable such that f(x)>1. by the ivt f(x)>1>f(y), and there exists z on the path from x to y such thay f(z)=1. however, we proved that 1 is not in the range of f, this contradiction, and there is no y st f(y)<1?
aw thats dissapointing
However, there is a generalization for metric spaces
more interesting, and it includes the boring case for R^n
this is the statement i believe
Ah i see... that works i think
$(M,d)$ where $M$ is a set, $d:M^2\to \mathbb R$, $d$ tells you how far away two points are, given two points $x,y $, $d(x,y)$ tells you their distance
qwertytrewq
of course, we want the distances to satisfy some conditions like $d(x,y)=d(y,x)$ (distance from x to y is the same the other way), $d(x,x)=0$ (distance from x to x is 0), and $y\neq x$ impplies $d(x,y)>0$ (distance is positive between distinct points).
qwertytrewq
and $d(x,y)+d(y,z)\geq d(x,z)$ which is the triangle inequality
qwertytrewq
hopefully it does 
you can prove it using the normal ivt if you don't want this generalization
can you?
Let's use ur notation
let $g:[0,1]\to \mathbb R^n$ be a path from $x$ to $y$, then $f\circ g$ is a continuous function from $[0,1]\to \mathbb R$. Since $f\circ g(0)=f(x)$ and $f\circ g(1)=f(y)$, by IVT there exists a point $z'\in [0,1]$ such that $f\circ g(z')=1$ and thus picking $z=g(z')$ suffice
qwertytrewq
i guess the only nuance is that you need to show composition of continuous function is continuous.
yeah but it is a quite standard $\epsilon \delta$ bash iirc
qwertytrewq
yeah
yea this