#help-33
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you really are better off not knowing
you could guess from the reactions
Is math 100% logic?
It happens can't blame whoever he was . Maths can sometimes destroy the mind condition
But whoever he was should have relaxed
Yes I was doing this word problem and it wasn’t making any sense in my head so I used AI to understand the steps
interesting that removal of the top message due to banning doesn't seem to auto-close the channel
I got this from someone. This is true right?
for calculation-based math classes it's reasonably true
like non-proof based calculus
I see
What math would it not be true
well proof-oriented math classes for one
Oh right
also things like combinatorics often require clever thinking, and even if you do a lot of practice problems you can still easily be stumped by a new problem that requires a different trick
Yeah
For me why I struggle is because there’s so many variations
like
Word problems
yea
Sometimes they make the word structure so confusing I don’t know which variables are which
true, there are a lot of different ways to word the same problem
practice does help with word problems though
And English comprehension is my weakest ability my literal weakest
Yeah
yea all i can really suggest there is to take your time and read it carefully
yeah
easier said than done i know
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This was one of them. I didn’t figure this out until AI showed me how to
btw you can open your own channel if you want to continue this convo
this one is about to go away
How do I do that
!help
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how do i graph the lines
for c
@opaque frost Has your question been resolved?
Ok so I might be wrong here but bear with me
im all ears
Do you know how to make a tangent function
Gimme a sec gotta pull up my equation
okayy
yes
First you need to find the derivative of the function
Once you do you have your slope function
so would i have to move it to the top?
Move what to the top?
the power
Yeah
so that it can be un-negative
Wait no
Wait lemme do it rq
The slope formula aka derivative is just -0.5a^-1.5
Just input your x value into your "a" variable
In the derivative
^ you will get the slope at that point
Then you got slope
once u have slope
y = mx+c
then find c using the given point
thats it
u have the tangent line at that point
-1/2
yes
Isn't it y = y1 + m(x -x1)
that works too
Then your y1 value is just your y value and your x1 value is just your x
Yeah seems easier
so 1 =1 + m(1 - 1(1)) ?
Anyways once you got this func just graph it
Yeah
But your m = -0.5*1^-1.5
That's one of her points
Oh wait no
Yeah he's right
huh?
$y=1+(\frac{-1}{2})(x-1)$
Y = 1 -0.5(x-1)
Astar777
y = 3x/2 ?
Where's this coming from?
solving the y = 1 + (-1/2)(x -1)
You don't need to simplify first of all
Why would you do it in the first place
Just leave equation as is
And use a graphing calc or smt
idk, to get it in slope-intercept form?
I mean you can just graph it as is
i didnt say i would do it, im just sayin maybe thats why
would i do the same thing for (4, 1/2) and put them on the same graph
yes
oh
also why is that 4 doing on outside
Gotta input the new x value
yes
-1/2(4)^3/2
yes
so -4
Result:
-0.0625
yeah -1/16
so how would i plug it into the second equation 😭
$y = y_1 + m(x-x_1)$
$x_1 ,,\text{and},, y_1$ are the coordinates of the given point
Astar777
1/2 = 1/2 + -1/16 (x-4)
wait sorry i wrote the equation wrong 💀
Astar777
fixed
y + 1/2 + -1/16 (x-4)
oh mb
rest is fine
then do i just put both in like desmos and graph it?
yes
why are u graphing the derivative of the function

yeah
tysm 💀

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Hi
you can use the grid to help kinda
Remember the properties of the derivative, in relation to the original graph: f increases whenever f' is positive, decreases whenever f' is negative, stationary points of f are where f' is zero...
not exact obviously but e.x. the derivative is high for the leftmost part
because it goes up 6 squares in 1 square right
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Inside the triangle ABC there was such a point L that CL = AB and BAC + BLC = 180, a straight line parallel to BC and passing through point L, crosses AC at point K prove that AB = BK
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how can one apply the sinus function to an inequality?
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ren
it doesn't affect the inequality itself?
what i mean by affecting it is just like when a decreasing function changes the order of the inequality
but the sinus is periodic
so idk
$$ \frac{-3\pi}{2} < \frac{\pi}{2} \text{ TRUE} \
\sin{\left(\frac{-3\pi}{2}\right)} < \sin{\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)} \text{ FALSE}$$
i see
Melvin Eugene Punymier
so i can't apply it?
I think you can apply it when the expressions on either side of the inequality symbol evaluate within 2pi units of each other
Restrict the domain of x such that -1/2 <= x < 1/2
...I guess maybe you can expand that range since that's the floor function
pi/x < 4
So I guess
-1/2 < x < pi/4
???
dunno, it's dark and I'm doing this in my head
Ugh
Lower input can't get less than -3, upper input can't reach 4
So you need
pi/x > -3,
pi/x < 4
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I din understand how the statement 1 implies x=a
let's say x = a + 0.00000001 for example
then |x - a| < epsilon for all epsilon > 0
so 0.00000001 is smaller than all positive numbers
which is false
Sorry i din get it
I mean how do we end up gettin x=a? Coz epsilon is some positive quantity in both the cases
So x shud always be tending to a, irrespective of whether epsilon is fixed or not
no so the first statement says that x is a number such that
whatever positive value of epsilon i give you
|x-a| will always be smaller than that
x is a 'fixed number'
so x can't 'tend towards' a
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i need help with this math problem
bascicaly it says if 2a(a-5)+2b(b-1)+13+0 then calculate (a-1)^2005+(a-8b)^2005
please anybody
mia sabse accha hu madharchiodo bhain ke laudo
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which one
How can I find using the limit thing for the tangent line
Can you help
<@&286206848099549185>
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so here they take x^2 out of the top and x out of the bottom
oh wait
nvm i see now lol
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Can someone help me with this Linear Algebra question?
This is my work so far
span(W) is not V
span(W) is just W
W is a subspace
it already contains all linear combinations of vectors in it
and i don't understand your usage of span: in (ii) you are comparing dim and spans of things using < and >
like, u wrote spanW <= dimV
what does that mean?
If A is a set of vectors, then span(A) is the set all of linear combinations of vectors from A
if A is a subspace of V, and not just a set, then span(A) = A since A already contains all linear combinations of vectors from it
dim(V) is the dimension of V, and it is a natural number (since V is finitely generated)
you cant compare it with a set
do you know that you can take any set of linearly independent vectors, and complete it to a basis of V?
a basis of V implies it spans to all the vector space right? whereas the independent vectors dont need to satisfy that condition
a basis is a linearly independent spanning set
yes
yeah like in R3 you can start with (1,0,0) and (0,1,0) which are LI but adding (0,0,1) makes it a basis, right?
u should view linear independence and spanning as two different properties
a basis is a set that satisfies BOTH of those
yes
in general, you can start with a vector
and keep adding vectors
you can keep the set linearly independent
but once you pass dim(V) vectors
for example if you have dim(V) + 1 vectors
it cant be linearly independent anymore
and the opposite is true for spanning sets:
any spanning set must have size of AT LEAST dim(V). anything less and it cant span V
dim(V) is exactly the number of vectors for which you can make it both linearly independent and span V
okay that makes sense
so for (i) how do i even start? bc it is given that V is finite dimensional and that W is a subspace of V, then W cannot be infinite dimensional because if the dim(W) > dim(V), W cant be a subspace of V anymore
?
yeah i know that
remember how the dimension is defined:
first, you define what a basis is. then, you show any basis of V must have the same number of vectors.
once you know that the size of a basis is fixed, you can call that the dimension of the vector space.
its defined as the number of vectors in some basis (doesnt matter which, that number is constant)
so show that a basis of W must have size smaller than a basis of V
if you can a basis B of W, what can you do to get a basis of V?
hint: i already told you
well i can expand it to get a basis of V I understand that, but how do i show that one dimension is less than the other? do i just go like this:
Let B = {w_1, w_2, ..., w_k} be a basis of W
you can complete it to a basis of V, by adding the vectors {w_k+1, ..., w_n}
so B' = {w_1, ..., w_k, w_k+1, ..., w_n} is a basis of V
now, since you added vectors, the dimension of V must be at least the dimension of W
either you added none,
or u added some positive amount
this proof is really trivial
a basis of W can be completed to a basis of V since its a linearly independent set
okay but thats for like part (iii)
is this wrong for (i)?
oh wait yeah yeah thats what i mean
ok but thats what ur trying to prove
but it is given that it is a subspace of V
yes
that just means its closed under linear combinations and that its a subset of V
and isnt that by definition, a smaller dimension_
okay so what I did is wrong because of my assumption that n <= m
yes
how is this (you can complete it to a basis of V, by adding the vectors {w_k+1, ..., w_n}) "allowed" but saying that it has to be of equal or smaller size than V as it is a subspace "not allowed", I know that im proving that one has smaller dimension than the other but why cant i use that fact, isnt that a definition of a subset/subspace? thats why it is subspace/set, right?
ok wait
I guess just assume dim(W) > dim(V) and get a contradiction
a basis of W must be linearly independent, but it's also linearly dependent since it has more vectors than dim(V)
doesnt this also work: As V is finite dimensional and W is a subspace of V, then W cannot be infinite dimensional because if the dim(W) > dim(V), W cant be a subspace of V anymore
ok why dim(W) > dim(V) implies W cant be a subspace of V?
because that would imply that there are elements in W that are not in V
why?
dimension is size of basis
this question is asking you to prove something very obvious and intuitive, and thats exactly why you cant make careless assumptions
it's all about unpacking definitions
okay. i understand. would you mind going over why this is allowed?
how is it cheating
...
like the theorem im relying on says, that if V is finitely dimensional and you have a set of linearly independent vectors
then you can complete it to a basis of V
but i guess you aren't supposed to use it
even tho its proven very early on
a proof by contradiction like this is better i think
wouldnt it be dependent if it has more vectors than dim W?
?
I don't understand your question
B has exactly dim(W) vectors
if B is a basis of W, i mean
Assume dim(W) > dim(V). Let B be a basis of W.
B is linearly independent since it's a basis, but also linearly dependent since it has more than dim(V) vectors
Contradiction
yeah i understand that but where does V come in
last part here
We said B is a basis of W. That also means its some set of vectors in V, which must be linearly independent if |B| > dim(V)
but because we said its a basis (of W), its also linearly independent
we're getting a contradiction
so you are using the fact that W is a subspace of V
yes
now to prove dim(V) = dim(W) iff V = W:
one direction is trivial - if V = W then obviously dim(V) = dim(W)
for the other direction, just prove that a basis of V is also a basis of W, and that means dim(V) = dim(W) since they have a basis of the same size
okay but i dont think i can just write that it is obvious that if V=W then dim(V)=dim(W)
why
they are the same vector space
literally the same thing
replace the letter V with the letter W
dont overthink it xd
i mean, idk... it does say "prove"
one of the directions is trivial
you are still proving the other one
its fine
this is common in some proofs
so for the other direction, if dim (V) = dim (W), then basis of W = Basis of V, and therefore V=W?
huh
im lost
so: if dim (V) = dim (W), then basis of W = Basis of V, V = span(B) = W, and therefore V=W
yes
prove that they have the same basis tho
take a any basis of V, and prove its a basis of W
wait so i know that the number of vectors must be the same because the dimensions are the same, but how do i show that the elements are the same, that the basis itself is the same
remember that a basis is a set of linearly independent vectors which span the space
let B be a basis of W
prove to me, that B is also a basis of V
this isnt hard to do
also remember that any set of n = dim(V) linearly independent vectors is a basis
from the three conditions:
- the set spans V
- the set is linearly independent
- the set has dim(V) vectors
any two of these is enough to show the set is a basis
thats not very accurate
what can i do to fix it
use this
well it has to span V because they have the same dimension and its like saying that B spans all R^3 and because V and W are dim R^3, the span has to be the same for both, and it has to be lin independent as it is the basis of W
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i have no idea how to solve question3, i guess i have to use the inequality from question 2 but even i tried to change x for x^2, the integral is disgusting
@burnt totem Has your question been resolved?
@burnt totem Has your question been resolved?
4 other people agree this is a hard problem btw
Maybe eventually someone will come who can do this
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This can be done in different ways. Just replace t=x^2/n and you get Beta-function which can be easily counted through Gamma-function. In case you know nothing about these just make several integrations by parts.
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Hi I'm stuck on a pre-cal inverse functions question, its very simple but I just cant seem to wrap my head around it, I know the answer but if someone could give me their perspective on how they solved it that would be really amazing!!. The question is "Determine the restrictions on each function in order for its inverse to be a function. f(x) = x^2.
inverse function is just swap x and y in position at the function and isolate the x
oh its juat asking the restrictions, so x>=1
so the answer for this question is x>=0
but I just don't know how I would find that for the restriction
no wait
is x>0
or x<0
depend on which function you use
because it will be 2 functions
yeah bc you need to past the vertical line test to become a function
you can just stat one of the function or both
oh
and write restrictions below
np
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define "mound shape"
@solemn loom Has your question been resolved?
sounds symmetric yeah
it could be like this
nah i guess it could be worse
like this
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!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
Uh 1 & 4 please
x axis is your input, y axis the output
the range of a function is the set of y-values that the function outputs
Dumber pls
It's very much wrong
:(
What would be the correct then :v
Range means, minimum possible values to maximum possible value
Of y axis, yes
here i marked it
can sometimes be the union of two disjoint sets as well, if the function is not continuous
thats not the goal here
the goal is you achieving the answer
going by how we defined the range, what would you say would be the answer?
what made you get to that answer?
I guessed
Range means, minimum possible values to maximum possible value, ** that's actually possible to get from the graph **
oh okay
Guesswork won't help you in calculus
Oh this isn't calculus?
Oh, we are taught this, with full precalc, calc1, calc2 in the "senior year" in 6 months
?
it’s okay I got it lol
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how do you simplify this further
is this boolean algebra?
yes
i think i know, but just to check, is the answer ∅
if not, i should be wrong during my thinking process
uhh is that even possible in boolean algebra
haha, sorry man my bad then
np
lemme rethink
i completely forgot how to do this
In Boolean algebra, the sum operation is idempotent right?
i splitted A'B'
into A'B'C +A'B'C'
and then do some operations to the latter terms
i.e.
A'B'C+(A'B'+A'B+AB')C'
would this help
uhh let me think
hmm idk, because where would you go from there
idk if theres a way to simplify A'B'+A'B+AB'
i dont think this can be simplified any more
interesting
i think its the MSOP
yeah, what lol
generate the truth tables of the original and the "simplified"
bet they wont be the same :d
ill try lol
but like how do you go from AB+A' to B+A'
no wayyy
yeah i have no idea lol
that tool is on another level
theyre not even equivalent unless i wrote it wrong lol
the + is v not /\
lets see
fair enough
its not possible to go from AB+A' to B+A' using the theorems
the tool just happens to know another function which has the same truth table
thats how i would explain it
if i were on exam and i ended up with this
i would stop right here, nothing to do anymore
👍
its crazy oh my god
thank you too!
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how do i determine the new integral boundaries for a non trivial jacobian transform?
What if I have $\int_{0}^{2}\int_{0}^{1-\frac{x}{2}}(x+y) \mathrm{ d}y\mathrm{d}x \text{ with } u=x+y \text{ and } v=x-2y$ for example?
Jill ♡
Calculate the Jacobian and do the substitution
yea but how do i find the new boundaries?
Solve for x and y in terms of u and v
im still confused
i got $\int_{0}^{2}\int_{0}^{u}\frac{u}{3}\mathrm{d}u\mathrm{d}v$ which probably isnt correct
Jill ♡
idk what im doing wrong
@high edge Has your question been resolved?
Do an example first. 14.7.4 here
https://math.libretexts.org/Courses/Monroe_Community_College/MTH_212_Calculus_III/Chapter_14%3A_Multiple_Integration/14.7%3A_Change_of_Variables_in_Multiple_Integrals_(Jacobians)
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I'll make you figure out why 

Oh 
Well, we've said that A must be invertible, can you name what its inverse is?
if i have to guess
is it cuz A is an identity matrix
and therefore
it is invertible
have a determinant?
I mean, that may be one way you have it defined-
Really, $A$ is invertible if you have another matrix $B$ such that $AB = BA = I$ (with all the appropriate dimension stuff of course)
@glass silo
But we can use determinants if you want
(we don't need to though!)
ah yes this ofc
actually how i thought was
cant haev a zero col or row
therefore A has to be invertible
for A^3 to be identity
😭
I mean, that A^3 can't, or that A can't?
Well, that isn't an incorrect statement, but bear in mind that not having a zero row or column isn't enough for invertibility...
e.g. the matrix $\pmqty{1 & 1 \ 2 & 2}$ is not invertible but has no zero rows/columns
@glass silo
Let me give a hint: The fact that $A^3$ is the identity is saying that $A^3 = I$...
@glass silo
@lyric kelp Has your question been resolved?
ahhh ty !
i got it
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had to do the multiplication
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How do we know ab and Ed parallel
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I'm currently stuck on 8b and don't really know how to approach this question or what to do
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50/36 = 1.38888...
so (b) is 1
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can someone please help with this question, part iii. the answer is 103
have you done part i and ii?
please show your work
<@&268886789983436800>
okay but it’s pretty messy
it's alright 😊
reading
i understand how its a right angle, bc 53 + 37
i just have no idea how to do the bearing
and i doubt the 2nd compass is correct
are you allowed to use sine cosine?
yes
i also tried the sine rule: sin53/16 = sin/7
but it got me this rlly off decimal
@vague sigil Has your question been resolved?
back
anything done so far? 😄
do ping me if you need further help for this question 
@vague sigil
oh okay, let's try together
yup
yes i have
that's great!
btw, i got this:
oh, i just found that you can also use sine law also, omg.... there are so many methods, that's why we can't think of them
,w arccos(7/sqrt(16^2+7^2))/pi*180
is it this? 66.37062226934318335785168353975...
the text book says the answer is 103
if it's correct,we can find theta, which is the final step
to be exact, we need to find the bearing of the pigeon from home.
so it will be 37+66.37062226934318335785168353975...
which is around 103°
why do we add 37?
since we have 37 and the angle we found is the angle in thr triangle at H
Is the orange 66?
you're welcome!
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i have this
how do i do a?
i would do it by a comparison with 1/n but suppose i can't do that and just go off of the definition
in the previous exercise it involved essentially inverting the sequence to get N in terms of eps but i can't really invert n! so idk what to do
How did you plan to compare? 
$\frac{1}{n!} < \frac{1}{n}$
artemetra
for n>=3
is that not good enough
cuz the N you get with 1/n is definitely larger (given a fixed epsilon) than the one you get for 1/n! but it still satisfies the conditions in the definition
It is good enough
in fact you could make the inequality non-strict for any strictly positive n
is there a way without the comparison?
the key about analysis is doing comparisons
fair enough
this is a feature not a bug
the key in epsilonics is being able to make good comparisons
okay okay
that dont destroy your behavior but make your terms easier to deal with
okay and for part b
i was thinking of comparing it with $\left(\frac{5}{6}\right)^n$
artemetra
but i am not sure if we can use the fact that $n! > 6^n$ for all sufficiently large $n$
artemetra
prove it by induction
cuz we are essentially proving that $n! > 5^n$ for all suff. large n
artemetra
fair enough
oh yeah
i don't have a formal notion of an "asymptotically faster growth"
but i get your argument
thanks
try showing only n! > 5^n and then just using that and comparison
for the 5/6 you would also need to show that that converges to 0
so actually as an exercise just do both
@vernal forge Has your question been resolved?
i see
okay makes sense
thank you
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Can you please give me problems about evaluating functions
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each year money is despoited in an account which pays an annual interest rate of r. the balance is multiplied bya growth factor x =1+4. at the start of year 1, 500 is deposited, then 200, then 600. write an expression for the value of the account in terms of the growth factor x
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
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my approach was
taking x outside
and do by parts twice
is there any other simple way u can think of?
u-sub and then partial fractions might work
what sub
You make a certain part of the function equal a variable usually its a "u"
Makes things simple sometimes
Likes here the 1-x^3 could be set to equal u to use the integral formulas easier and then simplifying
that would give me -2x^2 dx= dt
how will that help
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Find a system of infinitely many linear independent functions
There is no finite basis that can span the entire space of functions from (0,1) to R tho?
if there is no finite basis then it's not finite-dimensional
and if it's not finite dimensional then it has to be infinite dimensional
So this explains why it's infinite-dimensional?
I'm not sure if what I said above is accurate tho
And if you find infinitely many linear independent functions (0,1)-> R we cannot have a finite basis
Could we also say that F(0,1) is infinite-dimensional because it contains all polynomials (along with many other types of functions)?
If you have already shown that the set of all polynomials are linear independent then yes.
If you don't, there are far better examples
So that just leads back to this.
ehh, polynomials are great. also apply for other classic function spaces
not sure which ones you want to go for but the next one I would think of do not apply to most nice spaces
Yes, but here it is overkill. Especially if you don't have the result at hand
trivial result about nonzero polynomials having finitely many roots
Is it sufficient to just say that it's infinite-dimensional because no finite basis can span the entire space of functions from (0,1) to R then?
for completeness, the next ones I would think off are ||indicator functions|| but those dont apply to C^k or L^p spaces
Yes, you're right. That's a far more efficient way of showing it then the one I was aware of. I'd just said what LY gave.
btw should be set of all (monic) monomials instead of set of all polynomials
whilst that is true, if a problem asks you to show that something is infinite-dimensional you'll basically have to do what we've done here
Gotcha
I was also wondering about the vector space R itself with standard operations.
Would the dimension for this simply be 1? Because any real number can be written as a scalar multiple of the single basis vector 1, which spans R. Thus, since the basis for R has one element, the dimension of R is 1 as well?
yes but always remember that when we talk about vector spaces
we're talking about a vector space with respect to a scalar field
R is a R vector space, in which case it has dimension 1
but it's also a Q vector space, in which case it has infinite dimension
Oh, so it's only 1-dimensional because in this case I was told R itself, with standard operations is a vector space over R and since any real number can be written as a scalar multiple of 1, it's 1-dimensional?
yes
In this case could R also be considered as R^1 which is one-dimensional because the standard basis consists of 1 vector?
yeah
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which is pretty much the same argument because the standard basis vector would be 1 again. or (1) if you want to write it as a vector
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So I got this to rref but i’m confused on the basis part. I mapped the matrix to a row vector so would my basis be the first two rows?
and then map it back to the original 3 x 2 matrix?
I believe i got it
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How do I find the angle here?
@half dagger Has your question been resolved?
Find r' and use any formula for the angles. For example the one that involves scalar product
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I need help with a
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how do you plot |z|=Rez+2
,w plot y = sqrt((x+2)^2 - x^2)
no you're right it's a parabola
i guess parabolas are conics too
alright i'm done waffling. sorry for waffling
no worries!
thank you lol
for smth like |z-1|+|z+1|=7
idk if I should rewrite z as x+yi
hm wait
im gonna try and see
standard idea when you have the sum of two abs vals, move one of them to the other side
then square
if only it were that easy...
you're missing the cross term on the RHS
your last line should be:
$$(x-1)^2 + y^2 = 7^2 - 14|(x+yi) + 1| + (x+1)^2 + y^2$$
Bungo
that middle term starting with the 14 is what you missed
also note the sign of the last two terms
assuming that you agree with this, rearrange to get the remaining abs val term on one side and everything else on the other side
and square again
also note that you can do a fair amount of simplification before that
@sacred crown Has your question been resolved?
can multiply out the (x-1)^2 and (x+1)^2, and simplify more
righttt
ok
I mean now I can plot it on desmos, but I wouldn’t have known the shape myself
you can simplify the stuff inside the square root
it's still gonna be of the form sqrt(some quadratic) though
thank you!
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This is for inverse function and its a super easy question but im just confused
why is it not:
x/-1 = y
im confused howh the inverse is the same
This is for inverse function and its a super easy question but im just confused
x/-1 = -x
ya but if u divide by -1 it remove the - beside the x?
bc -1/-1 = 1
so im confused why the inverse is the same as before
yes plssss tysm
$y=\frac{1}{x+2}$
Emily
the first step to invert this function is to make x the subject
like write it as x = ...
$x+2=\frac{1}{y} \ x = \frac{1}{y} - 2$
Emily
are you following Mila
yes
are you okay with that!
wait why cant u just switch y and x
make it x = 1 / (y + 2)
thats how we were learning it
yeah, both work
can we do this one?
i usually write x in terms of y, then switch
😭
yeah, it will be the same
$x+2=\frac{1}{y} \ x = \frac{1}{y} - 2 \$ switching x and y $\implies y=\frac{1}{x}-2$
Emily
mhm
you want to start by switching, then write y in terms of x?
$y=\frac{1}{x+2} \$ switching x and y $\implies x=\frac{1}{y+2} \ y+2 = \frac{1}{x} \ y = \frac{1}{x}-2$
Emily
see, they both work
ok
now back to our original question
y = -x
using your method, we start by switching x and y
it becomes: x = -y
right
then multiply both sides by -1
-x = y
or, y = -x
so it remains the same
for real :p
follow the steps so you dont get lost
- take the original function, switch x and y
- write y in terms of x
that will be your inverse function
mhm
ok tys m
tysm
im gonna relook at this and copy it down my notes :)
tyy
ill close the chanel so other ppl get a chance to ask questions too lol
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guys does someone understand what this X^T means here
transpose
most math books just write $X \cdot Y$ instead of $X^T Y$
riemann
hmmm that is insane
And the part "assigns a real number to each pair of vectors X,Y" --> this means product of corespondent elements of vectors assigns to R^n some number or will equate to some number?
if i undertod corect
i don't know how abstract you wanna get, but dot products assume you have a field (in this case R) and the product of two numbers (x1 * y1, call this z1) is again itself a real number, and the sum of two real numbers (z1 + z2) is again a real number
i recommend being less abstract and just deal with numbers

hmm i watch now very nice
but im going insane rn going hard math
studying 24/7
if i pass i will make memorial for this discord 👍

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struggling to process how i’m gonna graph this. forgive me for my stupidity i’m just genuinely at a loss
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