#help-36
1 messages · Page 109 of 1
lilyenjoyer
Carve out the bad set $E_n,m$ where this doesnt hold, and take the union on n and m, countable so it just doesnt hold on some measure 0 set
lilyenjoyer
now work on complement
We have that ${f_n(x)}$ is cauchy (as a sequence of numbers)
lilyenjoyer
i dont think i understand this union
now, let f(x) be the pointwise limit of f_n(x)
I mean what does this do to epsilon
we have no idea what the bound is anymore, do we?
or do we not care
ok one thing at a time
the inequality doesn't hold on $E_n,m$ but this has measure 0
lilyenjoyer
then, $\cup_n \cup_m E_n,m$ is still a countable union, so it has measure 0 as well
lilyenjoyer
where n,m are naturals
no but i mean
what are the variables we are using N n and m
so for each epsilon, there is some N
and N determines what m and n are allowed
do these all have the same epsilon?
and eliminate the set
where it doesnt hold
for all possible m,n
its measure 0, so it doesnt change anything
im worried about the set where it does hold
yes im asking about the bound
which one
I don't understand how we can take a union and retain cauchy
the union should destroy the bound
is taken on a set of measure 0
I guess i dont understand what these sets are
I mean how one individual set is created
Forget that part for now
We fix epsilon, N, m, n?
its a big part lol
yes
I don't get what you mean we destroy the place where bad things happen
I mean this union doesnt seem to accomplish that
it creates more problems
because now we cant talk about cauchy
but maybe we can and i just dont understand what the union is working on
do you know what infinity norm is?
can you say how it is defined
for yo
you*
L^infinity norm
ugh maybe i should scribble
like in the context of a function? or as a metric?
right
yes
ok the important part here is
a.e. x
we ignore all sets of measure 0
right?
so when we say $||f_n -f_m|| > |f_n-f_m|$ this is fixed m n?
jan Niku
yes if we qualify it that way
so if you U {mn} Z{mn}
sure
you get say Z
we agree that this union is also measure 0?
yea
and that for all m,n
so now you have Z
outside of Z, the inequality holds
exactly
thats the point
we want to work with infinitely many m,n later
so carving out Z is important
Can i move on
to the uniform convergence now?
sure, sorry
this is the part that i was most confused on 😓
but i dont understand the rest either 
o
but this is what made me give up
lilyenjoyer
sure
lilyenjoyer
now, define $f(x)=lim_n f_n(x)$
lilyenjoyer
cauchy isnt enough for convergence
its a cauchy sequence
yes
but we dont know it converges
cauchy implies complete
it may just be cauchy
sorry
thats dumb typo
cauchy implies convergent
when you have a sequence of reals because R with standard metric is complete
I'd have to check this is true
and this is a pointwise limit
which part?
cauchy implies convergent
ok wait
it doesnt seem like itd be true
do we agree that
for sequences of real numbers
if a_n is cauchy, it is convergent?
I don't recall this as a fact it doesnt seem like itd be true
wait
what
Completeness is a property of the real numbers that, intuitively, implies that there are no "gaps" (in Dedekind's terminology) or "missing points" in the real number line. This contrasts with the rational numbers, whose corresponding number line has a "gap" at each irrational value. In the decimal number system, completeness is equivalent to t...
this might help u
but this is a counter example
take a sequence of real numbers cuachy
there cannot be a counter example
to the reals being complete
log(n) is a sequence of real numbers
its not cauchy
n=1,2,3,...
log(n) is not cauchy
😭
i think
the most easy way to see this
is the cauchy construction fwiw
not the dedekind one, it hurts my brain
but its also in rudin i think, ch1 or appendix i forgot
but if you can accept that the reals are complete i can finish the proof of L^ infty complete
err just ping me if u want me to continue
illstill be on doing hw
😂
i need to check on what you are talking about
sure sure
i dont believe it is true so i want to believe
its ok lol
im just trying to do my best
i dont mind im not an analyst no money in math
ARE U A BELIEVER OR A NONBELIEVER 😭
sorry i am checking on things
its ok!
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Complete_metric_space THIS MIGHT HELP
In mathematical analysis, a metric space M is called complete (or a Cauchy space) if every Cauchy sequence of points in M has a limit that is also in M.
Intuitively, a space is complete if there are no "points missing" from it (inside or at the boundary). For instance, the set of rational numbers is not complete, because e.g. 2{\displaystyle {\s...
the cauchy proof: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1186354/proving-the-usual-distance-metric-in-mathbbr-is-complete
always know im really reviewing some shit i shouldnt have forgot when author starts asserting stuff like 1>0


its ok u got this
sorry im proving cauchy implies convergent
well this is not true unless ur space is complete
but then its definition
the theorem is proving R is complete by construction
You cannot prove this in general
I'm trying to prove it for the reals
oh ok
did you get anywhere with it? no pressure btw its just the melatonin is kicking in sometime sooon
I proved cauchy is bounded but i'm trying to finish cauchy is convergent
i dont get the last line 
oh
it gets hairy
are you looking at the construction of R
from equivalence classes?
no im looking at a proof that cauchy implies convergent 
oh wait are you doing that thing
that divides in half nonstop
have fun lol
no i cannot prove everything i dont understand
ok yea lol mb
some stuff you just have to take at face value
the second to last line
it looks like triangle ineq
but its not
|am - an| should be |am -ans -an + ans|?
but they inttroduce ell somehow
and remove a_n?
idk im probably like
i dont know enough analysis to complete this problem 
idk assuming this is all true 
is that the end of the proof you were talking about
i forgot where we even were now
of which
uniform conv
uniform convergence?
yes it's nearing the end
if you take for granted that the reals are complete, you have it almost immediately
so we defined okay
we defined Z as the problem set
so on Z^c, if you fix some x in Z^c
then
then |fm - fn| < ||f_n - f_m||?
uhhh
which metric do you have here?
the one induced by L_infty norm?
but i was gonna say
im trying to remember what we have on Z^c
its that if x is in $Z^c$ that $||f_n - f_m|| > |f_m - f_n|$ for all $m,n > N$
jan Niku
we have that yes
okay
then, we have an f
and this means that f_n is cauchy?
Let e>0, choose n_0 such that ||f_m-f_n||<\e for all m,n>n_0
then we have the inequality so it is cauchy
then we define f(x) as the pointwise limit
what do you mean by inequality
youre talking about this?
$|f_m(x)-f_n(x)|\leq ||f_m-f_n||_{\sup} <\epsilon$
did we have to do extra work for f_n to be cauchy
lilyenjoyer
have you seen that
pointwise limit is measurable
then f is measurable
since $f(x):=\lim_n f_n(x)$
lilyenjoyer
and we have that f(x) exists for all x since each f_n(x) is cauchy
do you follow so far or no
im trying to tell if i know this fact or not
o ok
huh
or i guess this is just called f who the hell knows if thats what it means
im not sure why thats there
we constructed such an f
but yes its measurable
its different from the f there
but tldr its nice either way
but we havent shown completeness yet so we dont know that the pointwise limit is measurable
okay
pointwise limit of measurables is measurables fwiw
im sure its true
but to continue
okay so its convergent
and its measurable
so all thats left to show is that its essentially bounded
yes so now take limit
from earlier: Let $\epsilon>0$, choose N so that when $n,m\geq N$, this holds $|f_m(x)-f_n(x)|\leq \epsilon$
lilyenjoyer
then as $n\to\infty$ you have $|f_m(x)-f(x)|\leq \epsilon$
lilyenjoyer
sorry im bad at explaining im just looking at my old lecture notes
but after this theres 1 line and ur done
its not your fault i just dont understand anything in analysis
well, 2
it doesnt make sense why this would still be less than epsilon
we know its true for all n but why wont something else happen in the limit
i guess i will stop
or maybe im curious

@chilly cloud whats the last 2 lines
u dont have to tell me
im not just gonna steal the answer
its ok its fast lmao
in fact im gonna start over from the beginning as soon as you go to bed 
?
then triangle inequality
oh cause after we take
n to infinity
we have that for $m\geq N$, $||f_m(x)-f(x)||_{\infty}\leq epsilon$
lilyenjoyer
earlier, we had this
but we have it true for all x in Z^c
so now we pass back to sup (infty norm) that way
and this is the L^infty norm so by definition we have that f_m goes to f in L^infty norm
and this is enough for convergence?
yea its convergence in norm
yea theres a short step after
we didnt show f is essentially bounded
also didnt we already show that the cauchy sequence was convergent to f
yea its the last step
wdym
wway back here
we have this from
whyd we do all this extra stuff
but it doesnt show that 
the last step being triangle inequality
$||f||\infty \leq ||f-f_m|| + ||f_m||\infty + \epsilon < \infty$
$1$
lilyenjoyer
test
lilyenjoyer
ugh typos
but fm is essentially bounded
so f is essentially bounded
yes
i still do not understand tbh
to show that f(x) indeed does exist
i already know what she will say
depends on the completedness of reals
she will say
its key ingredient
you should review your analysis

its ok
but
oh
we could pomo 
im in my last month of school lol
i dont help normally lmao
thats okay 

we will always have the memories
last 2 months for me but

onto the real world ig 😔
Ay congrats on graduating
its not certain yet
each day it looks bleaker

but day at a time
job hunt 
yea that too
i mean
i have essentially no time
but thats okay
good luck on your finals if i dont see u mirin
💪
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@chilly cloud and thank you again 
NP HAVe fun
hi guys
I was wondering, i Send pics of problems in the chat maybe someone could give me the answers?
Ohh okay
Ok, thank you
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someone mind checking my work?
or would it be better to put -0.5
Your answer is fine, whether decimal is better depends on the software
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can someone please help me with this
divide both lhs and rhs with sqroot 2
so you have 1/root2 + i/root2 on rhs
convert that to cis form
alr
1cis(pi/4)
wait why though
if it was roots of unity I get the 2pi(k)
that is the general solution
pi/4, 2pi+pi/4,... all give the same value
so the answer is B?
is it C??
coz then the modulus will be root 2
but from the original thing it is 1/root2 + i/root2
so when it multiplies it's going to become 1 + i
(cistheta)^1/n is cis(theta/n)
ooooohhh
D
yeah
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these definitions are from different books and one is about Rn and the other about complex numbers, but seems like either one could be used for the other set.
I was just wondering, would every accumulation point by these definitions also be a limit point and vice versa? My brain is new to thinking about sequences of points so not sure if i have the right intuition on this but seems like if you have an accumulation point you could pick successively smaller balls around it and picking points out of them to come up with a sequence of points that converges to that point. and i think also that if you have a limit point, you would need an infinite number of points in every ball around it since for at any point in the sequence, you would have an infinite number of upcoming elements within any desired radius of the limit point.
yes
nice ping
so theyre equivalent?
yes and your explanation is right
i find the definition of accumulation points way more intuitive
what would be motivation to think of limit points in terms of sequences?
not sure. sequences are nice to work with tho
or wait, in definition of limit point, do all the points need to be distinct?
no
someone on stack exchange was saying this
{1} doesn’t have any limit points or accumulation points with your definitions
right
but you would need to end up with an infinite number of distinct points in the sequence right
cause otherwise if there were only a finite number, you could figure out the closest point's distance from the supposed limit point and there'd be no more points in the sequence if you pick epsilon < that i guess?
yea
so when youre building these sequences of points, youre basically stringing points one after another in whatever random fashion you want, the sequence of points converges if for any epsilon > 0 you can find some N so that after N all the points in the sequence afterward are within < epsilon distance from L right?
you could say if z is a limit point of S then there is a sequence in S converging to z with all elements distinct and not equal to z
but there will also be sequences that don’t have all elements distinct
yeah i think that makes sense, cause you could just eliminate duplicates from whatever existing sequence i guess?
yea
building for what?
oh uh
i dunno if thats the right word, just imagining these sequences, and basically was just having a bit of trouble with what a sequence of points even is, but i guess just literally any list of points lol
that goes on forever
and convergent ones i guess are special cause they become bounded by their distance to something?
but it could literally just be random points forever right? 😄
yea. a way to look at what a sequence (in S) is, is that it’s a function from the positive integers to S
righto
btw layla
today i fell asleep at 8pm
and woke up at 2 lol
guess i was just tired
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can sshouldnt it be D
what seems to be the problem
its decreasing then increasing
so point of inflectio
i learned is f'(x) is under the x axis, then f(x) was decreasing
how would you define point of inflection
concave up to concave down or vice verse doesnt mean the slope goes from negative to positive
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@tired snow Has your question been resolved?
so since the rod is in equilibrium, we can choose our pivot point anywhere to make it more convenient
i would suggest putting the pivot point on point A, so the normal force at point A would be canceled out
actually your last line is very close to the correct answer
double check the lever arm you’re multiplying by for R_p
@tired snow Has your question been resolved?
I dont know the distance A-P
we can use trig for that
Wait
also be careful that it is 45cm not 45m
Yeah
actually you kinda labeled the adjacent side wrong as well
Why
you can only do that when the hypotenuse is given
Oh
I need 2 sides
so we have to relate sine with the opposite and hypotenuse
and solve for the hypotenuse
How do I do that
$\sin(15)=\frac{.45m}{h}$
y0shi
Only 1 side is given
how do we solve for h
recall that sine relates the opposite and the hypotenuse
oh
were you going to use tangent?
to find the adjacent
and then use pythagorean to solve for hypotenuse?
Messed up my bad
alright all good
we can
as long as you make sure to split up R_p into components
or we can use torque again
and place our pivot point elsewhere
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Is there supposed to be 2 sets of answers to this q? The answer key says its only r=8, theta=1/4
Well r=1 and theta=16 doesn't really make sense
since if r=1 the area of the full circle is pi which is less than 8
Also keep in mind that theta won't be higher than 2pi.
Oh good point, was just at a loss cz when i plugged in the values it was equal to 8
Thanks
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What is name of this formula/property??
pythagorean identity
the proof is pretty simple
Same like this what is for tan cot sec and cosec?
those are other trig identities
unrelated to this one
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I determined a is 1 but that’s it
for c you have 2 possibilities
Yep
either the function is undefined at that point or you have a global extremum at -1
I tried lhopital because I think it can apply here?? I got 1/2bx+c and so 2bx + c = 1 and if they can only be 1 and 0, c must be 1, and b must be 0.
Is that right?
What point
I think I need to solve for the horizontal asymptote and compare it?
But when I solve it normally it’s 0
Ignore x->0 that’s supposed to be inf
i meant b sorry
yeah that seems correct, you can lhopital the limit as x -> inf and you need that limit to equal 1
So how can there be two of them there?
0 and 1
so 1/(2b+c) = 1
well b is either 1 or 0, but if b is 1 then this fraction is < 1 so b = 0
wait no 😄
if b =1 it would have a vertical asymptote
its 1/ (2bx+c) i guess
so that limit would be 0 as x -> inf if x isn't 0
take what normally?
what does "take the asymptote normally" mean?
A different method of
i am not understanding what youre trying to say
Ig
This
so x-> inf?
It approaches 0
Yes, but dividing top and bottom by x^2 it approaches 0
That’s the way I was taught
wut
Wdym
@heavy grove you sure you took the limit correctly?
but then both top and bottom approach 0
so youre back where you started
yea
yeah
Is that probably what the wanted
not explicitly
What other method was there
no this is the method but i assume they want you to show that you know why it works
ie you approach a point with the slope 0
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@fierce osprey Has your question been resolved?
@fierce osprey Has your question been resolved?
what's the doubt in this actually?
u already found out the radius and height for the minimum cost, u just need to substitute the radius and height in the expression of their respective areas and find out the area and multiply with the cost of the material corresponding to the area, tada u found out the minimum cost
how do I do the minimum accuracy
here
thx

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i have a theory question
this is sin(x) with domain [0, 2pi]
if you calculate the area from 0 to pi it's 2
but the area from pi to 2pi is -2
but that doesn't rlly make sense does it
cuz it's an area
integrals don't give the area, they give a "signed area", which says that area above the x-axis is positive and area below the x-axis is negative
if my goal is to calculate the area then should i just put a negative before the integral sign
like this
O(W) just means surface
if you have a function that is negative for an entire interval, then putting a negative in front will give a positive area
yeah
so i think in this case adding the negative would give the correct area
since from pi to 2pi it's completely under the x-axis
well just enclose it in absolute value then
my book isn't a fan of that so i asked about the adding negative thing instead
taking the absolute value works for all f(x) when you want to take the absolute area
as opposed to - which only works for this instance
yeah
idk why they won't do that in the book
maybe it'll come later
i'll keep it in mind
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when we do absolute value, it's not practical to integrate. so we use the definition of absolute value [ \abs{f(x)} = \begin{cases} +f(x), & f(x) \ge 0 \ -f(x), & f(x) \le 0 \end{cases} ] which comes out to the same approach
𝕔loud
thanks a lot
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can someone please help me with this question
I'm pretty sure it involves using modulo but i'm not sure how
Try squaring both sides
x^2 + 1 + 1/x^2 = 1
No
wat
Try again and do it carefully
-1
I might suggest multiplying x on both sides of the equation and get a quadratic which you can solve.
No don't do that
Alright so x^2 + 1/x^2 = -1
Try squaring both sides again..
You might notice something
ok so I assume it always equals to -1
right
so I find the power of 2 thats closest to 2016
?
1024 is the closest power
2048 is closer, is it not?
Yes it is
wait why
x + 1/x = -1
x^2 + x + 1 = 0
where'd the 1/x^2 go
What do you mean
Forgot the squaring thing, there's a simpler way
x^2 + x + 1 = 0 implies x^3 = 1
(x+ 1/x)^2 = x^2 + 2 + 1/x^2
alr
So x^3 = 1 and you can easily use that to find the value of the expression you want
?
how do you get that though
.
The solutions to x^2 + x + 1 = 0 are two of the three solutions to x^3 - 1 = 0
The only one missing is x = 1
ah ok
...no kidding you're introducing that solution by multiplying by (x-1) on both sides, but what does that have to do with the problem at all?
Because x^2016 = (x^3)^(672)
Yes
oh ok
I just did the multiply both sides by (x-1) on paper and it makes sense
Thanks for the help
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help
why is this?
@undone idol Has your question been resolved?
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Could I get some hints on how to approach this, I’ve got the two equations by themselves in vector form but don’t know how to go any further
try to write the equation of the line in terms of xyz
How do you do that?
Just a hint please
your line equations have three rows
one for each of x, y and z
Okay, thank you
now i'd try writing the equation as x + ay + bz = 0
making it independent from lambda
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np
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Can someone help me with this contest challenge?
I have finished this problem and I got it wrong. Can someone tell why?
I think the error can not come from the solving equations part because I have double checked
Probably the problem is in establishing the equations
yea the equations get solved correctly, and I think the 5 degrees might be 30 degrees instead, if you mean the angle between numbers on a clock
Oh yes, the hour hand moves 360/12 = 30 each hour
Now the new system is
270 + x/2 = 6x + 360t - 360
6x = 270 + x/2 + 30t
solving I got t = 12/13
yes this is indeed the correct answer
thank you for help
.close
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yo
Thats why they put the brackets there
so shouldn't the AND execute first (thus implicity parantheses over the Fat and Happy), and then the conditional?
To emphasize why this is wrong
OHHHH I missed those
thank u hired
< 3
.closed
wut
.close
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@hoary oxide hello
I am becoming an expert in symbolic logic 😎
Very nice
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i'm at a loss here
are you asking how the integral on line 2 evaluates to that?
move the minus to the other side and take logs
Negate both sides and take the ln
ik isolate y but how do I do the thing to do that
ohh
Just remember, what you do to one side, you have to do to the other
more specifically the inverse of e, meaning that taking ln(e^x) = x
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just wanted to verify since not much solved examples online, if i want to solve the tsp, can i define first two points as farthest point from middle as first point and closest point to that as second one?
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Can someone check my logic? I think it’s 21, since for the number of distinct digits in this type of palindrome there are 2 options, so 2^n, but we have to subtract 2 since it can’t be all 8 or all 9. 2^11 - 2 = 2046, and 21 is the smallest length palindrome with 11 distinct digits
that's right
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Stuck on part 1, I can do part 2 by reduction of order but I need an existing solution which I am having trouble coming up with from part 1
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a+b = 15
a-b= 4
a(radius of larger circle) b(radius of smaller circle)
than find the both radius
calculate their areas and substract them from rectangles area
will be worked like a normal equation then?
yes
I worked it now however I got confused cause since there's no - on neither 15 or 4 it become 19
Yeah, so 2a = 19
Do you see how that happened?
ok i gotta sleep
Cool ok have a nice night
im missing so many obvious steps bruh
have a nice night
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how many ways are there of choosing 3 different numbers in increasing order from the numbers 1,2,3,4,...,10 so that no two of the numbers are consecutive?
there might be a better way but i have a stupid suggestion which is to count the number of choices that don't include 10 first
and to translate it to a combinatorics problem: I THINK choices that don't include 10 correspond to ways to place down two-length "blocks" onto the list 1,2,3,...,10
this q is stars and bars problem so
well it already is a combinatorics problem
wait wat
what r two-length blocks?
as in the numbers 1,4,6?
yes
isn't that consecutive tho?
1 and 4 and 6 are not consecutive
the blocks are what prevent the choices from being consecutive
right
so what do i do from there
it is not too hard to count the ways you can place the blocks but i don't recommend doing it like this on second thought
to make the first choice we can choose from 1-6 i guess
mhm
i have no clue how to go further
maybe if we choose 1 then we can choose the second number from 3-10
if we choose 2 then 4-10
(i have no clue if this will even work)
if you want to count cases like that you should use a visual aid like this
that was going to be my not so nice way of doing it
wait so is the # ways to place the blocks 9 ways
should be more than that
can the blocks be separate? i.e. (1,3)
(1,3)?
like place 1 and 3 together as one block
hmm alright
is this an olympiad question?
k just found the solution it's 10C3-9C1*8+8
nope its a practise test question
oh alr
👍
that's (10-3+1) choose 3 
it seems they did not count it very elegantly if they wrote the answer as 10C3-9C1*8+8
oh-
so its just 8C3? Why?
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/20132/how-many-ways-can-r-nonconsecutive-integers-be-chosen-from-the-first-n-integ there is an explanation here it's a bit complicated tho
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As you multiplied by 2 in this equation both sides
you wrote integral 0 to pi directly because of part ii
but for right side it is 2 * integral 0 to pi/2 right?
And you did..
@delicate fiber
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hello
if riding a toy car for A minutes cost B dollars. How many mintues would you be able to ride for C dollars?
see
The assumption there is that it's linear
do this with unitary method
