#help-36
1 messages · Page 216 of 1
certainly
linear combinations of what exactly
so youll need to .close the channel when you leave
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alr gl
tA + (1 - t)B is a straight line from A to B
consider that here, if you need a spoiler search up Jensen's inequality
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Can I have a hint
The lcm of the order of the elemnts must be 4
so I need $\phi(4)$
wai
right
So the combination of order must be (1,4), (4,1), (2.4) ....
Z80000000 is cyclic so it has a unique cyclic subgroup of order 4
same for Z_{40,0000}
Yes, so you can embed Z4 x Z4 in a unique way in Z8000 .. x Z4000..
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would i be right in saying in the case n = 10, there are no solution pairs, since y is rational, and x is rational, but root 10 / 10 is irrational, and you can't have a rational = rational x irrational
yes
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Context: Graph Theory, bipartite graphs, König's Theorem
given is the graph above
i found a matching M, marked in orange
i also made partitions L and R, such that there are no edges (l,r), such that l in L and r in R
therefore this graph is bipartite i think
Next, I marked the exposed vertices in green
L* is the set of exposed vertices in L. Same for R*
The arrows on the graph where then created, such that all edges in the matchng M point from R to L. All edges in E\M (not in the matching) point from L to R.
In my script it then states the following
$C^:=(L\backslash S^)\cup (R\cap S^*)$
Martin
and following König's Theorem: For any bipartite graph, the maximum size of a matching is equal to the minimum size of a vertex cover
I find C* to be {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,9,11} in this case, so |C*|=9
my matching however has 12 vertices.
isn't this a contradiction?
btw pls ping me when someone responds
@mental roost Has your question been resolved?
solved it!
my mistake was setting up S*
i thought that it asked for vertices that are reachable in one step
.close
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how did they go from $\frac{n^2}{n^3}$ to $\frac{n^3}{n^3}$
Mystic
in the 2nd/3rd line
,, \sum_{i=1}^n n^2 = n^3
Nel
what formula is this
,, \sum_{i=1}^n n^2 = n^2 \cdot \sum_{i=1}^n 1 = n^2 \cdot n = n^3
Nel
all i can remember is $\frac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6}$
Mystic
That's $\sum_{i=1}^n i^2$
doesnt this summation mean sum of first n squares
Nel
oh so that is i^2
what does n^2 even mean then
i^2 is just squaring and summing every element
n is the number of subintervals
what does this thing mean
The sum of n^2, n times
here it says right hand endpoint
It would be the sum from 0 to n-1 instead
for right hand its 1 to n, left hand its 0 to n-1,
and what about midpoint
It really just depends on how you define c_i
$c_i = i \Delta x = i/n$ for right-hand endpoint, so $c_1 = 1/n$ and $c_n = 1$ (the right sides of the first and last subintervals)
Nel
$c_i = (i-1) \Delta x = (i-1)/n$ for left-hand endpoint, so $c_1 = 0$ and $c_n = (n-1)/n$ (the left sides of the first and last subintervals)
Nel
$c_i = (i-1/2) \Delta x = (i-1/2)/n$ for midpoint, so $c_1 = 1/2 \cdot 1/n$ and $c_n = (n-1/2)/n$ (the midpoints of the first and last subintervals)
Nel
I guess
Conceptually it's the same
Using midpoints means you need to sample the function at 2n points instead of at just n points
But since you're taking the limit anyway...
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Consider the function f defined on [0,1] by (by the way (x,y) \in \mathbb{R}^2 and 0<x<y)
$t \rightarrow f(t) = \ln (tx +(1-t)y) - t ln(x) - (1-t)ln(y)$
By Studying f deduce that for all t $\in ]0,1[$ :
$t \ln(x) +(1-t)ln(y) \le \ln (tx + (1-t)y)$
Interpret the result geometrically
Drk
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can someone help i'm lost in useless calculations
in the question before this i proved this inequality with the mean value theorem
@tranquil pine Has your question been resolved?
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Civil Service Pigeon
L'inégalité souhaitée est équivalente à démontrer que $f(t) \geq 0$ et est très similaire aux approches standards pour la concavité. Ainsi, je vous encourage à considérer:
\begin{itemize}
\item Le signe de $f''(t)$
\item La valeur de $f(t)$ aux bornes de l'intervalle, à savoir en $t=0$ et $t=1$.
\end{itemize}
Civil Service Pigeon
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hello!! i was wondering if someone can help brainstorm with me possible solutions for this? i dont want the answer right away, i wanna think about this
im stuck on this problem because if we pick a matrix like
1 0
0 0
acctually..
one possible option is to set A=(a,b; c,d), compute A^2 and then set enough of a,b,c,d=0 so everything in A^2 is 0
ok i will give that a try; i think that when i was trying to solve the question, i forgot that matrix multiplication is multiplying rows and columns lol
you cant have something like
1 0
0 0
or anything where you just plug in positive numbers and zero only
the only combination that worked so far with me is picking a = 2 and then c = -2 and the rest zero so either multiplying by zero cancels out or -2(2) cancels out
0 2
-2 0
you can pick different numbers or maybe switch where you have #s and 0, like
2 0
0 -2
im wondering if theres another 2*2 matrix where thats possible
you can have matrices with only 0 and 1
ok thank you, i need to think about this a bit more
actually
2 0
0 -2
doesnt work
--
is
0 -a
a 0
the only one that works?
Have you tried your example?
i tried
0 -1
1 0
and if im not mistaken, it should work
it doesnt
Can you show your computation
okay
What is this matrix squared
ill send a picture
youre right
it doesnt work
i dont know why i thought the -1 * 1 can just cancel out
As a hint
Don't try to think about canceling things out
Just try to find a configuration where all coefficients in A² are 0+0
thank you! ill try again
(Ofc there are other matrices such that A² = 0 that don't follow this type, but they are a bit harder to find)
youre right, i tried with a very simple example
0 0
a 0
where a = 1
and it did work
Yep
can we just move a anywhere and we will get A^2 = 0?
So technically you've already solved the exercise, if you pick two different values of a
thats true
Try to think about if it's true for every position
okay
0 a
0 0
where a = 1 works
but if you try to position 'a' anywhere in the main diagonal, it doesnt work
a 0
0 0
doesnt work
0 0
0 a
doesnt work
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can i get help w this
!showyourwork
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
ik the formula is 4pir^2
but it doesn’t work when I divide it all by 2
since its not a full sphere
r is half of 5 m
2.5
there is a circle too?
for volume or surface area?
solved it?
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✅ Original question: #help-36 message
i have a question
for the surface area of this
they didn’t use the whole formula for the cone
elaborate
the cone formula is for surface area = (pi x r^2)+(pi x r x s)
but they didn’t use the first part
I don’t understand why
That's the TSA formula
that's because they curved surface area of cone, here the bottom part of cone is not considered
as we have semisphere attached
yh you can say the bottom part is now inside the 3d figure and not on surface
does tht only work for all shapes when calculating the surface area
or is it also for the volume
not for the volume
no volume disappears when you combine two shapes together
for the surface area, you should always be thinking: "which parts are on the outside?"
then you'll figure it out
ic
tysm
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hi, i need help with letter (b).
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oh i apologize
Which question?
letter (b)
i have done this
i just tried to visualize
Have you tried integrating?
no
i am not sure what to integrate
which area
So you want two integrals. One is to get the area between P and the curve until 4 (from the intersection til 4) the other is for the area between Q and the curve from 4 till their intersection
In general when two curves are given in the plane by continuous functions say f and g. The area between them on [a, b] is $\int_a^b |f(x) - g(x)|dx$
Beth
But notice that the curve sits above both lines here? This means the absolute value simplifies
so these two areas?
The areas below
oh yess
ohh
You’ve drawn your diagram nicely so it looks obvious (although of course it still needs to be shown)
but wouldnt this be difficult?
cause i dont have the function of the tangent
Ahhh. Well you can get it. If you want to get the tangent of a differentiable function at a point, it’s $y = f’(a)(x - a) + f(a)$. I would suggest trying to geometrically intuit why, but this gives you your tangents
Beth
For the record, this is called a linearization
okie
Looks good. Now you just have to do the next step
yayy
okie
i will do that now
so this would be the area for the first one
we can already see that the area doesn’t depend on m and n
which we want to show
or we want to show it indirectly
we want to show that the area is equal regardless of the values of m and n
ohh i made a mistake i believe
You have. It’s kind of a small one though
I would suggest finding the antiderivatives of the curve, P and Q so that it just becomes substitution
oh i did that actually
Since you seemed to have found the antiderivative, no. Thankfully you’ve done lots of the work
yesss
but now the answer i got is wrong
For Q it is 4 6
but this is for P
but yes
Because The peach region is from 4 to 6
yes
but now i tried to find the pink region
but i have done a mistake
cause the area should be 8/3
for both regions
@shrewd wren Has your question been resolved?
Hey
Sorry was busy. I am now in front of a desk. Try simplifying $f(x) - ( f’(a)(x - a) + f(a))$ symbolically
Beth
So just hold $a$ constant and simplify this expression
Hint: you should get $(x - a)^2$ at the end and get something very symmetrical as a final step
Beth
hii
no worries
but why f(x)-h(x)
Well we are taking the difference between f and a linearization of f at a point in any case. So what can we say about it generally?
The simplifying turns out to make life much easier
Like. Write integral sign maybe 4 times at most
oh i meant why f(x)-h(x) and not h(x)-f(x)
silly mee, i could have simplified here
but i did that
and still got the wrong answer
Must be an arithmetic mistake. Things are correct up to line 3. I suggest looking at it and seeing if you can factorise?
Recall this. Somehow you should get a nice factorisation
The same would go for the other integral
(x-2)^2
right?
x^2-4x+4 = (x-2)^2
Now let u = x - 2, du = dx. And the bounds of integration change too. With 2 mapping to 0 and 4 mapping to 2
Then you should get something with u^2 only in your integral
For f and Q, you do a very similar thing
but what do you mean by "With 2 mapping to 0 and 4 mapping to 2"?
Then you wouldn’t even need to evaluate the integrals technically speaking to determine if they are equal
Ahh, let me clarify. $\int_a^b dx$ becomes $\int_{a - 2}^{b-2} du$
Beth
Nope. Because $u(a) = a - 2$ and $u(b) = b - 2$
Beth
When you do a u substitution into a definite integral, you apply what you substitute onto the bounds of integration
oh
@shrewd wren Has your question been resolved?
How you did the latex ?
@shrewd wren Has your question been resolved?
Struggling with 2A
it’s not an integration thing, this is ch4 applications of derivatives
no clue how to find the time traveled if the velocity is changing
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sign error
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Could i get help
1a is just a variant of the Angles of Intersecting Secants Theorem.
huh
Math explained in easy language, plus puzzles, games, quizzes, videos and worksheets. For K-12 kids, teachers and parents.
i still don’t get it
@gritty flume Has your question been resolved?
For these questions, it is useful to remember that the tangent to a circle is at a 90 degree angle from the origin to the point. Hence, we can say that angle OBP is 90 deg in 1a, for example.
Thereafter, you can see that line PB and PA are equal, though not explicitly given in the problem. Knowing that, we also know that the other two angles in triangle ABP are equal, and so you can use the fact that the sum of angles in a triangle is 180, subtracting angle P.
Finally, now you know that OBP is 90 deg, and that ABP is (180-68)/2 deg. that means that angle OBA is 90-56 = 34 deg. Since OBA and OAB are equal, we get that angle AOB (or a) can be solved for with 180-(2*34) = 112
this is the sort of reasoning you can use if you don't want to use the theorems, it is doable and gives you a deeper understanding, but often times it is faster to apply the theorems.
b should be possible to do, remembering that the PAO is 90deg tho.
@gritty flume makes sense?
but how
i kinda understand
but the angle at a and b are 90 yes
but how do they go into the triangle
So the angle at A and B can be split into two parts
you have both OBA and ABP which together add to OBP
and therefore, you have 90 = ABP + OBA
I don’t get it
so if you know one, you can calculate the other.
why are they 90
that's the interesting part, which is a bit tricky
in only know when tangents meet they are equal
the tangent is defined as being basically intersecting the circle at exactly one point
and because there is only that outermost point, the line has to be exactly perpendicular
and it is 90 degrees.
oki i understand tht
nice.
So when you have the triangles with a known angle, like in 1a, you can find the other two as well
because we know that they are equal
and so, you can say that the unknown angles, which are equal, each denoted by x
satisfy the equation: theta + 2x = 180
180 - theta = 2x
wait, what if i cut the 68 into two parts and find the a
and we know theta = 68
thing is, we'll ultimately find that 68 + a = 180, by the theorem that guy mentioned
and this is basically the working towards that
where did the 2x comes rom
i get you, there are three angles of a triangle, and they all sum to 180 deg. Critically, we know that the unknown angles are equal.
that is why there is 2x instead of something else
this is only because we are dealing with an isoceles triangle
is the equal angles the WHOLE a
a = 112
so i think you got something mixed up in the start there
Nice spotting the triangles
but the unknown angle would be equal to a/2
so your triangle would be a 90-34-a/2 triangle
idk tht formula
ic
you just have to label the corner where you had "a" "a/2" instead
so i should use a different variable for the divided a
ideally i would do that yes
maybe try doing b?
try recognizing which angles are equal
sketch it out
For b, OAB = OBA
so you could use the same trick
maybe a and b
honestly idk im guessing
ik an angle in a circumference is 90
but tht one is 132
the first thing i do is draw the triangle
because we know that it is an isoceles triangle
is every triangle like tht and isosceles
so 180-132=2x
more or less yes
if the lengths of the legs are equal in length, then yes
often times you can recongnize these because they are in a circle problem
the construction took away some parts that might be useful for recognizing it
i got 24
tysm person
also, this is kinda interesting, because this problem set more or less illustrates that the angles have this relationship to eachother
notice that b is exactly half of 132
and for the 1a, notice that a + 68 is exactly 180
i need to also learn how to write the explanation tho
you'll get it with some more practice 🙂
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I'm trying to show $C_c(X)$ is separable, where $X=\mathbb{R}^d$. We know that $C_c(X)\subset C_0(X)$, so if I can show the latter is separable, so will $C_c(X)$ be. The Stone-Weierstrass theorem for locally compact Hausdorff spaces I'm familiar with is:\
Let $X$ be a noncompact LCH space. If $\mathcal{A}$ is a closed subalgebra of $C_0(X,\mathbb{R})=C_0(X)\cap C(X,\mathbb{R})$ that separates points, then either $\mathcal{A}=C_0(X,\mathbb{R})$ or $\mathcal{A}={f\in C_0(X,\mathbb{R}):f(x_0)=0}$ for some $x_0\in X$.
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not at exactly x=0 they don't!
mark scheme:
okok
.close
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Can anyone help me? I am trying but like i really dont get it, with the table of variations i am showing, i want for example to get the table of variation of u( v(x) ) but the problem is i dont understand the I1 (interval 1) or I2 (interval 2) or idk what, what i think when i read the theorem : for me it means that u function is like the g function, and v function is like the f function, which means : u : x [0 ; 3] which is I2 -> u(x) and v : x [0 ; 3] which is I1 -> v(x) [1 ; 3] which is NOT I2, but the problem is not stopping here, when i see the correction i notice that the table of variations of u( v(x) ) is not strictly increasing or decreasing, its not easy to explain but like i simply dont get it, idk if im missing a point with the interval im saying but i dont get
if you want, here is the correction of the table of variation of u( v(x) ) so you can maybe understand better
and yet, even with the correction, i dont get what the theorem means
v(n) and u(n) are not monotonic function in [0,3]
The theorem states that it's true for f(x) and g(x) are strictly monotonic
By the way if anyone need to see a little bit more clear of what i tried
What does monotonic means actually?
Dont get it
Does it mean that like its only increasing or only decreasing on a certain interval?
@spiral olive Has your question been resolved?
yes.
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why doesn't
s = 16.8
u =
v = -19
a = -10
t =
work in v^2 = u^2 + 2as
19^2 - 2(-10)(16.8) = u^2 means u = sqrt(697)
which is not 5
Displacement is downwards
Meaning s is negative
19^2-2(-10)(-16.8)=u^2 gives u=sqrt(25)
okay
now doing the second part
-44 = -10t
t = 4.4s
but t = 2.4s in the mark scheme
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Consider the collection $\mathcal{E}$ of functions $\mathbb{R}^d\ni x\mapsto e^{-|x-q|^2}$, where $q\in\mathbb{Q}^d$ and $|\cdot|$ is the Euclidean norm. We do not include the constant $1$ function. $\mathcal{E}$ is a countable family of functions.
Consider the $\mathbb{Q}$-algebra that $\mathcal{E}$ generates, that is, linear combinations of products of elements in $\mathcal{E}$ with coefficients from $\mathbb{Q}$. Is the closure of this $\mathbb{Q}$-algebra a subalgebra of $C(\mathbb{R}^d,\mathbb{R})$, i.e. a real vector subspace, closed also under point-wise multiplication?\
I tried to verify this, but I got overwhelmed by the workload of things to check. My end goal is to apply the Stone-Weierstrass theorem for LCH spaces to some closure of a collection of functions that is countable (and this closure being an algebra), to prove $C_0(\mathbb{R}^d)$ and hence $C_c(\mathbb{R}^d)$ is separable.
psie
Suppose you took a pair of elements in the closure
Say, $f,g$, since they’re in the closure you can get sequences $f_n, g_n \in \mathcal E$ such that $\Vert f_n - f\Vert\to 0$ and same for $g_n\to g$
Sharp, Archon of Severing
Can you show $\Vert f_n g_n - fg\Vert\to 0$ and $r_n \to r \implies \Vert r_n f_n - rf\Vert \to 0$
Sharp, Archon of Severing
Once you get those two, do you see how to proceed?
Note that none of this relies on basically any of our assumptions besides that you’re closing this normed algebra and that our operations are nicely continuous
(And being metric spaces with uniform continuity makes things much nicer)
Yeah, thanks. A key thing is though that our topology is that of uniform convergence on compact sets, right? So to verify that c f, where c is real and f is an element in the closure I need to consider sup_{x in K} where K is a compact set.
Your topology is in fact just outright uniform convergence
And normed
Verify this, but clearly \sup |f(x)| < \infty for any f in C_0
Turns out it gives you a norm
And it’s exactly the topology you have here
Hmm, ok. I thought for LCH spaces we always consider the topology of uniform convergence on compact sets. (Since R^d is LCH.)
So, I also want to point out that this isn’t “key” either, the real bit is continuity
It vanishes at infinity, prove C_0(R^d, R) is a Banach space in this norm and that it’s the same topology
Oh boy. Ok. 🥲 But there would in principle be nothing wrong by choosing the topology of uniform convergence, right?
They are the same thing
Sorry, meant the one on compact sets.
Yea
They’re the same thing
When you’re dealing with C_0 here
Clearly it’s the same with C_c right?
Yes, makes sense. 👍
The norm makes it easier by letting you throw things like these, but you can just as easily only ask about convergent sequences or nets or such here
But that’s more troublesome so it’s nice to say you don’t need to
Ok. I struggled with verifying the closure is closed under scalar multiplication (real coefficients). That took me some time.
This is essentially just verifying that scalar and algebra multiplication are continuous btw
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How do i shade the water
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np, btw it can be used to color other stuff as well
e.g. if u wanated to make the boat red, you could do
boat floor <= y <= boat ceiling
wait
how
oh, did u draw it by hand? Or is it a formula?
its not working
If its drawn by hand, then it probably wont work
formula
can u send the formula?
its quite a bit, want the link?
sure
LMAO THE THUMBNAIL 😭
the formulas are a bit messy, i only just started getting the hang of this
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@onyx peak sorry to ping, it js closed the channel
its gonna take some time since your boat is defined in a lot of pieces, but you can fill it by bunch of inequalities like that one above
and u can mess with the opacity in settings btw
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does anyone get what my teacher is on about she assigned this as homework. i’ve gotten 10.000 but I don’t think that would be right or it wouldn’t say to 3d.p
The triangle with vertices
A (1,3), B(-2, 4) and C(3, - 5) is not right-angled.
Changing only one of these six coordinates can result in ABC being the vertices of a right-angled triangle.
Find (to 3d.p.) the area of the smallest right-angled triangle that can be created in this way.
what does "3d.p." mean?
I also got 10! by changing C's y coordinate... altho im not sure if that makes the smallest possible area 😔
Im not sure how to prove it either
@austere nymph Has your question been resolved?
yup! sorry I cant really prove if that's the smallest...
it will be extremely annoying if i were to keep guessing by changing the coordinates of the other points
especially because the question didnt state that the coordinates for the vertices have to be integers
unless... theres calculus in this 🤷♂️ good luck!
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I’m stuck on this question on my homework in which I’m differentiating the equation x^2+4y^2=7+3xy
This image shows the work I’ve done but according to AP Classroom my goal is dy/dx = (3y-2x)/(8y-3x)
can someone point out what I’ve been doing wrong? I got this same process three times now and can’t tell where a change would be important
This is Calculus >> Deriving implicit functions
$x^2 + 4y^2 = 7 + 3xy$?
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
try to make a quadratic of $y$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
something like $ay^2 + by + c$ where $a, b, c$ can contain $x$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
Before differentiation?
ye
I’ll try it, hold on
do it in your draft
When take differential of 3xy you have to apply product rule
OH
It's not 3dy/dx
that’s been my issue with so many of these I forgot about the product rule
Thank you Hunter 😭
I got u
3$xy$ turns into $3(x)’(y)+3x(y)’$ right
@ON | Flappy the Turd
Yes
Ok cool
I’ll get back once I’m done with whether it worked
Oh yeah I can already see this working
Thank you so much! I’ll make sure none of the other questions’ issues are product rules either in case I need to open another question in a moment
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hi i have a question
x here is supposed to be the vector written as the linear combination
but then when they do the matrix representation of the system they treat x like its the coefficient matrix, why??
@tranquil pine Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
can anyone help
much appreciated
<@&286206848099549185>
wait wdym treat x like its the coefficient matrix?
mb I thought i sent it but here
[x]_B
[x]_B is just the coordinate vector of x in the standard basis B AKA x itself,
Yeah but in the system it’s just the vector
in the matrix representation of the same system it’s interpreted now as the coefficient matrix???
howcome
im still a little confused about what you're confused about, can you point out this 'coefficient matrix'?
the 3x3 matrix, aka P, that I see is the change of basis matrix from B' to B
the coefficient matirx is the constants that you use to linearly combine a basis to form some vector x
but when we construct the system of equations, that comes from expressing x as a linear combination of a non standard basis
so x here is what? A vector
but as soon as they expressed the system as a Ax=b, b here which is x became interpreted as the coefficient matrix?
i mean sure you did use it as a coefficient matrix when expressing x via the standard basis, but in the system, its just x
and you are representing the system
sooo
yea
im guessing it's taught differently around the world, but at my college, a coefficient matrix is a matrix of all the coefficients of a linear system
are you down to vc? I can explain better
sry i cant vc
its okay but
Okay so look at the system
[1 2 -1]^T is x right
see?
yeah
Okay is that a coefficient matrix [x]_B too??
yeah, since B is the standard basis
idk if calling it a coefficient matrix is correct though, since it's a coordinate vector/matrix
but how
the matrix representation Ax=b represents the system
in the system x is just x
Its just the vector generated by the linear combination
right, but [x]_B is how you represent x in terms of the standard basis
the vectors of the standard basis form the columns for the identity matrix. so when you solve for I[x]_B = x, you get [x]_B = x
How
like
1,2,-1 is the result vector
in the system
and Ax=b is supposed to represent the system
system says 1,2,-1 is the spanned vector
Ax=b says no, now its the coefficients c1,c2,and c3 that spanned 1,2,-1 via the standard basis
and that happens here
The coefficients c1, c2, and c3 correspond to the vector [c_1 c_2 c_3]^T which is [x]_B'. the coefficients c1 c2 c3 times the basis B' results in [1, 2, -1]^T
I hope it makes sense
here I’ll explain better:
[x]_B’ = the vector column of the ** coefficients ** used to multiply by a non standard basis to get x
[x]_B = the vector column of the ** coefficients ** used to multiply by the standard basis to get x
Looking at our system, the right hand side is x
Now when we represented our system via Ax=b, b should be x, right?? And x is the spanned vector.
Yet in the screen shot, they label the x column as [x]_B, which we established what it represents above
So why did x become [x]_B if Ax=b is supposed to represent the system and the system treats the right hand side as x and not as [x]_B
yeah so you are right that b in this case is x. the reason they are representing x as [x]_B is to show the change of basis from B' to B. to convert from the standard basis to the standard basis, you multiply by the identity matrix, so x is [x]_B.
i don’t understand bro ngl
are you saying they decided to express the result b suddenly as the coefficient vector column without clarifying that they decided to not interpret b as the right hand side of the equation anymore
wydm?
Idk how to explain at this point 😂
yeah sorry 😭
yeah idk how else to explain tbh, but 3blue1brown's made a great video on it
https://youtu.be/P2LTAUO1TdA
How do you translate back and forth between coordinate systems that use different basis vectors?
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thank u bro
i appreciate your help regardless thanks
No worries
btw I still don’t understand how any of this is a “tranforation”
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✅ Original question: #help-36 message
i assume so yeah
theres a lot of intuition i don’t understand if you can help me out i really would appreciate it
coordinate matrix = scalars used to linearly combine a set of basis to express some vector
right?
Yep
Recalling from our discussion long ago, remember that a basis represents the 'building blocks' of a vector space. In other words, a coordinate in the basis B means that (a, b, c) in the B basis refers to:
- a units in the (1, 0, 0) direction
- b units in the (-3, 1, 0) direction
- c units in the (1, -2, 1) direction.
That means to convert the basis from B to S, you need to figure out how much each 'direction' in B goes in a 'direction' in S.
There's a couple of ways people explain it, but this is my way: The strategy going from one basis to another is to look at how each basis vector gets transformed with respect to the other basis.
Here's an example:
Take the point (1, 0, 0). How would you represent it in the standard basis?
you need to find c1 c2 and c3 : c1(1,0,0) + c2(0,1,0) + c3(0,0,1) = (3,-1,4) right?
(1,0,0) is already standard right
Yeahh but (3, -1, 4) is in terms of the basis B, so you should really write it as [(3, -1, 4)]_B
Perfect! So (1, 0, 0) gets mapped to itself. In other words, (1, 0, 0) -> (1, 0, 0).
yes
How about (-3, 1, 0)?
using the standard basis to describe this particular vector span would be a linear combination of a standard basis to describe this vector so:
c1(0,1,0) + c2(1,0,0) = (-3,1,0)
Good (you should technically include the (0, 0, 1) vector too)
but (-3,1,0) lives in a 2D space right
So would you agree that (-3, 1, 0) = -3(1, 0, 0) + 1(0, 1, 0) + 0(0, 0, 1)?
yes
i do
Well it's technically still a 3D vector, just that it lies on the XY plane.
Right, so here's the thing.
When we move one direction in the b direction in [(a, b, c)]_B, we are essentially moving -3 in the x direction, 1 in the y direction and 0 in the z direction, agreed?
wdym by in the b direction
Like
The middle component
The vector [(a, b, c)]_B is a vector according to the B basis
yes
So whenever we move one unit in the middle of the vector, i.e [(a, b, c)]_B
We are actually moving -3 in the x direciton, 1 in the y direction and 0 in the z direction
but thats just moving in all components no?
i don’t understand tbh
wait are you by any chance able to vc
yes please
of course dude ive been waiting for so long 😂😂😂
one minute
you can't VC for maths
there's only one Minecraft VC for active+
Damn
You still need help or not
here or in dms?
oh
DMs if you don't mind
Ok let's do this asap
o
The matrix that changes coordinates from B to standard is just the basis vectors of B placed as columns
That's all for a)
@tranquil pine
For example, if you have two basis, B1 and B2
whats the intuition tho
You know linear transformations?
I don’t think so
The matrix that changes coordinates from B ={b1,b2,b3} to C = {c1,c2,c3}, is the matrix that has columns (b1)_C, (b2)(C), (b3)(C), the intuition is that, when you multiply a 3x3 matrix with a 1x3 vector, you are essentially making linear combinations with the basis vectors
hiii
You are reconstructing that vector in terms of the basis you have, for example when B-> std you are transforming B coordinates to standard, because the matrix that has columns as the basis vectors of B when you multiply it by the coordinates of a vector in B you are telling the matrix the coefficients of the linear combination of how to form that vector, and the result of that multiplication is in standard basis
is this what you are referring to?
Yes it all boils down to linear combination and solving systems of equations
In this case you are trying to find the coordinates of (1,2,-1) in the B' basis
(1,2,-1) is in standard basis
And you want to go from standard to B'
Simpler alternative would be to find the change of basis matrix that goes from std to B'
Aka, the inverse of B' -> std
,w {{1,0,2},{0,-1,3},{1,2,-5}}^(-1) * {{1},{2},{-1}}
whats the point of doing it like this instead of just solving the system
When you see change of basis of linear transformations maybe it would make more sense of why we use change of basis matrices
For now, just see it as a quick way of finding coordinates of a vector with respect to some basis
thats the only way i see it rn
Later I think it will be fruitful when you get to more complicated math
Wdym?
see how they represented the system as a Ax = b
Whats the point?
why not just do elemination on the equations
like the normal guassian way
You have (1,2,-1) and want to find (1,2,-1)_B' = (X,Y,Z)
By definition of coordinates wrt to a basis, that is
(1,2,-1) = Xb1 + Yb2 + Zb3 where B'={b1,B2,b3}
They used Gaussian when they say (matrix) bla bla The solution of this system is
yeah but i can just do that without writing the system as Ax = b
The idea is to show you where this change of basis matrix comes from
i see
C1,C2,C3 are the coordinates of (1,2,-1) in the basis B'
Aka (1,2,-1)_B' = (C1,C2,C3)
can i aks something else
This is clearly showing that the Ax = b thing is doing that A is the matrix that changes coordinates from B' to std
You give it C1,C2, C3 that is
The coordinates that you are looking for your vector (1,2,-1) in B'
And it gives you the (1,2,-1) in standard
You solve for C1,C2,C3 and you find (1,2,-1)_B'
What
see here in the picture,:
[x]_B’ = the vector column of the coefficients used to multiply by a non standard basis to get x
[x]_B = the vector column of the coefficients used to multiply by the standard basis to get x
Looking at our system, the right hand side is x
Now when we represented our system via Ax=b, b should be x, right?? And x is the spanned vector.
Yet in the screen shot, they label the x column as [x]_B, which we established what it represents above
So why did x become [x]_B if Ax=b is supposed to represent the system and the system treats the right hand side as x and not as [x]_B
i get that [1 2 -1]^T is also [x]_B but thats not what the system of equations was saying
the system of equations was representing (1,2,-1) as just the resultant vector
which is in the Ax=b correspondence thats b
But theyre saying b = [1 2 -1]^T = [x]_B
which the system didn’t interpret it like that
It's still the same thing
Question
(1,2,-1) = c1(1,0,0) + c2(0,1,0) + c3(0,0,1)
Where (c1,c2,c3) = (1,2,-1)
[1,2,-1]_B = (1,2,-1)
Can you elaborate?
B is the standard basis
yes but
in the system of equations
Which is the same as Ax = b
1 2 -1 is just the resultant vector
so why interpret it as [x]_B when it isnt the case in the system if equations
They are trying to show you it's also possible to do it not only from basis B' to standard but also B' to D where D is another basis
In this case D was just the standard basis, but you can also have change of basis that goes from one nonstandard basis to another non standard basis
Let's agree that x = [x]_B when B is standard basis, so still saying same thing in my perspective
We can also do it from basis B' to another basis D
sure but
Where D is non standard
yeah i don’t understand this
would it be the same exact representation?
agreed
If you have a basis B = {b1,b2,b3} and basis D = {d1,d2,d3}, then the matrix that changes coordinatew from B to D is the basis vectors from B written wrt D, so the columns would be (b1)_D, (b2)_D, (b3)_D and this is harder to encapsulate in a system of equations little and simple example
in the last example that they gave it worked since the coordinates of the basis vectors of B' in the standard basis B are still the same, but if you use a non standard basis for B, the last example falls apart
do you not recommend we write it out algebraically then as a matrix?
up to you really, but in linear algebra you try to prefer turning things into matrix form rather than keep it in system of equations form
also, at some point you start making good use of the matrix form factor
@gentle zephyr i have a question, so I noticed that in this section they solved Ax = b ⇒ x = A^-1 * b to solve for the coordinates
but in other places such as solving for the nullspace of a row space, they didn’t take any inverse and solve like that
so can you do this way in any system of equations?
meaning can you rewrite any system then solve by taking inverse on both sides
nullspace of a row space?
Nullspace
only if A its invertible, in this case, ALL change of basis matrices are invertible
well, solving for the nullspace is solving for Ax = 0
they do that because change of basis matrices are always 100% invertible
theres two ways as to see why they are always invertible
one is, the determinant is always non zero for a matrix made out of basis vectors (they are linearly independent)
also, forgot to mention, but when the determinant of a square matrix is zero we have a nontrivial kernel/the dimension of the nullspace is not 0
second is, my favorite, but when you get to linear transformations you will see that the change of basis matrices are the matrix representation of the identity operator acting on different basis vectors and the identity linear transformation is an isomorphism (bijective linear transformation, which of course has a invertible matrix representation)
only when the A in Ax = b, only when A is invertible
if say for example you are solving for the nullspace or the rowspace
and solve it like that, by using the inverse of A
you will be assuming A is made out of linearly independent rows and columns
and by that logic since A is invertible then nullspace(A) is empty
but it is though
the row space does contain linearly independent vectors
the thing is, you know the concept of dimension?
dimension is the number of vectors a basis has
so for example, say that you are solving for the rowspace
and say you find a basis for the rowspace, that is made out of linearly independent vectors
then, if your matrix A is square, say for example a matrix 3x3
theres two possibilities
either the dimension of the rowspace is 3
or the dimension of the rowspace is < 3
in those cases
A is not invertible
but if the rank is 3, then the 3x3 matrix A is invertinle
A is only invertible if its a square full rank matrix, where rank(A) = dim(Col(A)) = dim(Row(A)) where row and col means rowspace and colspace
true because REF ⇒ a row with all zeros (in case the dimension is less than 3) which ⇒ 0 det(A)
in this case can you actually solve in Ax = 0 for x?
you will get a trivial kernel/nullspace ={0}
it's x=0 since there is only one solution if A is invertible
good point
but the null space for a 2D space is a line
how can a line be 0
say your square matrix has 2 independent vectors in R^3
wait thats not investable
Then it's not invertible yes
but wai t3 independent vectors in R^3 would have a 0 nullspace?
yes when they're the rows/cols of a matrix A
ohh
If you know bijections, being invertible means you can go between x and Ax freely since its a pairwise correspondence
it maps R^n to R^n
And there is a matrix A^-1 that reverses the operation of A
That's fine, this stuff is basically thinking about what happens when you try to go from one type of dimensional space to another
If you go to a higher dimensional space from a lower one, you can't cover every single point
i see
by the way, why is the graph stretching like that
My prof didnt teach us that
Ive seen this before too
but idk what it means
similar with determinants if I remember correctly
If you think about the 2d grid you are familiar with, its usually drawn with squares right? your axes are just the lines for the vectors (1,0) and (0,1) passing through the origin
those vectors are called the standard basis vectors since you can think of every vector in R2 to be a combination of them
for example (3,2) is just going 3 units right and 2 up, so 3(1,0)+2(0,1)
But that's because we assumed that everything is made of (1,0) and (0,1)
When you change the basis you're basically changing your perspective of the grid
if you assumed everything is made of (1,0) and (1,2), then to get to the same point on the plane you would have to take different steps
These are the steps for the standard basis
If we use a different step system we should draw each basic square in the shape of our new steps instead, so hence the basic unit goes from the square to this parallelogram
This helps us count by hand how many of the (1, 0)s and (1, 2)s you need to follow to get to a point in our new grid
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I wrote a foundations in Lean4, and have the axioms, operations, but this seems difficult, because I don't know these concepts yet:
field of quotients of an integral domain
Lie algebra of a Lie group
if they are functors then they are arrows
field_of_quoitents : 𝒞 ⟶ 𝒟
lie_algebra : 𝒞 ⟶ 𝒟
how much ring theory do you know
in particular do you know what an integral domain is
if you dont then uhhh im sorry to say this but this exercise is simply inaccessible to you yet.
field of quotients is probably better called field of fractions imo bc it is a construction that almost directly mimics the construction of the rationals from the integers
and THAT is sth you're surely familiar with from school
interesting
i mean i dont see how that would be helpful
or useful
but thats maybe cause i dont know much about it yet
@granite tapir Has your question been resolved?
That's awesome insight, thanks @tired walrus , seems to makes it more accessible
So it's a field of things p/q, p, q integers?
a functor maps objects and arrows of a category to those of another category
IntDom has objects integral domains, and arrows ring homomorphisms between them
Field has objects fields and arrows field homomorphisms
Frac : IntDom → Field
R = ℤ, f(n) = 3n
fraction 2/3 ∈ Frac(ℤ)
Frac(f)(2/3) = 3·2 / 3 = 6/3 = 2
object ℤ → Frac(ℤ)=ℚ,
ℤ ↦ ℚ
arrow f → Frac(f)
f : ℤ → ℤ, e.g., f(n) = 2n ↦ Frac(f) : ℚ → ℚ, Frac(f)(p/q) = 2p/q
to show in general still seems difficult in my experience, maybe simple?
how to prove:
objects: R ↦ Frac(R)
arrows: f : R → S ↦ Frac(f)(p/q) = f(p)/f(q)
id preserved: Frac(id_R) = id_{Frac(R)}
composition preserved: Frac(g ∘ f) = Frac(g) ∘ Frac(f)
Not very relevant
From every integral you can construct is fraction field
You need to show for very homomorphism of integral domains it induces a homomorphism on the fraction fields, and that it defines a functor
from Survey of Algebra - Mac Lane / Birkhoff
this seems relevant also
"The field of quotients Q(D) is a field for any integral domain D."
"Any integral domain D can be embedded isomorphically in a field Q(D), each element of which is a quotient of two elements of D." this is like the functor
The homomorphism part is what you are really missing
Meaning how arrows are mapped?
the composition of things in the integral domain matches those of the field of quotients
integer addition is same as rational number addition
+(a,b) ⟶ + a/b ? I don't yet understand it
a ↦ a/1
a+b ⟼ a/1 + b/1
Yeah
f : ℤ → ℚ,
f(n) = n/1
a, b ∈ ℤ
f(a + b) = (a + b)/1 = a/1 + b/1 = f(a) + f(b)
This is the localization map
You can use it to define the functor
Given g: A --> B, think how to define the induces morphism on a/1
add : a + b ↦ a/1 + b/1 = (a+b)/1
mul : a·b ↦ a/1 · b/1 = (a·b)/1
add_unit : 0 ↦ 0/1
mul_unit : 1 ↦ 1/1
add_inv : -a ↦ -a/1
mul_inv : a/b ↦ b/a, a ≠ 0
g: A → B in IntDom lifts to Frac(g): Frac(A) ⟶ Frac(B) in Field
objects map:
A ↦ Frac(A), B ↦ Frac(B)
arrows map:
g: A → B ↦ Frac(g): Frac(A) → Frac(B), defined by
Frac(g)(a/b) = g(a)/g(b)
is this local global pattern?
local maybe because pick specific things and operations with mapsto, but functor is global for it maps forall things and every map
which is maybe the whole point of the proof, show there is a global map
I appreciate your kind help @tired walrus and @worldly mesa
ty / thx
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I need help with my math studies. About finding a value of sin cos tan
could you be more specific?
This is the problem that I’m trying to solve
,rccw
which question exactly?
243
oh okay the other things were just identities
what does that say
can you draw theta = 7/6 pi on the unit circle?
then you should be able to convert it back to an angle such that 0 <= theta <= pi/2
(you might need to change the - sign into +)
For the following θ, find the values of sinθ, cosθ, and tanθ.
Unit circle?
ok, do you know sin (pi/6)
I don’t think so-
Yeah
right, so how can we use this to conver sin (7pi/6) to sin of some angle in the first quadrant
that's your issue
you should know that sin(0), sin(30), sin(45), sin(60), sin(90) are 0, 1/2, sqrt(2) / 2, sqrt(3) / 2, 1 respectively
Sin0=y/r?
Oh you mean that I didn’t know what it meant in English
I don't know
seemed like you didn't know it in any language
did you learn these values of sin in radians or degrees
Yeah but I was sleeping during those classes- well I mean I did study today about it during the day and did some few problems about it
Kind of understand what it is from YouTube videos
yes, then you'll also need the unit circle definition
the unit circle has r = 1, by definition
so sin theta = y/r = y
cos theta = x/r = x
Ohh
tysm