#help-36
1 messages · Page 244 of 1
We can clearly "feel" the difference between even and odd n, so intuitively the f(n) function will have floor/ceiling function, so for large enough n where the decimals jump up a unit, mtt's bound will be off
That's my intuition
Yeah the original sequence I was following does
These two don't diverge until n = 14 sadly which is a lot of checking XD
I will say though this sequence corresponds to a lot of things
i have been working on this in the past week in my math class, here is what I have
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This would suggest that there exists no way to do it for n = 3 in less than 3 moves, but you can do it in 1 move 🧐
Hopefully this thread is open in the morning
There's a lot of interesting things this sequence enumerates that I'd like to see if I can relate to this
Also, from the starting position in standard chess, minimum number of captures by pawns of the same color to place n of them on the same file (column). Beyond a(6), the board and number of pieces available for capture are assumed to be extended enough to accomplish this task. - Rick L. Shepherd, Sep 17 2002
For example, a(2) = 1 and one capture can produce "doubled pawns", a(3) = 2 and two captures is sufficient to produce tripled pawns, etc. (Of course other, uncounted, non-capturing pawn moves are also necessary from the starting position in order to put three or more pawns on a given file.) - Rick L. Shepherd, Sep 17 2002
Like this one
wait wait, I sent my first draft and that was what ny professor asked
this is the latest version
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That's what I posited, but
is there a more optimal way or what?
Well for n = 5 that gives 6 but you can do it with 4
Again that bound assumes you treat the whole thing as one set but if you split it into two and reverse both subsets it takes less time
hmm, yea, I think we need to respect the circular symmetry
I think we are treating them as people standing in line
Yes, in that case you can't split them up
But since they're in a circle you can (at least into two)
Which lowers the upper bound to I believe what's given by that sequence but I would have to evaluate properly
@tight geode you had already made a bad impression due to your name. What you posted was indistinguishable from LLM slop (seriously, why would it be formated that way?). You seem to be an actual human and are participating in this discussion, so I'm not going to mute you (though I have deleted the annoyingly long messages). But I would suggest having a look at the #rules before you continue.
it is because it was in my prevoius assignment, it was already formatted like that, I just copy pasted it here
you’re not fooling anyone blud
🍿
wait wdym, im a math major and this was in one of my previous assignments, since it was a graded work I formatted it in LaTeX and it was formally written, I just thought it would help here
blud……
blud……
Got the whole community in here 
why is everyone blud..... ing me?
i’m a much more professional troll than you are. you’re not getting anything through
ok whatever just get back to whatever it is that this channel is about
oh that's hayley
female pure
pure female
Idk what just happened, but anyways...
so are long texts not allowed?
allowed
chatgpt copy pastes from people who have no idea what they are talking about are not allowed
But yeah I actually conjecture that we can't split the circle into more sets than 2 (we can call it having a genus of 1), although I can't prove it right now
!nogpt
Please do not trust ChatGPT or similar AI tools for mathematical tasks, as they often generate output which "sounds correct" but has numerous factual or logical errors. Use of these AI tools to answer other people's help questions is strictly against server rules (see #rules).
well ask me if you think I have no idea
Oh there's a generating function representation of this sequence
if only I knew how to interpret those
lol
Well because we can see overllaping patterns in the "solutions" like the fast-3 and fast-4, my idea is to set up a recurring sequence
Then find the general formula
The recurrence is as stated
(n-1)(n-2)/2
Because you just move each number into position
One by 1
With 1 2 3 4 5 you move 1 over by 4 positions to get 2 3 4 5 1, then move 2 over by 3 positions to get 3 4 5 2 1, then move 3 over by 2 and 4 over by 1
Sum of the first k-1 positive integers to reverse the order of a row of k numbers
Is this your f(n)?
sorry, a fast-3 consist of 3 moves right?
What would be left is to prove that the greedy algorithm is best there
Yes
No, f(n) is lower because you can split the circle in half
If n is even, then you have
But n=4 can be done with 2 moves
Uhmm... Can you please restate it?
I didn't see any
How did you do it in 2 moves
Not for f(n) but for the fast-k sorry
Which was fast-(k+1) = fast-k + k moves
swap 1 and 2 then swap 3 and 4
but moving over 1 by 4 isnt necessary, because of its cirular symmetry, it does not change anything
Oh the sequence does have a 2 in it
Our values so far:
f(3)=1
f(4)=2
f(5)=4
f(6)=6
f(8)=12
f(9)=16
I guess I just wrote it wrong
But yeah the one I believe is correct (only verified up to n = what nerdyasianguy sent) has 2
I just made an oopsies
This is a fast-5, not n = 5
What's the 9-move sol for n=7? There should be one
n = 5 we split into a fast-3 and a swap of 2
Yeah it's up there (far away now)
But I can describe it since I have my strategy that I still haven't gotten the chance to give you my formula for
Since everyone has questions
Which is
Okay just saw it
Split 7 into a fast-4 and a fast-3
this series looks like it has patten, you add one to the increment every 2 numbers
6 + 3 = 9
I'll just try to find a pattern with those then prove it later
f(3)=1
f(4)=2
f(5)=4
f(6)=6
f(7)=9
f(8)=12
f(9)=16
I mean you have the pattern with those so far which was floor(n^2/4) or floor(n/2)*ceil(n/2)
But I'll give my explanation quickly now that I have a chance
Ah damnit I always write this formula wrong
Let me fix
f(5)=f(4)+f(3)+1
f(6)=f(5)+f(4)+0
f(7)=f(6)+f(5)-1
f(8)=f(7)+f(6)-3
f(9)=f(8)+f(7)-5
Ah it's too far up
Eh... Doesn't seem like any oattern like this
But the sum of the first k-1 positive integers is k(k-1)
Which is what I should have written
Hold up
Now using this we get mtt's bound
f(10)=f(8)+8=20 would match this
Yeah this seems like it
Induction time?
If n is even, then we split n = 2k into 2 fast-k's
That means it'll take 2*k(k-1)/2 = k(k-1) = n/2(n/2-1) = n^2/4 - n/2 = (n^2-2n)/4
If n is odd, we split n = 2k+1 into a fast-k and a fast-(k+1)
That means it'll take k(k-1)/2 + k(k+1)/2 = k/2(k-1 + k+1) = k^2 = ([n-1]/2)^2 = (n-1)^2/4 = (n^2 - 2n + 1)/4
I'm not really following the fast-k's stuff
You should get the same answer, try it
I also got this, idk if my argument is the same as your
To state it more formally for when you get back
My recurrence gives n(n-2)/4 for even n and (n-1)²/4 for odd n
Yes that is what I have
👌
Which is what it should be since the terms currently match the sequence
What's the argument behind it though?
Btw i'm impressed how after that many years, the question is still challenging
Where's this question from
The fastest way to reverse a list of $k$ elements takes $\frac{k(k-1)}{2}$ transpositions.
To work on this problem, we split the circle into as close to halves as possible:
If $n$ is even, then we split $n = 2k$ into two lists of length $k$, which we swap the order of:
That means it'll take $$2*\frac{k(k-1)}{2} = k(k-1) = \frac{n}{2}\left(\frac{n}{2}-1\right) = \frac{n^2}{4} - \frac{n}{2} = \frac{n^2-2n}{4}$$ transpositions to complete.
If $n$ is odd, we split $n = 2k+1$ into one list of length $k$ and one of length $k+1$, which we swap the order of:
That means it'll take $$\frac{k(k-1)}{2} + \frac{k(k+1)}{2} = \frac{k}{2}(k-1 + k+1) = k^2 = \left(\frac{n-1}{2}\right)^2 = \frac{(n-1)^2}{4}$$ transpositions to complete.
Compared to like IMO1986/P6 used the be one of the hardest olympiad questions but now it's commonly taught to highschoolers as an example
This is Vietnam's 1990 TST
Okay lmaooo
the 2 havles part is the same as mine
Where's the first claim from?
Coolempire93
By the induction I demonstrated earlier
Although that's not to say I could prove it trivially
Btw just to add, we can write f(n) more neatly with celing function because n(n-2) and (n-1)² are off by exactly 1
So f(n)= ceiling of n(n-2)/4
Yes, which is how they get what they wrote in the actual sequence
With this being the generating fucntion
I only saw it after observation, how did you come up with it?
Well I do some small cases
And it seems like
Have you proved that the halving thing is optimal?
2 sequences are being reversed in order
I have not, simply that it's an upper bound 👍
So I think of a bracelet
I do believe that I can just strum up a bijection to this situation with the chess pieces though
What's weird is the order mattering for the circle but not the pieces
It's weird tho because I wasn't able to finish the proof
I also think the one about the bipartite graph could be directly related to the halving idea
a(n) is also the maximal number of edges that a triangle-free graph of n vertices can have. For n = 2m, the maximum is achieved by the bipartite graph K(m, m); for n = 2m + 1, the maximum is achieved by the bipartite graph K(m, m + 1).
New math merch idea 
Interesting
I mean, like how would you actually make the order counterclockwise on a bracelet
You cut it
And then connect them the other way around
That's how I came up with the idea
Ah I found this recurrence in there as well
a(n) is the sum of the positive integers < n that have the opposite parity as n.
Deleting the first 0 from the sequence results in a sequence b = 0, 1, 2, 4, ... such that b(n) is sum of the positive integers <= n that have the same parity as n.
I might have to create an account just to leave a comment that this sequence is the minimum number of steps it takes to counterclockwise order n beads on a bracelet
Supposing we can prove it's optimal
i think if you sum the distances from where they start and where they need to go and then divide by 2, you will get something very close to this
this is a lower bound by the way
if you are odd then you will have one fixed point
Anyway I really do need to sleep so I'll be going but I'm going to favorite this channel and I'll be returning to this problem regardless 😆
I think split the circle into 2 halves is the only way to can make it counterclockwise ( this is where I kinda stuck) , if we can show that, we only have to show k-swap + k+1 swap is the lowest
Which shouldn't be too hard considering we already have closed form of the sequence
Gn
For each n, there can be many many solutions
The k-swap with k+1-swap is just one solution
What we need to prove is that this yields the lower bound
Note that the recurrence of mine above:
f(n)=f(n-2)+(n-2) yields the same result
So i'll just prove f(n)≥f(n-2)+(n-2)
(f(3)=1 and f(4)=2 are trivially checked by hand)
I found the solution online
If we add 2 people (n-1 and n) to the n-2 people and consider the chord formed by them in the circle
Letme see
Then we can treat swapping with n-1 or n as "jumping" through the chord
Because we need to move the n-2 original people through the chord, it takes at least n-2 moves
This is the desired lower bound
I believe we can only do 2 big-swap
The k-swap with k+1-swap above shows that this can be achieved, so QED
You could probably prove it, I don't have to just for the sake of the problem
@obtuse hedge read from here when you wake up
I think this is done
If I can show that the rest would be trivial, considering we have closed form of k-swap
I just don't have any more energy to do so, Imma head out
I have solution here if you want to see, tho I don't think it shares similar idea as our
I think the "jumping over the inaginary chord" argument above is sufficient
Nah I'm good, I know where to find the sols when i need to
Thanks anyways, bye
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i can’t figure out this problem,my basic idea is to extend the functional to the entire C([(0,1)] and use riesz representation theorem ,but to extend it I need to prove the functional is bounded,that is where I am stuck
@maiden oracle Has your question been resolved?
@maiden oracle Has your question been resolved?
,rotate
have you tried mimicking the proof of riesz representation theorem by hand
to use the riesz representation thm I first have to extend the functional
i don't think you can do that in general
i meant like the actual proof of riesz representation where you first define μ on open sets U by taking sup of l of functions whose range is contained in [0, 1] and whose support is contained in U
blah blah blah
except you can't do this immediately since X might not have these functions so you need to modify the construction slightly
@maiden oracle Has your question been resolved?
i wanna know wether X contains the constant function one
if that is sure then we are set
@maiden oracle Has your question been resolved?
@maiden oracle Has your question been resolved?
so you can't know which functions are in X (could be all nonconstant), but you know that X is a dense linear (Banach) subspace of C[0,1]. can you use the properties of the subspace to show that a constant function must be in X?
for gmz's solution, can you use the properties of the subspace X to show that μ exists for U? (i.e. that there are functions with range in [0,1] and support in U)?
that is the extent of what i know, so you can try #advanced-analysis if you dont get any more help here. enjoy the problem :)
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@maiden oracle, since you have not closed the channel yet, can you tell me if you tried the above method? where did you get stuck / what aren't you sure about?
if you do not need this channel, you may type .close to close it :) if not, please engage with the solutions or voice your concerns, otherwise this channel will be closed soon
i
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This problem asks you to show that a positive linear functional defined on a dense subspace of C([0, 1]) can be represented by a unique Borel measure. This is a classic application of the Riesz-Markov-Kakutani Representation Theorem, but with a twist: the functional is initially defined only on a dense subspace X.
Here is the step-by-step logic to solve it.
- Show that l is bounded (Continuous)
Even though the problem says l is "not assumed to be continuous," a positive linear functional on a space of continuous functions is automatically bounded.
-
Let f \in X such that |f|_\infty \leq 1. This implies -1 \leq f(x) \leq 1 for all x \in [0, 1].
-
Since X is a dense subspace, the constant function \mathbf{1} might not be in X, but we can work around this. For any f \in X with |f|_\infty \leq 1, we have:
-
By the positivity of l, if f, g \in X and f \leq g, then l(f) \leq l(g).
-
This implies that for any f \in X, |l(f)| \leq C |f|_\infty. Thus, l is a bounded linear functional on the subspace X.
- Extend l to the whole space C([0, 1])
Since X is a dense linear subspace of the Banach space C([0, 1]) and l is a bounded linear operator, there exists a unique continuous linear extension L: C([0, 1]) \to \mathbb{R}.
- For any g \in C([0, 1]), we define L(g) = \lim_{n \to \infty} l(f_n), where {f_n} is a sequence in X converging to g.
- Crucially, this extension L preserves positivity. If g \geq 0 in C([0, 1]), we can find a sequence f_n \in X such that f_n \to g and f_n \geq 0 (or slightly shifted to ensure positivity), meaning L(g) = \lim l(f_n) \geq 0.
- Apply the Riesz-Markov-Kakutani Theorem
Now that we have a positive linear functional L on C([0, 1]), we apply the representation theorem:
-
Theorem: For every positive linear functional L on C([0, 1]), there exists a unique Radon measure (which, on a compact metric space like [0, 1], is a Borel measure) \mu such that:
-
Since L is an extension of l, it follows that for all f \in X:
What is this ai slop
!nogpt
Please do not trust ChatGPT or similar AI tools for mathematical tasks, as they often generate output which "sounds correct" but has numerous factual or logical errors. Use of these AI tools to answer other people's help questions is strictly against server rules (see #rules).
wow his account is already gone 
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$E[X]=Np ,P(X_N = k) = \binom{N}{k}, p^k, (1-p)^{N-k}$
just send an image mate
Goofy Joe
looks like binomial distribution
yeah looks like binomial distribution
could you help me understand what these formulas mean, please
the binomial distribution arises when you repeat the same experiment n times, where the probability of success in each trial is p (constant across all trials), the trials don't affect each other in any way, and you count up the total number of successes
helps to try examples with small numbers
say if N = 3 and you are flipping a (biased) coin with Heads (0.6) and Tails (0.4):
if you want to find the probability of HHT, that's just 0.6 * 0.6 * 0.4
and then HTH = 0.6 * 0.4 * 0.6 which is the same
and then THH = 0.4 * 0.6 * 0.6 is the same again
so there are 3 ways you can choose 1 tail out of 3 flips
that also means, there are 3 ways you can choose 2 heads from 3 flips
(3 choose 1) = 3, (3 choose 2) = 3
you should be able to find the factorial definition of n choose r
essentially, you can swap the r heads with each other, and that doesn't give you a different order, so there are r! duplicates of the same sequence of heads and tails
and then you can swap the (n - r) tails with each other, so (n - r)! duplicates
why 3 ways
you don't need the PMF to understand this
HHT
HHT, HTH, THH
that's 3 ways to have only 1 T
ah so the order doesn't matter?
yeah!
but couldn't we also say that for example THH there are 3 ways to arrange these 3 elements!, but for example writing THH and THH is the same thing, so I can divide by 2! and 1!, and to obtain the probability then divide by all the cases which are 8?
it seems the same to me,but I don't know if it's just a coincidence
there are 2^3 = 8 cases in total
but we're only considering the cases that have only 1 T
yes
actually this is where Pascal's triangle comes from
1, 3, 3, 1
0T, 1T, 2T, 3T
and the total 1 + 3 + 3 + 1 = 8
I'm glad you're realising something
yes, you can also do 3! / (2! * 1!) = 3
and that's the proper way to find the number of cases that have only 1 T
yes
arrange the Ts among each other; arrange the Hs
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thanks
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Find the shortest distance between the parabola and the circle
Yeah I forgot how to do these problem 
it's when the curves have the same normal line
so one condition is that the tangent slopes must be the same for both points
and how does that work
I did thought of that but I'm not sure why
it's a variation on, "the shortest distance between two parallel lines is the perpendicular distance"
I think it's easier to consider the case when you want to find the shortest distance between a point and a curve
but how do we know it would make perpendicular distance
Like
How do we know that line connecting those 2 points is perpendicular to the tangent
you can imagine making a circle with any radius centered at that point
then there's a unique shortest distance, where the tangent slope is perpendicular to the slope connecting the point and some arbitrary point on the blue curve
the question is, why
okay hang one I'm still on this one
Why do we know that would be perpendicular
like in the image
that's what we're building up to
I want you to understand this diagram first
okay
this's okay
Now what
right, so you don't actually need the two curves for your problem
just take the centre of the circle and that parabola

Hey that's what I did
And the answer is wrong
,w optimize sqrt((x-30)^2+(-0.3x^2+6x-50)^2)
,w sqrt((x-30)^2+(-0.3x^2+6x-50)^2) when x=11.492
The answer was 11.7, and I'm certain that's what they give us
oh lol
you forgot to subtract the radius of the circle
yeah and that is 11.7, I just confirmed
FUCKKKKKK
😭
Okay that method I get it, I meant I even used it
But I still don't know why
the perpendicular part here
it just follows from substituting y = -0.3x^2 + 6x into sqrt((x - 30)^2 + (y - 50)^2)
I think the more important part is:
why when finding the extrema of sqrt((x - 30)^2 + (y - 50)^2)
you can just find the extrema of (x - 30)^2 + (y - 50)^2
I'm using wolfram, it's powerful enough to just give me the answer
THIS
I DON'T GET THIS
okay
you want these black lines to be the exact same line
why
like, to find the shortest distance between two curves
you choose one point on the other curve, let's focus on the point and the red parabola
find the shortest distance for that point
then choose another point on the blue circle, and find the shortest distance to the red parabola again
over all points on the blue circle, choose the MINIMUM distance
but you could also choose a point on the red parabola, then find the shortest distance to the blue circle
both of these methods have to give you the same minimum distance
the minimum distance between (any point on red) and (any point on blue)
= minimum distance between (any point on blue) and (any point on red)
merge both these pictures together
okay I just lost 5% mark for that shiiiii
Damn it
I triple checked it btw
And somehow still wrong 
it's amazing you can deduce this from the simpler case of point and a curve
that's the bigger picture
yeah
okay thank god you understood

I'm not that bad bro
Tho I should probably start grinding optimization problems atp
I think that's a pretty hard type already
there's also like finding a circle tangent to three functions...
absolute hell.
I'll be fineeee
I don't think there's any class that teaches this kind of optimisation
everyone just self-learns it
if you have Desmos and WA it's okay
I haven't done anything optimize problem fo 3 months now, I expected this
the original problem isn't bad (single-variable)
who needs teacher
but then there's all these variations which are challenging
Ah there're also a really fun optimization on the test kek
1 min I'll show you
Tbf I spent the last 3 months doin combinatorics so my calc skill is kinda rusty
it's okay, I'm rusty in combi too
a dude want to go from point A to point B at the other side of the river. His swimming speed is 1 m/s, and the water's speed is also 1 m/s. He can run on land with speed of 3 m/s
Point A,B like so, the distance between both side of the river is 300 m and HB=900 m
What's the minimum time it takes him to go from A to B
what book
can't remember
oh, the twist is that the water has some velocity
usually the water is still
from H to B it is 900 or 800?
900
900
avg jee type q
ah yess, that alone killed perfect mark haha

oh really
yh they teach us in syllabus
so prob he should minimize time in water or smth
hmm I wonder how you would do it
and thats the point C
We have to figure it out ourself tho they ain't teach nothing
something like :
break his velocity in components then add velocity of water in horizontal direction the find time it takes to reach other shore wrt to theta then write the distance left to walk on land
add these all and find maxima wrt to theta
eh i need to rephrase into something understandable but i gtg now
working with angle is ass
There's a way to do this w/o angle tho
aight Imma dip
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What way are there to find maclaurin series
Without using the formula and getting derivatives which is time consuming
Do you know the maclaurin series for $\frac{1}{x+a}$
Rafilouyear2026
Well ik for 1/(1-x)
Ok
So how could you get it for this type of function
Which is 1+x+x^2+...
Maybe make it 1-(5x+6)/that
Don't think about your exercise specifically yet
If we can't answer this then we can't really move on to the exercise
I take out x^2 so i have 1/(1+5/x + 6/ x^2)?
Oh yes ik
I thiught you asked for this
That's not the idea for the exercise
For your og exercise, we're gonna need to rewrite this in terms of 1/(x+a) for some values of a
If you can see how, then that's a first step
Ok, we're getting somewhere
It's almost that, you're forgetting some constant
Wdym
1/(1-x) = -a/(u-a)
Because you multiplied by -a on the denominator, you need to do the same on the numerator
What is this supposed to be equal to
1/(x-a)?
That's not it
then what is it
1+x+x^2....
Yes
Yes
1/(u-a) = -1/a - x/a - x²/a ...
1/(u-a) = -1/a - u/a² - u²/a³ ...
And we're done
And since this is only valid for x in (-1,1)
It corresponds to u in (-|a|,|a|) (accounting for both possible signs of a)
Does that make sense?
Idk this seems complicated
You sue its the easiest
Isnt it easier if we bring it to 1/(1-f(x))
So then its just 1+f+f^2 ..
If f(x) is something like (x+1)², what do we do
The best possible case, and possibly the only case your method works, is if f(x) = constant*x
Which exactly corresponds to 1/(x-a)
In your exercise, no
You can probably extend it to f(x) = constant*x^p
But that's as far as it goes
We're doing the exact same reasoning, only the other way around, to get 1/(x-a) Maclaurin series
Well it's maclaurin of 1/(1-u) with u = x³, sure
Because the denominator is already nice looking
Huh
No wait
I take out 6
And have 1+5/6 x + 1/6 x^2
And i set u = 5/6 x + 1/6 x^2 and have 1/(1+u)
You'll have a lot of problems with f not of this form
And second thing
Why
Oh btw
It says to find maclaurin up to third order factors
I forgot to say that its important though
So maybe the approach is different
Up to third order only?
It does clear up the path for a third way, closer to what you've been trying to do
But let's try to continue with what I've been hinting at the whole time
Can you factor the denominator?
Are you sure
I dont want to do something more complicated than i need for exam
The questions only ask up to 3rd or 4th or 5t
If you insist
Don't divide by anything other than constants
If you divide by x² for example, the thing you did before still doesn't work
Because of the second problem
So, make the 1 appear at another place
Like in here: x²+5x+6
Ok
So i make it 1+5/6 x + 1/6 x^2
And set u= -5/6 x - 1/6 x^2
So its 1+u +u^2 +...
Btw what does 3rd order factor means ?
Up to seeing x^3?
All terms above x³ don't matter
1/(denominator) yes
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if i use a geometric argument and track where the basis vectors go for a 45 degree rotation clockwise i end up w $\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2} \begin{pmatrix} 1&1\-1&1 \end{pmatrix} $ but applying that same linear transformation on my graph i get a 45 degree anticlockwise rotation instead, w applying meaning subbing in $\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2} (x+y)$ for y and $\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2} (-x+y)$ for x. why is there that diff?
Cera
context of this is im being asked to use standard result for an upright parabola at origin $4ay=x^2$, where a is focus and directrix displacement from origin to find cartesian eq of parabola w focus (2,2) and directrix $x+y+4=0$, and the method suggested by textbook is 'use a matrix transformation'
Cera
hence why the 45 degree rotation clockwise for curve $x^2=16\sqrt{2}y$
Cera
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Your matrix calculates the new position of a \textit{point} that is rotated $45^{\circ}$ clockwise. However, when applying this to a graph, you're effectively asking "What points land on the graph \textit{after} being rotated clockwise?" In other words, you're defining the pre-image of the graph, or just the original graph being rotated counter-clockwise. So to rotate the graph clockwise, you need to use the \textit{inverse} transformation instead. (You can also this as rotating the axes instead.)
Civil Service Pigeon
oh right ok
it might take me a bit to rlly accept it
tysm for the explanation
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Find the general solution to $y^\prime + 3y = t + e^{-2t}$.
Textbook answer:
$$\mu(t) = e^{\int 3,dt} = e^{3t}.$$
Thus
$$
e^{3t}(y' + 3y) = e^{3t}(t + e^{-2t}),
$$
or
$$
(ye^{3t})' = te^{3t} + e^{t}.
$$
Integration of both sides yields
$$
ye^{3t} = \frac{t e^{3t}}{3} - \frac{e^{3t}}{9} + e^{t} + C,
$$
where integration by parts is used on the right side, with $u = t$ and $dv = e^{3t} dt$.
Division by $e^{3t}$ gives
$$
y(t) = Ce^{-3t} + \frac{t}{3} - \frac{1}{9},
$$
k.tten
is the textbook answer missing a term in the general solution??
original from textbook
What would the missing term be?
Wait a bit
Yeah the e^t shouldn't disappear when multiplying with e^(-3t) xd
$y(t) = Ce^{-3t} + e^{-2t} + \frac t3 - \frac 19$
Rafilouyear2026
ok so i am not crazy thanks
Which doesn't change the final answer but still
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How do I add exponents
@final saddle
,tex .exp rules
Xavier 🌺
google it
google is full of liars
alright derive it yourself then
what does derive mean
discover it yourself
You aren't looking for political news, you're looking for math rules
Guess and check
What does that mean
Mess with exponents and see what they equal
<@&268886789983436800> might wanna check delete logs for this one
Like 2^2 * 2^2 = 2^4
Wouldn’t it be 8 since there is 4 2s
I already sent you the list of rules, which you're apparently skeptical of
Yeah, I really don't trust you're here in good faith, or genuinely asking questions 
Yeah me neither especially after that deleted message
You can come back after 10mins
if you insult people again, your timeout will be much longer than that, if we don't ban you 
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bro mods who did he insult bro...
i think he was genuinely being curious on where exponent rules came from
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@golden merlin @plucky rover I need help on my math for algebra 2
hey look, Bat and Bot
Can u help me on these problems thx
Yep lol
Please do not ping individual helpers unprompted.
what do you need help with
Cud u check if these answers are right?
sure
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any1 w ideas
I think the logx is the ln thing
I tried using uhh
ibp but I ended up with the integral arctanx/x dx
I got no idea how that one works
I wonder if I can do that funny thing
oh yeah it's definitely 0, yeah nvm I got it
euler did this one apparently
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Just sub x -> 1/x
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how do i show $x^2 = 2^{1-x}$ has exactly 1 solution?
rak³en
my idea is to first show that there is no negative solution
and then do some growth rate arguments
the issue is
how tf do i show theres no negative solution
and also, surely theres a better way than wat me is doing?
also, x in R
Try applying log on both sides and try
I would think about showing that $f\left(x\right)=x^{2}-2^{1-x}$ is monotonic increasing
Roy
oh shit why did this not come to mind
ty
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How on earth do i find ABD
im like totally lost
the angle or area of the triangle
area
if i try to subtract ecb, i cant find aed
if i subtract acf, i cant find dbf
i thought that their heights were the same
so dfb was 2 * acf
but no
what do i dooooo
@final tangle
and centroid doesnt work either
coordinate bash should work
wtf
there could be something else
area ECB = area AEB
Please halt aid, while we clear some stuff up
in relation to amc8
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Every subgroup of an abelian group is normal. Give an example to show that the converse is not true.
I did the first part but can't show the converse is false
I mean non abelian is easy but then also ensuring every subgroup is normal is not something i can come up with
@orchid crystal Has your question been resolved?
try some small groups
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To start I prove $R$ is an additive group. Let $x,y \in R$. Then $v(x), v(y)≥0$ so $v(x+y)≥0$. So $x+y \in R$.We now prove that $R$ has the identity. $v(1)=v(1)+v(1)=0.$ so $1 \in R$.
"Let x,y in R" is what you meant right
yea correcting that now, whiled adding a proof of inverses
Also, if you take x,y in R, it's not always the case that they are in K^×
And x+y is not necessarily in K^× either
wai
0 isn't mapped to anything?
hmm
okay, got it
v(xx^{-1}) =0 \implies v(x)=-v(x^{-1})$
but $v(-xx^{-1}) =0 \implies v(x)=v(x^{-1})$. So $v( x)=0$. Thus inverses are in $R$ too, so $R$ is an abelian group
wai
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
You're trying to prove R is an additive group
So what is supposed to be the "inverse" rule?
if x \in k^x so is x^{-1}
That's not what I said
You're saying R is an abelian group, but compared to which operation
right
So, when you're trying to prove "inverses" are also in R
oh, I see the issue now
Are we interested in x^{-1}?
Huh?
I have shown v(x)=v(x^{-1})=0 no?
The proof is wrong
how so
Why would v(-xx^-1) = 0 imply the next line
$v(-xx^{-1})= v(-x)=-v(x^{-1})$. And $v(-x)=-v(x)$
wai
When did you prove this first set of equalities
And "v(-x) = -v(x)" is also false
I agree that v(-x) = -v(x^-1), as long as you managed to prove v(-1) = 0
yup, just figured
But why would this all be equal to v(-xx^-1)
Well v(1 * -1)= v(-1)= v(1)+v(-1) so v(1)=0 . It then follows v(1)=v(-1) + v(-1). so v(-1)=0
well, so we've shown if x is invertible v(x)=0. haven't we
right 😭
Also, "if x is invertible" means "if x is not 0"
So you're basically saying the whole valuation is always 0
Hard to believe
You've got the idea to use -1 so yes it should be easy from now on
Just organize your proofs cleanly
And don't get caught into trying to prove something you're not asked to (and is false)
Like trying to show x^(-1) is in R when all we asked is to show -x is in R
yup
oh, v(-x)=v(x)+v(-1)=v(x)
so we're done
The next part of the problem asks me to show that if x is a unit, v(x)=0, so I thought this would kill 2 birds with one stone
Well, we're done for the additive group part
Lemme prove it's closed under multiplication
Also, you still haven't fixed those
When x isn't 0, yes
Separate case for x = 0, even if it's trivial
they're in R
Ok, but are you allowed to take their valuation
wdym
well, the set R is those elements of K^x such that v(x)≥0
Reread the definition of R
$R= {x \in K^{\times}: v(x)≥0} \cup {0}$
Yes
wai
So if you take any x in R
yes
Can you always say that v(x) >= 0
well, it could be 0
0 has no valuation, so we can't talk about v(x) unless we know for sure x ≠ 0
right
So this has to be fixed
so I add if x,y≠0
That solves part of the problem
You'll have to make a separate case when x = 0 or y = 0, but we're on the right track
Now, "so v(x+y) >= 0"
when x=0, v(y+0)=v(y), which is ≥0
and similarly when x=0
but when both are 0, we run into problems
well, the function isn't defined when x=0=y
What's their sum if both are 0
so That's a non-issue
0, but v(0) isn't defined
But do we need v(0) to know if 0 is in R
Yep
We also didn't need to check v(x+y) whether x=0, y=0 or both
x+y = x or y, both being in R
I think we're done? proving closure under multiplication is a direct conseqeunce of (i)
Well, as always...
Also
yes
Do you see the problem with this
it's the same problem you had before
v(0) not being defined?
mhm
so I have to come up with a work around
I'll eat and finish this if it's fine?
@warm python Has your question been resolved?
Hmm, can i have a hint
Oh got it
V(1+0)>min(0, v(0))
So v(0) is less than equal to 0
Isn't v(0) not defined in the first place
Like 0 isn't even the domain of v
Wait
So just x+-x=0 and 0 is in it
😭
How did i miss that
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god help me
1m^3 of neon gas (C_v =3R/2) at 273.2K and 10 atm initial pressure is expanded reversibly and isothermally to a final pressure of 1 atm. find the work done
now my module reports the answer as 232.85 kJ
whereas I am getting 2332.9 kJ
which is an apprx 10 times answer
can someone verify which answers right
gpt says mines but i can trust
!show
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
well its not very difficult since its T=const, we apply the ideal gas eqn to obtain that V2 = 10 m^3 or 10^4L
then w = nRT lnV2/V1 = PV ln V2/V1 = 10^4 * 2.303 * 101.3 * 10^(-3) kJ
numerically i havent made an error, so clearly either i put values wrong, formula wrong or my modules wrong
and show the module's answer
wait nvm
my modules calc went wrong
i just put in the raw numbers they put in a calc
how do i have better calc than them they use calculators for this stuff🙏
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how can number 2 be possible. I graphed up a scenario and there are many values of b where the equation wont be 0
"at most one point" means 0 or 1
oops didnt read it closely . For the proving itself I was thinking of saying that f'(x) = x^3-3x+b. and then I would need to show that f(-1) = f(1) but then you have -b = b. But that seems to lend itself to there never being a point
That's not really what's happening
ok. This was just me trying to apply rolle theorem to the problem
Yeah, but you won't apply it to some antiderivative of x³-3x+b
You'll apply it to something else
||for example, reasoning by absurd||
if we want x^3-3x+b = 0 woudln't that mean that is f'(c)
f(x) is x^3-3x+b, not f'
how did you see that?
I mean, reasoning by absurd is pretty common
If you have to prove that a function has at most 1 zero
What happens when it has 2 or more should be impossible
And two zeroes is exactly where Rolle intervenes
idk what that is
To prove a statement with "absurd reasoning"
Suppose that the statement is false
And find a contradiction
but doesn't rolle take care of 1 or more zeros
You're mixing up with the derivative of the function
And it's the consequence of Rolle, not the conditions to apply it
Rolle says:
IF a function f continuous on ..., differentiable on ... and has f(a) = f(b), two points with the same image
THEN f' has a zero in between
So if you want to apply Rolle, it's no use trying to find the zeros of a derivative
Because that's what Rolle is gonna give you, not what it requires
So, you should look for a function to which you can apply Rolle, meaning a function that has f(a) = f(b)
I have tried that with x^3-3x+b but then you get -1+3+b=1-3+b=0. but no b exists
Who said "a" and "b" were gonna be -1 and 1
that is the bounds of our function though
Yeah, but the actual points with same image can be anywhere inside the bounds
doesn't the way he define it imply the endpoints?
Look, in our exercise
The function f(x) = x³-3x + b has a derivative everywhere on R
So no matter which segment [a,"b"] you're looking at
f is gonna be continuous on that segment and will have a derivative on the open interval inside
When the exercise tells you to look for zeros inside [-1,1], you're tempted to take [a,"b"] = [-1,1]
But, as you said it, it won't work because f(-1) is not f(1)
So
ok I see. so all I need to do is find a sub interval in -1 to 1 and then make sure that there is only one x
there is one thing i think you might be missing
f(a) != f(b) but Rolle's theorem is about f(a) = f(b)
in this case you have f'(a) = f'(b)
right?
Ok...? But what's the point applying Rolle to f'
or is it the other way
You won't get anything out of it
is there some g such that g'(x) = f(x) and g(a) = g(b)
Still not
We're gonna apply Rolle to f itself, not "g", not f'
well rolle's theorem tells us the derivative of f obtains zero
Just not on [-1,1]
I think you still haven't understood the point
The point is to show f' has a zero
Because f' has no zero on (-1,1)
so if you want to conclude f obtains zero at some point by rolle's you're actually talking about f being the derivative of the function that has g(a) = g(b)
why?
rolle's concludes 0 = f'(somewhere) not 0 = f(somewhere)
We're not trying to show f has at least one zero... we're trying to show f has at most one zero
YES
So
If we find that, when f has two or more zeros
f' has a zero
And on the other hand, f' has no zero
Then that's absurd
So this assumption is wrong
And f has at most one zero
does rolle's let us conclude the existence of two or more critical points?
?
No, it gives the existence of a critical point of f
Critical point which cannot exist
Because f'(x) = 3(x²-1)
Which doesn't cancel on (-1,1)
I am understanding this correctly? For rolle we need f(a) = f(c). But they want us to show that there is at most one point where this is true. Meaning a or c but we assume there is two.
Yes, suppose there is a < c in [-1,1] such that f(a) = f(c) = 0
That's the opposite statement of "f has at most one zero in [-1,1]"
i can work out that rolles says "if f' has no zero in the interval and f is differentiable and continuous on the interval then f(a) != f(b)"
then I would need to show that rolle leads to a contraction right?
i think the quoted phrase i used does it
it shows uniqueness of the zero when it exists
because our f' does have no zero in the interval
this is just converse law application
a -> b therefore not b -> not a
So which values of a and b are you applying this to
To apply rolle you need a < b
So you have to suppose there exist zeroes a < b, thus reasoning by absurd
in that case you need to use f(a) = 0 in one case and f(b) = 0 in the other
in general we want to show that if a != b then f(a) != f(b) i.e. the function is injective on the interval
the converse on rolle's gives us exactly what we need for that conclusion
I feel like you're overcomplicating trying to prove by "Rolle converse" by all means, when the reasoning by absurd seems easier
Here's that for clarity:
Rolle's: If f is continuous on [a, b] and differentiable on (a, b) and has f(a) = f(b), then f' has a zero in (a, b).
Converse: If f' has no zero in (a, b) and f is continuous on [a, b] and differentiable on (a, b), then f(a) != f(b).
@scarlet sequoia the only issue I can see with rolle is that on our interval f' has two zeros and you can only have f(a) = f(c) if c,a = +/- sqrt(2), or 0 . the sqrt(2)'s are out of bounds but 0 is in bounds which ends up going against what we want since we can find a point in [-1,1] where f(a) = f(c)
Where did the sqrt2 come from
Those zeroes aren't in (a, b) so you're good
nvm I messed up with system of equations
but still we have 0 which is true
The zeroes of f' are ±1, which are outside of (-1,1)
So they're outside of (a,c) where a, c are the two zeroes of f we picked
Contradicting Rolle
when a or c is a zero right
When both are zeroes of f (reasoning by absurd)
this shows the other cannot be a zero
ok I see all of this now but wasn't the only way to set them equal was by making a and c 0 which means that there could only be one point to begin with
it lets you conclude that they must come from equal inputs
two different inputs can produce a zero
we have shown that two zeros must be the same zero
they cannot be different on this interval
you can rearrange the contradiction proof to obtain a converse proof that involves showing f is injective on the interval
which lets you conclude the uniqueness of the zero directly as a special case
ok so we start with a and c and assume rolle. Then we obtain -1 and 1 for our zeros of f'. But we don't know that it is outside of [a,c] until we know that a = c = 0 and that we would have to do by directly.
What I dont' see is how we can say that -1 and 1 are not in the interval of [a,c] without knowing what a and c are which would show us that they are the same
Then we obtain -1 and 1 for our zeros of f'.
Then we use the fact that -1 and 1 are the only zeros in [a, b] and neither is in (a, b)
where does rolle theorem say that. it only says that the derivtives must be defined at each of the poitns in (a,b) not be (a,b)
ok so we start with a and c and assume rolle
We start withcbeing some zero and then consider[a, c]and[c, b]
then f' has a zero in (a, b).
To contradict rolle's you must show that f' has no such zero
why?
Because we are trying to prove this is the only zero, we need to check two other possible intervals that could contain a distinct zero.
We have to contradict Rolle's for both.
Once you've shown there's no zero of f' in either (a, c) or (c, b) then Rolle's (by contradiction) lets you show every d in either [a, c) or (c, b] must have f(c) != f(d) because c != d.
how can we have more than one zero on [-1,1]?
The objective at that point is to show the opposite.
Any zero on [-1, 1] of f is unique.
but do use rolle we have to assume the opposite
ifndr suggested using the converse of Rolle
to use rolle you have to prove f' contains no zeros and then you know that f(a) != f(c)
If you want to use direct Rolle, you can do the absurd reasoning we did earlier
but it doesn't work
i am trying to think how to make it work because it should
you can just convert converse proofs to contradiction proofs
but the prose is escaping me
Isn't that the point of reasoning by absurd
showing that something can't work
by assuming it does work
let's say there are two zeroes of f i.e. c != d and f(c) = f(d) = 0
wait wait I am now getting confused
yes this I understand. Then our objective is to show that f'(x) = 0 but x not in (c,d)
Rolle's: If f is continuous on [a, b] and differentiable on (a, b) and has f(a) = f(b), then f' has a zero in (a, b).
Then f' has a zero in (a, c] or [c, b), contradicting f'(d) != 0
||There i found the confusion||
why maybe d is in one of the intervals
the premise "there are two distinct zeros in the interval" is said "suppose c and d are unequal zeroes"
and the case analysis goes and says "d must be either above or below c"
then no matter which we can use rolles to contradict that
there i got u the contradiction version instead of the converse version
had to think about it for a little while
I still don;t see how we show this
.
not quite accurate there i'll help fix that up
