#help-36
1 messages · Page 208 of 1
I don't think of the bottom row as the new positions of each of the inputs, because surely this notation would work on sets containing things that aren't numbers
so anyway, we can gather that information succinctly into a cycle, (1 3)
so if we read something like (a b c d e), this is a permutation that sends a -> b -> c -> d -> e -> a
or rather
phi(a) = b, phi(b) = c, ...
right
2 goes to 4, 4 goes to 5, and 5 goes to 2, so this would be the cycle (2 4 5)
lastly, 6 goes to 6, so actually we just don't write anything here lol
ok so the bottom row is just the output row?
it's not clear without context where the permutation lives
yes, exactly
so in cycle notation we can write $\phi=(1;3)(2;4;5)$
Flip
maybe you can also say $\phi=(1;3)(2;4;5)(6)$?
Flip
it doesn't seem too offensive, but you would normally omit the (6)
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is the 2 equations correct here
@brazen stump Has your question been resolved?
In the future, if you’re going to ask if something is correct, please show where it came from (helps point out minor errors more quickly without back and forth). But no, neither of those equations is correct.
wait let me send
ignore the bubly bit and the other question on the side
Sign error with OX in step 1
the top arrow thing?
Where did 0.5a-2b come from in step 2
Did you assume OA and BC are the same
Because you’re not told that this is a parallelogram
So that isn’t necessarily true
How is a+5a equal to 4a
Sign error with OX in step 1
How is a+5a equal to 4a
Also be careful with your signs
wht abt it
hello im really sorry i have to
ty for trying to help hopefully u can continue next time plss
ty
.close
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Prove that there are infinitely many primes of the form 4n + 3.
Have you tried proof by contradiction?
By asuming there are only finite amount of primes in the form 4n + 3?
I think this video might help you:
https://youtu.be/aKArGv4xdFI?si=a-8MFm0jcDumAkaw
We prove that there are infinitely many primes of the form 4n+3.
http://www.michael-penn.net
http://www.randolphcollege.edu/mathematics/
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What is boolean algebra?
https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/digital-logic/boolean-algebra/
Math that formalizes statements like AND, NOT, OR, etc. Deals with variables that can take either 0 or 1- useful in computing (True/False, binary, etc)
<@&268886789983436800> troll
i think i just went through the 7 stages of grief
@remote parcel Has your question been resolved?
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hello I've been struggling on this for a while. I've been drawing a bunch of functions and nothing has been working. Is this actually possible?
Here's what I've done so far.
Let g(x) = f(x) - f(x + 3/7)
g(x) is continuous on [2, 18/7] and for the function to work, g(x) must never be 0. As a result, g(x) > 0 or g(x) < 0 for all x.
If we assume g(x) < 0, then by the EVT, f must have a min on the interval (2, 17/7] and f must have a max on [18/7, 3). If g(x) < 0, the mins and maxs are flipped. This is all I've figured out so far about properties of f.
@red mango Has your question been resolved?
@red mango Has your question been resolved?
:(
<@&268886789983436800>
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what would the transformation of a point (x,y) be on this transformed function?
the -4 is throwing me off because im not sure whether to interpret that as a y-translation or an x-translation, it seems like it would be a movement of 4 down to me but the answer key says otherwise so im not sure
this is what the answer key has given me and i dont see the -4 being used in either x or y so its kind of confusing
the question asks to transform a point on the function f(x) so were just taking the square root of the OG function
ig the function is
$g(z) = \sqrt{f(z) - 4}$??
they just gave me an ordered pair
ten
ok i got it
im gna be honest i dont rlly know what this notation means 💀
the -4 IS being used
right
without it the transform on x is -x - 2
see y = x vs y = x + 2
the transform is (x - 2, y)
wouldn't it be -x+2 without the -4 though? since x-h is a positive shift along the x axis
yeah
ah wait youre right
then add the 4 in
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helpp
(yes essentially find f so that f(x + 3/7) - f(x) is always non-zero, there are a few simple examples where it is constant: https://www.desmos.com/calculator/ggeqi4eujm)
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Struggling really hard with the chain rule, derivative of a composite function. The derivative of x squared would be 2x, so i dont get where the x disappears off to when reentering it into the (4x-5) squared
no no x in x^2 is 4x-5
let's use a different variable
a = 4x - 5
derivative of a^2 is 2a
since a is a function of x we need to use chain rule
so it's 2a * a' or 2a * 4 = 8a
when we say the derivative of x^2 is 2x, we are assuming f(x) = x
chain rule still applies, it's just that d/dx x = 1
so its 2x * 1 = 2x
therefore the general rule is actually
d/dx f(x)^2 = 2 f(x) * f'(x)
this genuinely just made it more confusing
32x
theres two ways you can do it
(4x)^2 = 16x^2 so the derivative is 32x
but what if it's a really complicated term and not 4x?
that's why chain rule is helpful
instead of multiplying it out, you can see that
d/dx (4x)^2 = 2(4x) * d/dx 4x
or 32x
so its the same answer but less "work" (i mean, in this example of 4x it seems trivial but imagine if it was a trinomial for example)
@naive ocean Has your question been resolved?
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Did I needed the line highlighted inside the textbox in order to prove the two sets are not equal? Thank you. Otherwise I don't know how else I would show this.
@fervent eagle Has your question been resolved?
@fervent eagle Has your question been resolved?
what does the line above the sets represent? Not?
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They're "not", yes, they show that it's a complement. I'll try to get the professor to explain more though. Thank you for replying.
Sorry, I think we went into this channel at the same time. I'm going to close it, opal, so you can reopen it under your name. I just was replying to the previous person too late, my bad.
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Yea, sorry about that, not sure how this thing works.
.reopen
✅ Original question: #help-36 message
@fervent eagle @soft pewter lemme try to answer opal first real quick
what's your question?
im trying to test if the a i found is good
-31 000 = -40000/x-(-10) + 35 000
-4000 = -40000/x+10
-4000x -40 000 = -40000
you are given x = 0?
yeah before
but now im testing
to see if the a is good
ok then you just do some algebra and get a
which you did correctly as far as i can tell
yes. alright you good now?
yeah tysm
so @fervent eagle that your proof?
Yes. But I added a line which I made the textbox around, because that was the feedback my professor gave.
Would that line fulfill the missing requirement he was asking? Otherwise I don't know how you would prove those two sets aren't equal.
Here, just so you don't have to scroll up.
Thank you.
do you know the definition of xor?
Yes, it means the element has to be in one or the other set, can't be in both.
Ah I see, I was trying to do it with someone else yesterday too and we ended up truncating it.
...That. Might have made it confusing. Or I just did this wrong.
Sorry, go ahead.
as xor is given by $A \oplus B = \neg (A \cap B) \cap (A \cup B)$
But we're trying to prove via contradiction?
Also, sorry, give me 5-10 minutes to respond.
Katharine
i think that might be what's confusing me because in my mind it is very easy to show that if $A \oplus B = \neg (A \cap B)$ then $A \cup B = \emptyset$
Katharine
@fervent eagle Has your question been resolved?
I see. That makes sense, but problem is I can't use the symmetric difference to just say that.
At least from what I understand, professor did write we should either prove by contradiction or contrapositive.
Unless I'm not understanding it.
He said I have to prove that the two sets contradict each other.
Also it's (A U B)' = {}, not (A U B).
you're right i wrote it wrong
That's ok, does my proof make more sense then?
We're proving (A U B)' = {}, sorry, I'm just learning the Texit syntax.
$\overline{A\cup B}$
Xeryvelgarde
i don't really understand where you get the subset from
$A \oplus B \subseteq A \cup B$
Katharine
Give me a bit, I got it from the complement.
The complement of $\overline{A}\cup \overline{B}$ is ${A} \cup {B}$, and I had to try to prove that $\overline{A\cup B}$ and $A \oplus B \subseteq A \cup B$ are disjoint.
Xeryvelgarde
And $A \oplus B \subseteq A \cup B$ has to be a subset of ${A} \cup {B}$ by definition of a union, from what I understand.
Xeryvelgarde
the complement of $\neg A \cup \neg B$ is $A \cap B$
Katharine
I wrote this wrong, sorry.
Give me a bit.
$\overline{A}\cap \overline{B}$ is ${A} \cup {B}$
Xeryvelgarde
That's what I meant.
Sorry.
And I got $\overline{A}\cap \overline{B}$ from getting the complement of $\overline{{A} \cup {B}}$
Xeryvelgarde
Wait, that's where I went wrong, didn't I.
$\neg A \cap \neg B = \neg (A \cup B)$
Katharine
if the negations are confusing i will use overline but it's so much typing
No, it's fine, I understand.
Wait, why is it $\overline{{A} \cup {B}}$.
Xeryvelgarde
demorgan
But with DeMorgan's, you'd have to negate each individual part, right? So $\overline{A} becomes {A}, \cap becomes \cup, and $\overline{B} becomes {B}$.
Xeryvelgarde
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If those parts are already negated, isn't it negated already?
demorgan's laws are the way to turn unions into intersections and otherwise
by splitting the negations
or merging them
$\neg (A \cup B) = \neg A \cap \neg B \ \neg (A \cap B) = \neg A \cup \neg B$
Katharine
Ok, rubs temples And originally I did convert (A U B)' to A' \cap B', yea no, I don't remember how I got A U B. I think it was just by deduction, because I was looking for a set to prove that these two were disjoint.
can i rewrite the proof in different words?
Please do, I'm willing to compare.
The person who helped me yesterday ended up using the universal set and finding the set difference.
Professor said I didn't need to do that.
Again, thank you for responding, I appreciate it.
if $A \oplus B = \overline{A \cap B}$ then $\overline{A \cup B} = \emptyset \$
proof by contradiction: $\$
Let $A \oplus B = \overline{A \cap B}$.
Assume to the contrary that $\overline{A \cup B} \neq \emptyset$.
Then $\exists x \in \overline{A \cup B}$.
By DeMorgan's laws $\overline{A \cup B} = \overline{A} \cap \overline{B}$.
Since $x \in \overline{A} \cap \overline{B}$ it means $x \in \overline{A}$ and $x \in \overline{B}$ meaning $x \in \overline{A} \cup \overline{B}$.
Katharine
this is how far i got before i couldn't really understand it anymore
well before i didn't understand the line of thinking
i guess you could do this
Yea no, that makes sense. Sorry, so what I was trying to prove was that (A U B)' and A XOR B were incompatible. Deducing it, A U B has to have A XOR B as the subset, but (A U B)' is literally all elements outside of sets A U B, so that means it's contradictory.
Those two sets cannot share the same elements.
if $A \oplus B = \overline{A \cap B}$ then $\overline{A \cup B} = \emptyset \$
proof by contradiction: $\$
Let $A \oplus B = \overline{A \cap B}$.
Assume to the contrary that $\overline{A \cup B} \neq \emptyset$.
Then $\exists x \in \overline{A \cup B}$.
By DeMorgan's laws $\overline{A \cup B} = \overline{A} \cap \overline{B}$.
Since $x \in \overline{A} \cap \overline{B}$ it means $x \in \overline{A}$ and $x \in \overline{B}$ meaning $x \in \overline{A} \cup \overline{B}$.
Also by De Morgan's laws $\overline{A \cap B} = \overline{A} \cup \overline{B}$.
And since $A \oplus B = \overline{A \cap B}$, $x \in A \oplus B$.
Katharine
Show it is in one of the two equal sets but not the other. Then you can say that means the two sets are not equal, but they are assumed equal so that is the contradiction
Yes, I think what he means is that x cannot be an element of A XOR B and an element of (A U B)'. Unless I'm entirely misunderstanding this.
That's essentially what I was trying to prove with using A U B.
Unless I should've not done that at all.
my thought process goes this way
This way?
Oh ok, sorry.
I just wasn't sure. 🤣 Again, I've asked the professor for clarification, he hasn't responded.
It's ok.
Thank you for trying.
I'm also sick.
So my brain is fried too.
I hope you get good rest.
i just figured it out sortof
Feel free to share if you want?
Again, I appreciate the feedback I can get, as I suck at proofs.
if $A \oplus B = \overline{A \cap B}$ then $\overline{A \cup B} = \emptyset \$
proof by contradiction: $\$
Let $A \oplus B = \overline{A \cap B}$.
Assume to the contrary that $\overline{A \cup B} \neq \emptyset$.
Then $\exists x \in \overline{A \cup B}$.
By DeMorgan's laws $\overline{A \cup B} = \overline{A} \cap \overline{B}$.
Since $x \in \overline{A} \cap \overline{B}$ it means $x \in \overline{A}$ and $x \in \overline{B}$ meaning $x \in \overline{A} \cup \overline{B}$.
Also by De Morgan's laws $\overline{A \cap B} = \overline{A} \cup \overline{B}$.
And since $A \oplus B = \overline{A \cap B}$, $x \in A \oplus B$.
This means $x \in A \cup B$ because $A \cup B = (A \oplus B) \cup (A \cap B)$.
The result is contradictory since $A \cup B$ and $\overline{A \cup B}$ are complementary meaning there is no element of both sets.
Therefore the assumption that $\overline{A \cup B} \neq \emptyset$ is incorrect.
Wait, let me read that.
You're using the definition of symmetric difference here, right?
Katharine
i multiply the definition of symmetric difference by the intersection of A and B
Ok, I think I see what you're doing. I think. Again, my brain's fried too from this one problem.
$A \oplus B = (A \cup B) \setminus (A \cap B)$ union both sides with the intersection gives
Katharine
Yes.
$(A \oplus B) \cup (A \cap B) = (A \cup B) \setminus (A \cap B) \cup (A \cap B) = A \cup B$
Katharine
As in you don't understand it?
Or you didn't see it, I can post it again
yeah
Oh ok.
Yea, I don't understand it either, but I interpreted it as trying to make sure our variable, x cannot be in A XOR B and (A U B)' simultaneously.
I know he has a very specific way of wanting us to write proofs.
Because apparently some people in our class use AI to write them
i guess what he means is that you need to show that $A \oplus B$ is both equal to $\overline{A \cap B}$ and also not equal to it
Katharine
Maybe?
I'm just hoping he answerss.
Otherwise I have no clue what he means.
Again, thank you for your help.
I appreciate it though.
i think you need to show that if you assume the contrary
that $\overline{A \cup B} \neq \emptyset$
Katharine
Then you prove that is not possible.
that $A \oplus B \neq \overline{A \cap B}$
Katharine
I see.
ah i think i see it maybe
Ok, yea maybe I did this wrong then, I thought that it was $\overline{A \cup B} \neq \emptyset$, such that $A \oplus B \neq $\overline{A \cup B}$
Xeryvelgarde
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Oh man, I think I see what you mean.
if $\overline{A \cup B} \neq \emptyset$ then $\overline{A \cap B} \neq (\overline{A} \cap B) \cup (A \cap \overline{B})$
Katharine
since $\overline{A \cap B} = (\overline{A} \cap B) \cup (A \cap \overline{B}) \cup (\overline{A \cup B})$
Katharine
thus contradiction
$A \oplus B = \overline{A \cap B}$ and $A \oplus B \neq \overline{A \cap B}$
Katharine
I see. Ok.
Ok, thank you.
I'll try parsing this tomorrow, I think I get the gist of what you mean.
As I unfortunately do have to go.
But yea no, that makes sense, I screwed up on the sets I needed to prove weren't equal.
Thanks again. 🙂
if you really need to prove the second statement, use the fact that set equality is subset in both directions
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hey guys, trying to prove every metric space is normal. my idea was to start with F,G disjoint closed and then for each one, since F^C and G^C will be open, they will contain epsilon neighborhoods around each point in G,F respectively, and so I could just take the union over all of those epsilon neighborhoods, which would therefore still be open, and would be an open set containing G,F respectively. the problem is in proving that these constructed open sets are disjoint, and i have a feeling they might not be
the problem im envisioning is something like this, where i pick an epsilon thats in some sense "too big" and restricts the expansion of the other set at all
i was wondering if literally doing some bullshit like picking epsilon/2 instead would work, or if my construction already works, or if this is fundamentally the wrong idea and i should do something else
thats the problem
the thing i want to do would be like
take the union of these little circles around every point in each one
so that it would like do this or something
i think it would be simpler to draw neighborhoods only in one of the sets
wdym
you know that for each point x in F, there's a ball B_x around that point of some radius r_x that does not intersect G
now if you just take the unions of the B_x, you get an open set containing F that does not intersect G, but it may get so close to G that you can't find a corresponding open set around G
so instead of taking balls of radius r_x, you could try making them smaller and see if that works
e.g. like take radius r_x/2
(i'm not actually working this out so i can't promise that will work)
yeah thats what i was thinking
i guess it probably works
so i would have to go by contradiction to show that the intersection would be empty
like lets say i literally just take the union over all these balls of radius epsilon/2 where balls of radius epsilon are such that they do not intersect the other guy
yea (the epsilons are can be different for each ball but yes)
does it matter that if my open sets are F<U and G<V, then since U and V open, U cap V is open
so if i have x in U cap V, then there exists epsilon such that V_epsilon(x)<U cap V
yes true
ok so then its like
lets say that x is in the epsilon_1/2 neighborhood of some f in F, and the epsilon_2/2 neighborhood of some g in G
then we also have that the epsilon neighborhood of f still does not intersect G
lets say wlog that epsilon_1 is the smaller one
or would i want the larger one
hmmm
ok well in any case we have epsilon_1<=epsilon_2 just by assumption
yea that sounds promising, maybe draw a picture
oh i think this is gonna work
so d(x,g)<epsilon_2/2, and d(x,f)<epsilon_1/2
so triangle inequality says that d(f,g)<=d(f,x)+d(x,g)
and then if epsilon_1 is the smaller one
hmmm
so we know that d(f,x)<epsilon_1/2
maybe i want the larger one
so we know that d(f,x)<epsilon_1/2<=epsilon_2/2
and d(x,g)<=epsilon_2/2
so d(f,g)<epsilon_2
but we had said that epsilon_2 was such that V_(epsilon_2)(g) did not intersect F
does this look correct
in total
ok i have confidence in mysmellf
.close
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thank you for help
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yo
why is one of the answers for ts 26.6?
i got cotx =1 and cotx =2
one of the x is 45 which is correct
the other one i got 63.4 but the answer is 90-that why?
!show
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
I love that you wrote cot(2x) in terms of tan and then decided "fuck this shit"
,w arctan(2)
You did like 7 unnecessary steps after the third line, only to end up with the same thing in the end
Lemme check hold on
$\frac{3}{\tan x} - \frac{2-2\tan^2x}{\tan x} = 3$
oh my god bro ur right
i had ts at the beginning
but made one mistake
so i fucked it
LOL
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Xavier 🌺
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Hello, i'm in highschool and we recently started working on "Common apparent factors" (Not sure if that's how you call it in english since I live in France) I understood how you find it but I still haven't got how i'm supposed to do the calculation that comes after that
I think what you meant is GCD (greatest common denominator)
But maybe you should send the original question
Probably, sorry for the error
So we can help you more easily 
okkk
Np
a picture?
Yes
I hope you can understand what I wrote
Ok this is not GCD
Ah...
It was done with our teacher, but I didn't understand the process
Kinda
Factorization (that is the correct term) is the opposite/reverse of distribution
In the first line for A, both addends have (2x+3)
yeah
So, we can 'pull' out that common term (2x+3)
And divide both addends by 2x+3, then sum that up
I think I see
Basically just :
Pull out the common term (2x+3)
Sum the addends after removing the 2x+3
Do you understand line 3 and 4? It's basic algebra
Yeah I get it
Oh, it's just that, it's actually simple
Yes
Well, thanks a lot, I get it better!
Your welcome!
Well, if you don't have any more questions, type ".close"
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I can find it via the rule
- sampling period < 1/2fmax
f max being the max frequency of the original signal
but I dont know how I could prove that
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The equation of a circle which passes thru the three points (1, 2), (-6, 2) and (2,4) is ____
hint: relation between a chord of a circle and it's centre
x²+y²+2gx+2fy+c=0

actually
yea you could use that too just put the points in place of x and y one by one and solve a 3 variable linear equation
Line dropped from centre in perp to chord and bisects it
yup now find the centre using ts method
what is ts?
ts= this
Can I assume c(0, 0
No
You need to find f, g and c through simultaneous equations
Which is kind of annoying but its what you need to do
do you know how to solve a linear equation with 3 variables
Yes
use the points given ,in the standard equation of a circle
you should get 3 equations
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you should get one more equation with the 3rd point
oh ok
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hiya im trying part (i) but my solution is incorrect, wondering what ive done wrong
i say that the series is $f(x)$ and define $g(x)=f(x^2)=\sum_{i=1}^{\infty}(-1)^nnx^n$, and then $g(x)=xh(x)=x\sum_{i=1}^{\infty}(-1)^nnx^{n-1}$
Syrenate
to find $h(x)$, i integrate to get $\int h(x),dx=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}(-1)x^n=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}(-x)^n$
Syrenate
so if $|x|<1$, $\int h(x),dx=1+\frac{1}{1-(-x)}=\frac{x+2}{x+1}$ so $h(x)=\frac{1}{(x+1)(x+2)}$
Syrenate
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were u gonna say the denominator is $(x+1)^2$ cuz yeah just realised
Syrenate
are you talking to yourself like whats happening here ....?

someone was typing lol
ohh nvm then
before i closed
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do you have a question?
@echo bramble you just opened a help channel.
im so sorry man
i dont know what it does and i was just finishing the tutorial
sorry wont happen again
…why are you apoligizing lmao.
if you don’t have a question that’s fine just use .close
You’re all good man! It happens
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"find the bounds of this sequence"
i'd say it's both upper and lower bound, right?
cause it never goes smaller than 0 and never goes greater than 1 right?
can n be all real numbers
okay perfect thanks
[0,1)
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did i do smth wrong
well
you didnt multiply the 3 with the u^2 term
thats pretty much it
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How do I argue that a bijective function has the same amount of elements within the sets x and y
My explanation was that it’s both injective and surjective but I’m split on this
Having those two conditions means that there’s ONE specific value x for every possible y
Does that imply a 1:1 ratio already?
Technically my argument doesn’t consider the case of there being more elements for x than y
Wait nvm it couldnt be bijective if that was the case because the x would have to refer to a y
Which isn’t possible because all the values of y already have their respective x
Im still doubting everything can someone clarify this?
when your talking amount here, are you assuming that X and Y are finite?
If your two sets are X and Y, you can show that if there is an injection from X to Y, then $|X| \leq |Y|$.
Likewise, you can show that if there is a surjection from X to Y, then $|X| \geq |Y|$.
Feltheshovel
I can’t show you the problem itself because it’s German but it pretty much said there’s a function f where all of this magic happens:
f : A —> B
|A| = |B|
(It’s also clear that it’s bijective but I need to explain the last statement)
Then you can use what feltheshovel said
So basically there’s two cases depending on whether it’s sur- or injective and those two cases only overlap if the amount of elements within the two sets is equal?
Yup!
Problem is the professor didn’t give us more than a short paragraph to explain all three terms so I was struggling to put it into words myself
I don’t quite understand the two statements you came up with either to be honest
I just know what they imply and that it’d be useful for the problem
You can understand an injective function as more general "inclusion": for every element in X, there is an element in Y which corresponds to it, and which corresponds to no other element in X.
So if there is an injection from X to Y, Y must contain a set in which every element corresponds to a unique element in X - so rougly, Y "contains" X.
Cant it only be |y|=|x| in that case?
I don’t see how there can be a value of y without an x
It can! Which is why you have the $\leq$ instead of $<$
Feltheshovel
My simplified version of injection was just „no y has 2 different x“
Yeah, that's a good way to see it
I acknowledge it’s possible I just don’t understand how
Is it still part of the set of y if the function never gives you that value because there’s simply no input „x“ for that desired y?
Well, consider $X = \lbrace{0}\rbrace, Y = \lbrace{0,1}\rbrace$. You can define the function $f:X \to Y, f(0) = 0$, which is injective, but $|X| \neq |Y|$
Feltheshovel
So yes, it can be part of Y, even if it has no preimage
So you can just add useless values to y? Are you just allowed keep the 1 in the set even if it’s never a result of the function?
Alright
That implies y>=x then
What about the other one?
Surjection means that every y has a value x right
Yeah; you're not really adding the value, the value is given to you in the definition of Y. In other words, you don't decide what is in Y or not
Which means x is either greater or equal to the amount of elements in y
I see
Generally, yes. For every x, there is exactly one y for which f(x)=y.
I fail to see the purpose of such an element in the set but I won’t blame you for it lmao
If it is both injective and surjective, there is a 1:1. Because for every x there is a y and for every y there is an x.
More like for every unique x there is a unique y and for every y there is an x.
So it’s two different properties that imply a unique relation to their counterpart
Except it’s going both ways because of the fact that we have two such properties
Which means that every pair is unique
Exactly.
Alright thanks
I have another question tho
It’s about the karthesian product
How would you do
A x A x A
Let’s say A = {1,2,3}
I’m supposed to figure out a rule for A^n = A x A x A x …. (N times)
A x A x A = { (1,1,1), (1,1,2), (1,1,3), (1,2,1)... etc until (3,3,3)}
It would have the cardinal of A to the power of n elements
Cardinal?
Ohhh ok
So A^n would have 3^n elements
In what order do I write down the Tupels
Do I „calculate“ A x A first
And do it like (A x A) x A
Or do I just do all three at once
You can treat this as a combinatorial problem; an element of $A^n$ is of the form $(a_1, a_2, ..., a_n)$, with $a_i \in A$. Each $a_i$ has $|A|$ choices, so in total there are $|A|^n$ elements.
Feltheshovel
I need to learn to write like this
But, yes, it works like a combinatorial problem.
It's latex
I tried to learn it at some point
I see
I’ll work on this rq thank you
Ok this is more confusing than I thought
It says prove the blue statement by applying the purple statement to the green one
The colors are messed up on my screen
Blue is above green and purple is the lonely one
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i found that k = 1/3
is that correct?
approached to x from left and right as x->0
got 1
3k = 1
No, that's wrong
oh
How did you compute the limit?
what?
It is wrong
x sin(1/x) ?
Remember: you cannot approximate sin(1/x) to be 1/x because 1/x becomes very large near 0
That would be as 1/x tends to 0
yea it’s wrong then
but isn't sina/a as lim x->0 equals 1?
sin(x)/x tends to x/x as x tends to 0
In your question, it's 1/x, not x
In other words, sin(1/x) / (1/x) tends to (1/x) / (1/x) as 1/x tends to 0, but not as x tends to 0
Sin hardly changes as it goes towards infinity since sine only ranges between -1 and 1
The limit at 0 of x sin(1/x) is actually very easy to get since sin(1/x) is bounded
squeeze theorem?
Sure
Yes
Closed by @crimson cypress
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.reopen
✅ Original question: #help-36 message
is that one correct?
be careful: x = sqrt(x)^2 only when x > 0
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
3
what to do?
copy
can they cancel each other out?
i mean this is basically what i did previously
here
that won't work right
denominator is x, not |x|
so you can't convert it to sqrt(x^2)
yeah
what you could do
is take out sqrt(x^2) common from the numerator instead of sqrt(x)
so your new eqn shd look something like (|x|sqrt(3+1/x))/x
|x|/x = -1 as x<0
and there you have it
(x^2)(3 + 1/x) is the same as (3x^2 + 1)
oh right
ur looking at the limit as x->infty
yeah but - inf.
be careful when computing limit
mb didnt see
that's right
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does a variable have to change in value in order to be a variable?
It needs to be capable of representing different values
doesn't have to vary so to speak
wdym by representing different values
it can change but it doesnt have to
can you give me an example?
of two cases: where it can change but it doesn't have to, and where it changes
for example if u have the equation x + 5 = 2
x has only one solution, -3, right?
so it doesn't change
wdym by it can change
it's a variable in the sense of you being allowed to choose x however you like, whether choice you made makes sense or not is another question
x+5=2 is an equation, where x is the unknown value
But if you go for f(x)=x+5, x is a variable, which can take different values
x can be 1, can be 2 or it can be 10^5
Depending on your needs
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f(x) = -asqrt x-h + k
ten
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For a I said that it was x = 1 but apparently it doesnt exist
I get that it jumps from the rhs but it exists from the lhs no?
x to 1 means from both sides
Ahh ok
-# btw it jumps from the lhs
Oh ok haha
for lim x-->1, when we approach from the left of 1, the function tends to 1. but approaching from the right, the function tends to 0, because it dosent tend to the same value we say the limit does not exist
do u understand why lim x-->3 g(x) exists?
Yes because it approaches from both sides, right?
yes it tends to the same value from both sides
and when we take a limit we dont plug in the value usually
What do we do
Thats what I did, I guess I got lucky haha
we take values closer and closer to the limiting value
for example lim x-->2 (x²-2x)/(x-2)
we cant plug in x=2
because we get 0/0 which is undefined
Ahh yeah
but we see what happens when we plug in values closer and closer to 2
I know these kind of examples
Alright I think I get it
I did these before its just been a while im rusty :p
But thanks for your help! both of you
❤️
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glad to help
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!help
To ask for mathematics help on this server, please open your own help channel or help thread. See #❓how-to-get-help for instructions.
Send out your problem if you need help
Close this one then
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How to solve problem 12
Altho I simplified it to tanxtan4x= 1
What are the exact steps to follow to find the number of solutions
Well that's forgetting a solution if you do that
Okay then consider explaining it in your way
Ok so, you're dividing by cos(x), which is only valid if...
Meanwhile, I would suggest instead to multiply both sides by cos(4x)
And then put every term on the left side
For this you would need cos(x) ≠ 0
So you're forgetting about potential solutions where cos(x) = 0
Yes agree till here
You can do it your way by first noting that if cosx = 0, then there’s one solution which is x=pi/2
Anyways going back to what I suggested
sin(x)sin(4x) = cos(x)cos(4x), where cos(4x) ≠ 0 (otherwise the original equation doesn't make sense)
Can you see where this is going?
sin(x)sin(4x) - cos(x)cos(4x) = 0, where cos(4x) ≠ 0
Cos (B+A)
Where cos4x ≠ 0
cos(5x) = 0 where cos (4x) ≠ 0
this yeilds cos 5x is zero in 0,pi at π/2 only
But this will be count as 5 times right because π/2 is of one time
5 solution from here
how to do this for cos(4x) @scarlet sequoia
What do you mean?
I mean do I have to exclude the solution for cos4x≠0 from 5 or 5 is answer?
cos(4x) cannot be zero because of the tan(4x) in the original expression.
So the final answer should be 5.
Closed by @cedar obsidian
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As an aside, you might want to have a think about how you’d get to the answer from tanxtan4x = 1, which you got from your initial approach.
.reopen
✅ Original question: #help-36 message
Sure I am gonna solve that rn
It’s quite a nice solution in my opinion
So i think tanxtan4x = tanπ/4
Maybe… Wasn’t what I was thinking though
We have 1 - tanxtan4x = 0
\FT We also know that
[\wrb{
\tan 5x=\tan(4x+x)=\f{\tan 4x+\tan x}{1-\tan x\tan 4x}
}]
?
One sec
Cooly
Can you go from here?
From yourside you wrote tan5x in terms of its formula do that 4x and x get used in this?
Okay continue
Well we know that 1-tanxtan4x = 0
Yes
So tan5x = (tan4x+tanx)/0 = “♾️”
Yoo
You know what I mean
This equation is not defined?
Well, what’s tan(pi/2)
infinity
Bruh
Wtf is going in math server this has nothing to do with math
Right so, we can say that 5x = pi/2 + kpi
Yes
Bot spams
And that’s how you get the other four solutions.
What is the 5th solution
Pi/2
Ol
Ok
From here
Yeah
And from here how to get four solution
I mean you just get x = pi/10 + kpi/5 and, in (0,pi) there are four solutions.
How do you see those four solution?
In
pi/10, 3pi/10, 7pi/10, 9pi/10
What do you mean?
In x = pi/10 + kpi/5
Why is there ln
No, how did you get "pi/10, 3pi/10, 7pi/10, 9pi/10" from "x = pi/10 + kpi/5?"
What values of k you put?
0, 1, 2, 3
But (0,pi) 0 and pi do not count
oh that interval is constrained to x only, doesn't matter for k?
Thansk you good luck you to
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How do I sketch the range of integration for a double integral
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how u do b
As an updown view
You end up getting a xy plane with inequalities.
You do it by looking at the bounds
what
If you are integrating a function z(x,y), that means you are working in R^3
In the physical sense, the region of integration, is like finding what points in xy-plane are part of your integral.
To describe it, you use bounds on x and y.
whats r^3
so y is x and 0
and x is 2 and 1
a $f(x,y)$ is said to recide in $\mathbb{R}^3$ because f takes a point and i transforms it into a number, $f: \mathbb{R}^2 \to \mathbb{R}$
∫ᴄ 𝐅·𝑑𝑟 = ∬ʀ ∇⨯𝐅 𝑑𝐴
so am i suppose to put these bounds on the y axis and the other one x axis
Yes, but you have to find a set of inequalities that satisfy that conditions
this?
bruh i dont get it
Gimme a sec
For a f(x), the integral from a to b
Is basically taking the value of the function all through that interval
And adding them, right?
what about the other bound with x and 0
Im giving an example
Here, the integration variable is x
and is ranging from a to b.
Right?
ye ik but for double integrals then i draw 2 graphs or what
We can write that one as $a\leq x\leq b$
∫ᴄ 𝐅·𝑑𝑟 = ∬ʀ ∇⨯𝐅 𝑑𝐴
If you remember the start of your calc classes
This can be represented on the number line.
Well, if we got
$a\leq x\leq b\ c\leq y \leq d$
∫ᴄ 𝐅·𝑑𝑟 = ∬ʀ ∇⨯𝐅 𝑑𝐴
Then we can represent that in the xy plane.
If a,b,c,d are numbers, this is a rectangle.
Instead, if one of the bounds is a function of the other variable
for example:
$c\leq y\leq x^2$
∫ᴄ 𝐅·𝑑𝑟 = ∬ʀ ∇⨯𝐅 𝑑𝐴
That means that the upper bound on y is a function of x.
So the upperpart of the region will be a curve
Try to set the bounds for the question they gave you
i dont understand this
do i need to use the answer from the double integral or nah
ye
Well, I hope you understand that the points that form that curve
Are Only those values of Y which equal some square of x
how do i determine how high i draw it
for a and b
Can you imagine how y < x^2 looks like then?
no
Instead of a curve, its a plane
All values of y that are less that the square of x they have.
,w plot y <x^2
Every value below the curve y=x^2 is coloured in
Because those y's are lesser than the square of x.
this is dx?
so i draw dy seperate
No
To start with, here you drew a plane
The bounds of x itself are part of the number line
Based on this, can you imagine how y =< x looks?

