#help-33
1 messages · Page 164 of 1
@lean falcon are you done
i'll send a vid to make sure everything is good rn
just fixing it
can you go through this last part with me
how does it look btw
i still cant see the hole why is that
is my hole wrong
or vertical asymptote
,w expand (t+4)(t-10)(t-15)
,w maximize (t+4)(t-10)(t-15)
Check a and b yourself against this
Zoom in and don’t highlight every point
Although desmos sometimes breaks with that kinda stuff so who knows
the hole is -4 right
,w discontinuity (t+4)(t-10)(t-15)/(t^2-3t-28)
okay okay
I’d write the hole as a coordinate point but do what you want ig
i think my teacher wants it as hole i would write it like that
k
i dont get it i'm zooming in i just see these points
i'm following a similiar vid my teacher gave me with a diff problem and for her it shows
The grid lines are in increments of 5
You’re looking for behavior at 4
the thing is the graph counts as some grade points so i have to find it
.
how do i change that
I meant to zoom in more
Maybe you can go into settings if you want to change the scale
Idk
.
on which side
The teacher’s graph is way more zoomed in relative to how zoomed in you are rn
Dude just zoom in on the interval from [-5,0]
Or closer to 4 if you want to be specific
lemme take a vid
look how i'm zooming
@cunning fiber are you still here
floating point errors
it doesnt have a button?
i see ok
okay perfect
let me write it down
@cunning fiber everything finally looks good ty bro ur a lifesaver 🐐
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What do they do to go from the top highlighted to the bottom?
what happened to the 4/3 and 1/9?
you know the power rule?
oh shit
so you multiply y^1/3 * 1
well, constants isnt clear in this scenario
and divide by the result
lets look at one term
I forgot about the divide part
$\int\frac 43 y^{1/3}\dd y$
jan Niku
this is $\frac 4 3 \cdot \frac 34 y^{4/3}$
jan Niku
well plus C but blah blah
hopefully that tracks
you can double check the rest of the terms but this is what is occuring

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I don’t know how to do the last ones
You have the function what is the y value when x = -5...
For example, at x = -5, what is your y-axis value?
0
It’s the last 2 I don’t get
think of f(4) like a number rather than something else
f(4) is = to what in this case?
i couldnt tell you tbh, i cant read the graph with your photo well enough XD
but my point being, you plug in numbers for each function there
so it will be 3(a) + b - 1/2(c) = ?
where a, b, and c are the values of f(4),f(0),f(-3)
and for the final question you work backwards, f(x) = 3, you want to look at which x value turns into a y value that equals 3
and that is your answer
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Thanks
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am i tripping or is this genuinely wrong
slope is negative for obtuse angle right
@night lion Has your question been resolved?
yeah why
well tan(angle) = m
your m is -k
if angle is obtuse, then tan(angle) is -(some number)
-(some number) = -k
then just remove the - signs
@night lion
umm wdym
so the line makes an angle with the x axis
yes
of 150 degrees
right?
tan 150 = -1/sqrt3
im not sure why u think i dont understand slope
i was asking if they did the math wrong
no they didnt
or am i missing something mundane
ohhhh yea
fuck i assumed
k is positive and making it negative
🤦🏻♂️ chemistry
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thanks
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How do i do this
@meager badger Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
@meager badger Has your question been resolved?
you can draw it out to visualise
the area in red is what the whole expression represents. The area in black is what the second integral represent
how do you do that
do what exactly?
Shade in the area
as in how I do it technically? or how I know which area to shade in?
technically
you can ask desmos to graph an inequality for you, and it will shade in the region containing points (x, y) that satisfy the said inequality
in the case above, if you graph (x-2)^2 + y^2<=4, it will shade the red disk along with its border.
Equivalently you could graph r<=4cos(theta) and this will give the same result
ahh makes sense
thanks so mcuh
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you accidentally turned -3 into -3x
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✅
so I get -2h^2 -3hx all over h , im not sure where to go next
so its just -2h-3x
says its wrong
-2h^2-4hx
the derivative should be -4
yes
idk what yall are on about
?
you just made a little mistake here. You said -3hx but I think you should have -4hx
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reel
idk why i closed it it's gunna reopen cuz im gunna need help with the next one (likely)
on the 4th line where did 3x come from?
i think it should be 3
and the 3s cancel out each other
$f(x+h) - f(x) = (3 - 2x^2 - 4xh - 2h^2) - (3 - 2x^2) = -4xh - 2h^2$
guys i finished it im all good
yeah thanks!!

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In how many ways can you arrange 3 men and 3 women in a circular table such that men and women are alternate
We're going to need some more context, there's a lot of ways you could interpret that question
Like ?
Do we care that a man is in a position or do we care about which specific man is in a position? Do we care about positions relative to each other or do we care about positions relative to the table? How many positions are at the table?
The table is purely symmetry
A perfect circular transperant glass and there are 6 places
So if there was just one person at the table would there be one way to arrange them or 6?
1
Their order with respect to each other matters only
Not wrt the table
And if we swap 2 men does that count as a new arrangement?
Yes except the diametrically opposite case
Men and women are definately different
How can all the men be assumed to be identical
They are all distinct
m1, m2, m3
w1, w2, w3
Yep 👍
No
Say the men are Adam, Ben and mark
And the women are Stacy, mary and jane
oh you're the OP
Well now that we have all that we can do some combinatorics: Let's say that the table always starts at a given man so we have a fixed starting point since rotation around the table doesn't matter. From there we have 3 women who can be positioned next to him, then 2 men next to her, etc.. Do you see where we can go from there?
all arrangement - women always sit next to each other and men always sit next to each other
(6-1)! - (2-1)!x3!x3!
-1 because it is a circle
Firstly, wrong. Secondly, don't just give the answer.
oh my bad, i forget to consider some other possible cases
ok i find the exact problem in my textbook so i think it should be correct
let three man sit first in a circle, so is (3-1)! of ways, then let woman sit between every two mens, since theres three slot to be filled the circular property of circle is gone, so the combination is 3!
so should be (3-1)!x3!
Big case 1:
_m1 comes the first(C), then w1 and then m2 and then w2
m1 is at C, m2 at E and m3 at G
now rotate
number of possible cases = 6
Bigger Case2: m1 comes the first(C) but then comes w1 and then m3 and then w2
Here also cases = 6
further continuing, number of possible bigger cases can be calculated as:
m1,w1,m2,w2,m3,w3
m1,w1,m3,w2,m2,w3
m1,w2,m2,w1,m3,w3
m1,w2,m2,w3,m3,w1
m1,w3,m3,w1,m1,w1
- one more case of m1, w3
now m2 or m3 can come it w_x's left
when m2 is at the left of w_x, bigger case = 6
similarly for m3 it is 6
so every women and every man has experienced every women and every other man.
Total number of cases = 6 * 3* 6
= 108
point out the mistakes
Firstly, wrong. Secondly, don't just give the answer.
ik it's wrong
... Then why give that answer?
i said point out the mistakes
I can't do that because I can't make sense if what you're even saying
i mean usually these permutation problem dont need to list out all the cases so detailed
yes
Anyway, @velvet cairn, refer the the message I'm replying to for how to go about solving this
@velvet cairn Has your question been resolved?
No
72 would be correct if arrangments were relative to the table, but they're not, as discussed above
ohok
So we have 3 vacant spaces for 3 women and 2 vacant spaces for 2 men
So it should be 3!×2! ryt ?
the pattern is always MWMWMW
now ignore the circle scenario
actually ill rephrase the last sentence
dont worry about rotating the table for now
there are 6 people in the table
3 men and 3 women alternating
now, do you know how many ways you can permute n different objects in an arrangement?
its a simple term
n !
yep
so how many ways can we permute the men and women?
each separately
among themselves
3!×3!
Mhm
and if we turn it twice we may get the same permutation
this means there are three ways we can get the same permutation from this
I get it
no rotation -> MWMWMW
once -> WMWMWM
twice -> MWMWMW
Each linear permutation gives arise to 3 circular permutations
yes
im kind of confused of the answer though
seems too small
you should get 6*6/3 then
which is 12
ok never mind
its 12 yeah
another way people approach this problem is to start with the rotating problem first
but personally i find it hard to comprehend
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what a shining keyboard
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I'm honestly very confused as where to even start
what do vertical asymptote and horizontal asymptote mean?
that the graph never touches those points, only approaches them
i mean more in a limit sense, or what it tells you about a functions domain/range and such
like what does x=-9 being a VA actually tell you about (x+p)/(qx+r)
that the range is infinite?
how do you normally identify vertical asymptotes on rational functions?
equal the denominator to 0
that works here too
qx+r will eventually give me -9
no
remember that it says vertical asymptote at x=-9
indeed
can it be stated that q+r=0 then? if i move the -9 dividing to the other side
no
okay I won't do that then
you have to divide all terms by -9 to each side
you didn't divide r by -9 in that, but yes. I wouldn't focus on doing that yet
now
,calc 1/(0.5)
Result:
2
Result:
-4
okay!!!
q is definitely smaller than 1
gotcha
in general 1/(1/x)=x (given x not equal to 0)
so q is -1/3
yep
,calc (-1/3)*(-9)
Result:
3
and this equation allows you to solve for r
so r=-3
yep
now all we need is p, and we use the information we haven't used yet
and to solve for p i can just substitute x and y with the coordinates
yes
okay!!!! gotcha
ill do that rq
so p=-2
awesome!
thanks so much
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i have
some money
that will grow 50% per week
it is $150
i want to calculate how much money i have made in the last month after x amount of weeks
my total amount after x weeks would be 150*1.5^x
so for the last month it would be something with a sigma right
difference of 2 sigmas
something like this?
hmm idk
compound or simple?
compound
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Hello! I would like some hints on how to solve the (C) part, this question is part of a self-assessment in my uni! Thanks
I was able to solve (a), (b), (d) with sandwich theorem, so i believe (c) can also be solved using sandwich theorem
But i cant find convergent sequences to use as bounds for the question to get a convergence point
<@&286206848099549185>
Use sandwhich properly!!
welp, i dont take uni math, but if i had to gamble a guess, i would try to show that its always > 0 and thats its monotonously decreasing (is that even the right way to use that word...)
dont mind me if it doesnt work 😛 just here to learn as well
thanks, ill try that
yeah i did that, is that enough to prove it converges?
also this way i cant find the point of convergence tho right?
i mean ill think thats enough (dont trust me on this rly im just a high schooler)
as for what it converges too, thats a good point i didnt think of thta, i only thought you needed to know whether it converges
that would work yeah
that is enough to prove it converges
but it doesn't tell u about the point of convergence
what should i do for the point of convergence?
ngl normally when questions say "investigate the convergence/divergence of X" i feel like it usually only means determine whether or not they converge but it'll depend on who wrote the q
i'll work on it first and lyk but i think u should probably take a guess as to what it converges and see if u can prove that
oh wait no i remember how to do this question now
alright, and yeah this question does only ask to check if it converges, but the prof said if u find the point of convergence u get more marks
yeah there is a way you can 'sandwich' it it's not really a sandwich, ignore me
||what's kinda annoying is that we have (n+1)^a - n^a, which intuitively should be really close to 0, but it's annoying that we don't have something obvious like 1/n - think about how you can manipulate the expression to get x_n = 1/stuff||
lemme try then
by sandwhich theoreom do yall mean the squeeze thereom?
you showed that its > 0 for all n, and you showed that it is decreasing for all n
im assuming so since they both seem to imply the same thing ig
ok
i think n belongs to N
so gotta start with 1
i mean in class we always started with n = 1
suppose it starts from 0
x0 will be 1
all next terms will be less than 1
but must remain > 0
so it converges to 0
that doesn't imply it converges to 0?
w h a t
i.e 1/(n+2) + 0.0005 doesn't converge to 0
but satisfies everything u've said
thats a very weird assumption tbh
well it also remains greater than -5 why doesnt it converge to -5 in that case?
you cant base convergence on the minimum value for it
^
1/(n+2) + 0.00005 is less than 1 for all n>=1, and it's greater than 0 but it doesn't converge to 0
yeah but the decreasing can be logarithmic
so it becomes slower and slower and approaches a point still greater than 0, like 0.0004 or something
bruh were talking limits here...
while it is true that the minimum value of the sequence is what it converges to, we don't know that 0 is the minimum value
and?
exactly yeah
covergence point is the limit of xn when n tends to infinity, right
thats what i meant mb
i got it
so just say 0
but we dont know definitively that x = 0 is the minimum value
nor have we PROVEN that the function is always decreasing
even if its obvious we've still gotta prove it
so basically, the lower bound is 0, the upper bound can be the starting point of the sequence which is always greater than any other element of the sequence because its monotonously decreasing
for alpha -> 0, the first element of sequence also tends to 0
does that work
no
what if the answer depended on alpha?
if u can prove that for all alpha, we have the same limit then yeah ur thing should work
no that wont work then
but if the answer were i.e. alpha^4 then no it wouldn't
hmmm
btw this is an analysis question, not really a calculus question
yeah
in analysis if a question asks for a limit l, you need to prove it rigorously
(level of rigor depends on how far into analysis u r)
btw are yall SURE its monotonely decreasing?
even if it seems obvious shouldnt we prove it rigoriously first before moving on?
i proved using its first derivative
the first derivative of x_n is always less than 0
which means x_n is decreasing
i hope thats what it means, otherwise i will fail calc
for some reason rigorous limits scare me to be honest so ive never really learned the rigorous epsilon-delta definition of limits
(this is only possible cuz i self-learned calculus ofc, i didnt skip a part of cirriculum in a school course just cuz i felt like it)
we are doing epsilon delta definitions
um so
^
that's the best way to go about actually finding the limit
damn i hate stuff that is so obvious un-rigorously but is hard to prove rigorously
wait what is oo^a
can you play with it abit and use lhopitals rule?
as in turn it into a 0/0 or infinity/infinity fraction
since in most cases you can
0 x infinity?
yes
what did u do?
let me send a screenshot
depends on a
0<a then infinity
a = 0 indeterminate form
a<0 then zero
(correct me if im wrong please i havent dealt with limits in a while)
well to use lhopitals rule you can just do whatever that second part is divided by 1/n^a
its the same as multiplying by n^a except now its in a fraction form
||normally when we have a fraction like 1/(sqrt(3)+sqrt(2)), we'd multiply top and bottom by sqrt(3)-sqrt(2) to rationalise the denominator - can you do this in reverse?||
and the denominator is zero and the numerator is also zero i think
so youre free to use lhopitals rule once you do that im pretty sure
checking this now
i did that
but lhopital on it doesnt work either
you should get $x_n = \frac{1}{(n+1)^{\alpha}+n^{\alpha}}$
LY
which obviously converges to 0
the numerator didnt come 1
wait does it not
did you try using algebraic manipulation after lhopitals rule?
$x_n = \frac{(n+1)^{2\alpha}-n^{2\alpha}}{(n+1)^{\alpha}+n^{\alpha}}$
oh yeah you don't
cuz i did and i got (n+1)^(a-1)
and you can just let u = n+1 and u approach infinity
but it doesn't really matter cus obviously the numberator < 1
o it becomes u^(a-1)
Osiris
yes this is what i get
note that numerator <= 1 by either using the fact that u've already shown that x_n is decreasing
or like just algebra manipulation
right
we can let a-1 = b and since the range for a is greater than 0 and less than one, the range for be b is greater than -1 and less than 0
and we know for that range the limit as n approaches infinity of n^a is zero
uhhhhhhhh.......
isnt 2 * alpha now larger than 1 tho
guys are yall listening to me??
oh yeah hes right
yes m3nny im listening to u as well
illl try some algebraic manipulation
good point!
yeah then try to get it to the form (N+1)^(a-1) and after that you should be able to easily prove it approaches zero by just substituting some variables and using the range we're given
how did u get this? i am not getting that on manipulation after l'hopitls
ok so after applying lhopitals rule you get
(a(1+1/n)^a-1 x -1/n^2)/(-an^(-a-1))
divide the top and bottom by negative a to get
(1+1/n)^a-1 x 1/n^2) / (1/n^a+1)
then multiply the top and bottom by n^2 to get
(1+1/n)^a-1 / (1/n^(a-1))
then simplify the fraction by multipling top and bottom by n^(a-1) to get
n^(a-1) x (1+1/n)^(a-1)
factor out exponentiation to a-1
(n x (1+1/n))^(a-1
distribute the n inside the brackets
(n+1)^(a-1)
lemme know if i went wrong anywhere
||if alpha <= 1/2 then the method above works, if alpha > 1/2 then multiply our original expression by (n+1)^(1-a) + n^(1-a) instead||
wait i think m3nny might be going in the right directon
lemme just write that down and see if its correct
WAIT
thats right
i got the first step wrong initially where the denominator is 1/-an^(-a-1) i wrote it as 1/-an^(a-1)
and yeah thats proof enough
wow
wait... can i just like offer up an idea? not sure if its rigorous enough
yay!!
yessir
thank god for lhopitals rule
truly one of the best things to happen to mathematics
are u allowed l'hopital's rule?
now if someone can explain why we applied l'hopitals to x_n
what if we notice that its like an integral of alpha * (n+1)^(alpha-1) from the interval of n to n+1
oh shit now that u remind me.... we arent LMAO
then like since (n+1)^(alpha-1) is convergent like said then everything just goes to 0?
nooooooooo i just got reminded about this fact
i dont see any reason for it not to be allowed other than cases where they havent learned it yet or its used in a way thats self-dependent like in sinx/x
in general, if u've just done epsilon delta definitions, you probably haven't proved l'hopital's yet
which is why i thought that Osiris might not have been allowed it
oh yeah fair enough then
wait i just realized ive never actually seen the rigorous proof for lhopitals rule i only took it as fact and just kinda used intution
that is correct but still relies on the fact that we need the expression (n+1)^(a-1) which is derivable only from l'hopitals it seems
i should probably check that out later
ah ic thanks
especially cuz i wanna take real analysis and im sure you need to prove limits more rigorously for that
anyways damn it sucks you cant use lhopitals rule
ok so far this is what we have established
- x_n > 0 for all natural n but its monotonously decreasing so it converges
- if we find an upper bound that also converges to 0 i can sandwich proof it to converge to 0
yeah actually that works lol
i kinda get it cuz its like banning calculators to make students comfortable with using other methods but still its so inconvenient
we are allowed to use l'hopitals on bounds if we use sandwich theorem
it's not really to get u to use other methods, it's just like if u don't know how to prove l'hopital's rule then using l'hopital's rule ends up being like 'the same' as going "this thing should tend to 0"
prof said u just cant straight away prove it by applying limit, cuz thats unreal
i literally forgot about this until u mentioned it just now, i would have failed calculus omg
obviously u need to have done integrals first but if u've done integrals in analysis then it does work lmao
well most students dont learn how to prove the quadratic formula but theyre still allowed to use it
ik theres completing the square but i dont think thats taught before the quadratic formula though
nono we learned proof of quadratic formula before applying\
using completing the square yes
was just a wild thought since ive never touched analysis, might look into it after this tho this seems cool
oh my bad then
We still havent took quadratics at school yet so i dont know what order theyre typically taught
also it's a bit different cus it's school rather than uni but like if ur taking a pure maths course, u try to learn the proofs of everything before u can use them
i mean if ur not allowed to use l'hopital's then i don't think ur allowed to use l'hopitals on ur sandwich expressions lol
maybe they just want students to use the sandwhich method somewhere even if they supplement it with other stuff?
this works but idk if there's a cleaner way to do it
we can use anything to get the limits in our bounds of sanwich actually
ok so we need an expression greater than (n+1)^a - n^a when 0 < a < 1 that converges to zero
hmm
gonna try this
nope too messy
its supposed to be simple
cuz we have time limits and shi in our exams
btw isnt saying n^a when 0 < a < 1 the same as saying n^(1/a) for any a > 1?
wait actually that doesnt account for alot of cases nvm
yeah..
tho i feel like if we cant get the point in this question, maybe its not meant to be
after all the main question was to just investigate
with that said can i also get some help with (D) and (E) c:
well for d i think it has to converge to sqrt2 - 1
since the limit as n approaches infinity of 2^(1/(2n+1)) is the same as the limit as m approaches 0 of 2^m which is just 1
so sqrt2 - 1
and im not sure how to approach e yet tbh
factorials, especially double factorials, are pretty awkward to handle
oh okay
thats fine, i think i understand what i need to do now
thanks guys, i learned a lot @mellow crag @wanton willow @grave dove @mellow galleon (sorry for pings just thanking)
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I have 150 dollars and it grows 50% every month. i want to know how much my amount has increased in the last month after x months
how do i do that
would it be the balance after x weeks minus the balance after x-4 weeks
IS THE TIME IN WEEKS OR MONTHS?
weeks
IT SAYS IT GROWS 50% EVERY MONTH THOUGH
oh fuck mb
meant weeks
50% every week
this would be the dollar amount and the increase over the last month correct?
SEEMS So
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@still temple the question says that richard has 19 different football player cards already, he is missing a single specific one. now he buys 5 bars that can contain any card from the 20 cards in the pool. u need to find in part 1 if after buying the 5 bars he was unable to complete his collection
theres 19/20 chance that each chocolate bar he buys does NOT have the card he needs
so in part (i) are u able to calculate his probability of not completing his collection now? remember he buys 5 bars
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Hey. Not sure if there will be anyone to help with this, but just in case I'm having an issue with this graph.
This is the graph I have entered its (0,5)
The issue is I know this is wrong because when I input in desmos its (0,5.5) but with this graph I can't (or dont know how to) make it that precise. I'm not sure what to do.
<@&286206848099549185>
Did you try any other graphing tools?
no this is the platform I have to submit it on
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like, help me understand it so i can actually solve it. left column is set-builder notation, middle is interval notation, and right is the line graph
<@&286206848099549185>
when ur talking about intervals
if you take a<b<c
this means b belongs somewhere between a and c, not including the bounds a and c
which means at a and c the line graph will be open (unfilled dot)
whenever it can also be equal to bounds, the graph of closed at that point
@grand estuary Has your question been resolved?
what about set-builder notations?
is the same there as well
just uses actual words instead of symbols like union or intersection
heres the things, i still dont understand it 😭 as this part of the subject is still entirely new to me
what would that look like?
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How can I express this vector in the specified form?
does each point correspond to the different v's
you can think of it like that
i, j and k are unitary vectors. think in 3 dimensions: if you have a vector V of the above form (V1 i + V2 j + V3 k) then you move V1 units on the x axis, V2 units on the y axis and V3 units on the z axis
so, look at your two points and think how much you "moved"
for the x coordinate u went from -4 to -4...so how much did you move?
it did not move at all
4
mhm but in what direction?
that also matters
you went from +2 to -2, so you actually moved "-4" steps
and what about the z axis?
+3
right
a more "mathematical" way to think about it is that if P1 has coords (x1,y1,z1) and P2 has coords (x2,y2,z2) then the vector P1P2 = V1 i + V2 j + V3 k will have coefficients:
V1= x2-x1
V2= y2-y1
V3= z2-z1
makes sense right?
since the difference of the two coordinates is the distance we travelled, basically
yes thats right
never mind different question
same thing
no need to get too technical
oh well
we use the distance formula/ the pythagorean theorem
they're both the same thing
|V| = sqrt(v1^2+v2^2+v3^2)
oh okay makes sense i thought that was what it was
thanks for you help
you explained it really well
no worries, have a good one
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So confused, how is this not 3
i hate this problem lmao
yea it’s more of an eyesight test lol
It was js that I couldnt tell it was 3.5 sorry dumb question (im so cooked all of this is due in a hour and a half)]
so it was 3.5?
Yes
literally none
nice
literally was a guess
What did you use to draw the lines?
Alright thanks man I appreciate all the help
Do you guys js do this for fun or is it to help you orr
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In a system of linear equation,does a homogenous eqution ALWAYS go through the origin?
And why
Because if you sub in zero for x and y the equation is satisfied. (0,0) are the coordinates of the origin.
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Might be a silly question, Can we find a one-sided derivative without the definition method? If so, what conditions should the function meet? like this function, is there any other way except using definition to find the one side derivative of f at 1? The following is my take
well for the one side you can just differentiate as usual. i.e. power rule
you dont know the differentiation rules yet?
like x^n -> nx^(n-1) ?
I know it, I'm just not famaliar with the terminology in English
so what conditions should the function meet if we want to do this way?
yes I mean, what conditions should the function meet if we want to do this way?The way that just differentiate it. Like, follow what rules?
the function at x=1 and for x>1 follows the same def here. so you can just differentiate that
thats not true for x=1 and x<1, so you cant do it for the left side limit
btw sidenote, the function isnt even continuous at x=1 from the left, so you really dont have to worry about the derivative
well if your assumption already says that f is differentiable there...
the point is, the limit you wrote down doesnt even know that on the left of x0 the function behaves badly
if you tried to take the derivative from the right for the function 2/3x^3 (everywhere) at x=1, you would compute the same limit
I think what the other helper is trying to get at is: the function x^n has a known derivative, it is equal to nx^{n-1}.
Now you function coincides with a nice function on [1, 1.5): 2/3 x^3.
2/3x^3 has the nice derivative 2x^2, which, evaluated at 1, is 2.
Since your function coincides with 2/3 x^3 on [1,1.5), the right-sided derivative is equal to 2x^2 evaluated at 1, that is 2.
these rules: "x^n has derivative nx^{n-1}" are basically derived from definition.
They are there cuz its kinda tedious to do def over and over again whenever you encouter functions like this
I guess I didnt express myself correctly. The pic I made is, I mean I made a summary like, what conditions should the function meet if we want to do this way. so I'm trying to find the conditions fit in general not only in the example I posted above
My point is that if these two parts are good, or just open interval is enough
lemme give an example:
If you know what $g'(1)$ is, and $f(x)=g(x)$ on $[1,1+h)$, then $f'_{+}(1)=g'(1)$
qwertytrewq
in our case g(x)=2/3 x^3
g'(x)=2x^2 so g'(1)=2
and f coincides with g on [1,1+h)
so $f'_+(1)=g'(1)$
qwertytrewq
so its not abt whether the derivative exists or not, it more about: "oh we know this nice function's derivative, it must coincide with our uglier function"
In general: if $g'(a)$ exists and $f(x)=g(x)$ on $[a,a+h)$ for some $h$, then $f'_+(a)=g'(a)$
qwertytrewq
Thank you, but what about this doubt?
@devout hill where did you go
I need you
i am pretty sure this is wrong. lemme find an counterexample
you mean we cannot make it diff at an open interval?
take $f(x)=\left{\begin{array}{cc}x^2\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)&,x\neq 0\ 0&,x=0\end{array}\right}.$
qwertytrewq
sure cuz we want that side of f'(x0) exist, ofc we need to assure limf'(x) existing
nvm ur statement should be correct through mean value theorm
but it seems somewhat irrelevant to what method we used to get the answer
wait how thru mvt
I just feel it might be right but idk how to prove it
$\frac{f(1+h)-f(1)}{h}= f'(c_h)$
qwertytrewq
for some $c_h\in (1,1+h)$
qwertytrewq
It is relevant, the right side of the original function fits for this statement, continuous, diff, and lim exits, then we can just take the derivative cuz we know it will exist
as $h$ gets small close to $1^+$, $c_h$ also gets close to $1^+$
qwertytrewq
so the limit equals to f'_+(x_0) exists and must be A
in fact the derivative will be equal to the limit of the derivative here
yeah, however,
instead, the left side will fail this statement: continuous × , so we will know that left side f' doesnt exist
this statement right here alr asserts that f'_+(1) exists
so it sort of feels redundant to apply the other lemma we proved
because you don't need to check for limits of derivatives here (this works if the limit of derivative doesnt exists)
heck, you don't even need g to be differentiable anywhere else but 1
and f doesnt have to be diff at 1
so here it should be open interval !
fair enough now
Thank you
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Let $ a_n = \int_{0}^{1} x^{n} \sqrt{1 - x^{2}} , dx $ for $n = 0, 1, 2, \ldots$.\
(1) Prove that the sequence ${ a_n }$ is monotonically decreasing, and that $a_n = \frac{n - 1}{n + 2} a_{n - 2} $ for $ n = 2, 3, \ldots $.\
(2) Find $\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{a_n}{a_{n - 1}}$
trig sub maybe
miyo
,, \int_0^1 x^n\sqrt{1-x^2}(1 -x) : \dd x < 0
bacc
seems not very nice to handle with
Yes with x between 0 and 1 this is negative, so its monotonically deacreasing
Ok but how do we prove this
The value of a_n ?
,, \int_0^1 x^n\sqrt{1+x}(1 -x)^{3/2} : \dd x < 0
bacc
I meant to show that this holds
When does any task you post seem nice to handle 😭 but they are very interesting
It is x-1 not 1-x
So you can't get this
how
$0 \leq x \leq 1$
$\implies 0 \leq x^n \leq 1$, $n > 0$
Also, $-1 \leq x-1 \leq 0$
$\implies 0 \leq x^n\sqrt{1-x^2} \leq \sqrt{1-x^2} \leq 1$
$\implies 0 \geq (x-1)x^n\sqrt{1-x^2} \geq x-1 \geq -1$
$I \leq 0$ where $I$ is your integral
Thats the wording indeed
Miles
@small stream Has your question been resolved?
it looks good what miles cooked
wait but how to show that $a_n = \frac{n - 1}{n + 2} a_{n - 2}$
miyo
I was thinking maybe you can deduce that with the reduction formula
If we use a trig sub there is reduction formula for sin(x)^n
I haven't wrote it in detail. but my hint would be (rather not obvious): the derivative of $(1-x^2)^\frac{3}{2}$ is? Try Integration by parts.
qwertytrewq
hopefully it works
why $(1-x^2)^\frac{3}{2}$ What did you spot that triggered you this
miyo
cuz when a_n-a_{n-2} gives you another 1-x^2
so you just have (1-x^2)^\frac{3}{2}
i just did it, it works
thank god
ofc integration by parts is the first thing that pops up in my mind, cuz "recursive" formulae like this using integration by parts appears in deriving logarithmic integral things too
basically id expect the degree of x to raise/drop by a certain amount if i apply it correctly
🤷♂️ like how else are they gonna do it
this is what i mean: you just apply integration by part over and over again to get k!/ln x^k (of course with some detail one needs to take in account for)
why don't u use the texit bot here
Jeez. Seeing this expression makes me feel like I'm about to faint
why should we use ibp to handle this intergration? Sorry i forgot a lot of knowledges about intergration
And why did you think of compute an-an-2, i mean, what inspires you
what does integration by parts achieve? it make udv=uv-vdu
what we hope is that uv vanishes (since it is evaluated at 1 and 0). And vdu gives us something like x^{differnt power} (1-x^2)^{a value we hope is 1/2}
because if x is to a different power then this integral then relates to a_{different number}
which gives us a recurrence (which is what we want)
now the choice of "u" and "v" on the other hand.... is more like "play around and find out"
a lil bit of simplifying gets the job done
Since ibp can help establish recursive relationships between integrals, when we see recurrence in sequences and series, we can always try to use ibp?
where each term is in terms of integral? probably.
wait a min I need to ponder for a while 
in this problem the functions also gives some "hint": a_n compared to a_n-2, the power on x decreases. Similarly, if you were to apply ibp with u part as x^{some power}, you also establish some equation with x^{some power-1} on the other side
these are all vague hints that tells you maybe you should at least try ibp
it might not always work tho
This gives me headaches, need to reconsider later, I'll repost it maybe tmr to finish it, it destroyed all my little confidence, i need to do some simple ones to regain my poor confidence
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did i interpret this problem correctly
change in altitude is change in hypotenuse
Altitude is vertical
So the side opposite theta in your diagram
so sin 25 = x/y
how do i make an equation out of that tho
everything in your diagram is already speed
hm so what do i do
Use trig to find the missing side
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What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
@green rover Has your question been resolved?
Lol
DC
SOMEONE HELP ME
Ok, with everything?
Do you know what horizontal translation is?
Yes
Give an example of horizontal translation of a function f(x)
No
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In formal logic, How would I prove or disprove
(Ex)[A(x) ^ B(x)] → (Ex)A(x) ^ (Ex)B(x)
???
Please ping btw
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@foggy furnace Has your question been resolved?
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im kinda confused by the last two in this table, if p is false shouldnt q also be false?
@ripe glen Has your question been resolved?
this is talking about the thing where this is how it works
there are 16 "things", operations on two variables
or is one of them, and is one of them
one of 16 is this thing, it exists whether you want it or not, we call it →
there's nothing to be confused about, there's no why
if the kettle is boiling, it has water
boiling → has water
it tells you that one situation is impossible, and nothing else, the other 3 could happen
@ripe glen Has your question been resolved?
So as long as the water is boiling there is water.
And the one F on the p of q is if the water wasn't boiling right?
if there was no water in the boiling kettle
this never happens, so when you say "boiling → has water" is true that's what you're saying
so another way to say p → q is ~(p & ~q)
and another is (~p V q)
Whatabout the last one? Does it just work like multiplying negatives and two make a positive?
it doesn't "work"
it's just a language
p → q
short for "p→q is true"
short for (p and q) or (~p and q) or (~p and ~q)
"i swear it's not the second case"
So p->q is the same as (~p -> ~p)?
(~q → ~p)
no wait
yeah
(~p -> ~p) is not the same, you can't make it false, so it doesn't tell you anything new
(~p -> ~p) is the same as (g V ~g)
Then why does p: F and q:F equal T then?
there are 16 tables you can make
they are saying, this table has a name
we call it →
that's all they are saying
there's no logic underneath
because this table gives you 3 options of what pq could be
it's equivalent to saying "if p then q"
like the kettle example
i guess it's a bad example, because you would never say it in real life
like, you would as a joke, but never to inform someone
"What day is it?"
"If Bob is at home, it's tuesday"
if it happens that bob is at work, and it's wednesday, the statement wasn't a lie
So I follow the truth table, even if it doesn't make sense?