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wahoo
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Is the answer 7/5?
Yep
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iâm not sure how to start this.. i missed a day of lecture and iâm confused. ):
,rotate
well
well, its easy to see that this is the same as (probability it is atleast 7)-(probablity that it is atleast 8)
bc that limits it to exactly 7
try working from there
I think there is an easier way to do that
on the calculator?
yes
||you get it correct 7 times, incorrect once.||
||(0.2)^7 * (0.8) * 8C1 (for the possible orders this may occur)||
I think that works
8C1 is the worlds worst way to write 8
Do not look at this until you have struggled on it a bit
I wrote it like that so you can apply similar logic to other questions
i still donât understand what i should do first..
like if it was 6 correct, 2 incorrect
try working out the probability that you get:
CCCCCCCI
C= correct
I = incorrect
and work from there
since thereâs 8 trials there would be one incorrect?
||consider ICCCCCCC and CICCCCCC and all permutations of this sort||
yes but also notice that ||order matters||
yes
on the bookâs answers page itâs: 0.0000819
ok
i dont really see how that affects the matter
i got that using my method
this chapter is on discrete probability distributions
alr
so wait
we can do this another
way
whats the probabiltiy its atleast 7
isnt this an SAT question? Areyou allowed a calculator? (I dont know myself)
we are allowed to use calcs
this isnt an sat question
oh
thats the scenario
can you guide me through the calc? mine is a ti-84 plus
alright
lets phrase it another way
so
you get 7 questions right
and 1 question wrong
yes
so whats the chance of getting a question right
whats the chance of getting a question right
the answer is small you mean but yeah
1/7 since thereâs 7 trials so 7 correct and 1 incorrect?
i meant the numbers total for the answer but yeah
whats the chance of getting an individual question right
1/7? wait iâm confused
look
each question
imagine theres only 1 question for a second
whats the chance of getting that right
read the question
it says 8 multiple choice questions
read the question carefully
each individual question
1 question
imagine theres 1 question
whats teh chance of getting that right
iâm lost
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why did you close it
found a helpful video
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how is it the case that if it holds for sequences in D, it must hold for sequences in D \ {a} ??
that dont make sense to me
i understand how if it holds in D \ {a} then it must hold in D but how the other way
well it holds for all sequences in D
some of them will be sequences in D\{a}
and so it also holds for these
ohhh im getting it now
it's saying that for all sequences that are in D \ {a}
i was thinking it was saying that all sequences contained in D are also contained in D \ {a}
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have you drawn a diagram yet
Yup
trigonometry might help
do you know your sin, cos, tan?
can you send it?
is that a 9 or an a
A
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why does $\int_a^b\dv{y}{x}\dd{x}\neq\int_a^b\dd{y}$
Jash
I think you can fix it if you integrate from y(a) to y(b) on the right
you do this for separation of variables so it should work
oh ok
ty
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ello can someone help me study for my upcoming test
do you guys do physics?
send a sample question u need help w
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Evaluating a integral from 0 to 2 -10x^3 * sqrt(x^2 + 4) dx. Use trig-substitution
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i am in grade 6 so pleaz dont say this is easy and you should be able to do it
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You're not that far off: what's tan^2 theta + 1?
It's one of those useful trig identities
thats just sec^2 right?
Yeah
So yeah the next step is to factor a 4^(1/2) out
And then you need another trig sub unfortunately: this one uses (sec x)' = sec x tan x
Yep you definitely need to know your trig for these types of problems
oh lord
no??
your final integral is of sin/cos^4
which is a simple u sub
unless I am sorely mistaken
There's more than one way to do the same integral
the way our teacher wants, is to use trig sub not u sub
I mean yes.... but one is drastically easier than the rest
you've already used the trig sub
now it's a question of how to evaluate tan * sec^3
I'm thinking just (2 times) integral of tan theta sec^3 theta
Yeah so write it as (sec theta tan theta) (sec^2 theta)
Well you can just spot what the answer will be probably, but technically it does rely on u-sub
u sub is a lie, it's just a simplification
like, you can u sub anything for any purpose
And sometimes it doesn't work out, I know
regardless i maintain integrating sin/cos^4 is easier than tan * sec^3 (or (tan*sec)(sec^2) )
whether you rely on a u sub to assist you in finding the integral or not
Your teacher probably wants you to use a trig sub, instead of integration by parts
You've already used a trig sub so it doesn't matter now
^ ie you could've done tabular integration no subs at all
so after pulling that four out (multiplying it by the -160) and using the trig identity for tan^2 theta + 1
is where i am looking good, or did I go off the rails?
you messed up
you had sqrt(tan^2+1)
and you turned it directly into sec^2
instead of sqrt(sec^2)
so after taking that square root of sec^2,
you have sec, multiplied by sec^2, which would result in tan^3*sec^3
right?
yup
hint: ||pythagorean theorem, sin^2 = 1-cos^2|| if you can't figure out how to solve from here
@keen snow Has your question been resolved?
still solving
lol fair enough
kinda, forgetting my trig things, tan^3 can be simplified to sin^3/cos^3
then sin^3 can be sin^2 * sin and cos^3 can be cos^2 * cos
from there i can use trig identies to simplify
and sec^3 can be 1/cos^2*cos
you're overcomplicating things but you might know what you're doing lol
I strongly recommend putting it all in terms of sines and cosines
thanks, our calc 2 prof doesnt really teach us
my boy and i have been teaching ourselves
rip
ong
so, i have converted everything in terms of sine and cos, and got (sin^3/cos^3)*(1/cos^3)
lmaoooo
from there, you only need one step to get a simple integral
was going to do that
hint (again): ||p y t h a g o r e a n t h e o r e m||
ngl little confused with what to do with that đ
right now you have sin^3/cos^6 yes?
which is an... unhelpful fraction
however, you can convert a sin^2 into 1-cos^2
split the fraction how?
like, into two fractions
like 1 - cos^2 * sin and 1/cos^6
1/cos^6 and cos^2 sin / cos^6
the first is incorrect, and reduce the second
sin/cos^4
whoops second is also incorrect but now the first should be right
is it a -sin/cos^4?
nope
[\frac{\sin^3\theta}{\cos^6\theta}\to(\sin\theta)\frac{1-\cos^2\theta}{\cos^6\theta}\to\frac{\sin\theta}{\cos^6\theta}+\frac{-\sin\theta}{\cos^4\theta}]
the sin multiplies the whole thing
yeah i just realized that would get us back to where we started....
Astral
we started far left
we sub in 1-cos^2 = sin^2 in the middle
we expand in the right
do you follow?
i follow,
quick question though
where does that 1 go?
seems to just vanish
nvm
i saw that plus sign as an arrow
therefore that on the far right is our answer?
thats what i meant
do you know how to integrate it then?
we are able to integrate by using calculators on our homework,
but as to integrate that thing by hand
not really
P: do a u-sub
i assume u would be sin/cos^6
yes
do we sub u for cos?
yup
now, in our first fraction its sin / cos^6
rn i have it as sin/u^6 which could be turned into sin*u^-6 if i so pleased
the second fraction would be du/u^4 which could be u^(-4)*du
for the first because rn it is sin/u^6 could i add a -1 to the numerator and add the recripical of (-1) outside the integral to account for it?
you forgot to do the du for the first one
what you have right now is
[(\frac{\sin\theta}{\cos^6\theta}+\frac{-\sin\theta}{\cos^4\theta})d\theta\to\frac{\sin\theta}{u^6}d\theta+\frac{du}{u^4}]
Astral
if our u = cos
and du = -sin
doesnt -sin just turn into du?
rather than -du?
also shouldn't theta go to both terms resulting in something like:
,, [(\frac{\sin\theta}{\cos^6\theta}+\frac{-\sin\theta}{\cos^4\theta})d\theta\to\frac{\sin\theta}{u^6}d\theta+\frac{du}{u^4}d\theta]
aleyy
u=cosø
du=-sinødø
right.
actually whoops you are correct
the fact remains you forgot to sub properly for the first term
also, there should not be a dø in the second here
thats what i figured after you sent that correction
but more of how would i right that first term in terms of u sub
if the du is negative sin, how would i go about that?
[(\frac{\sin\theta}{\cos^6\theta}+\frac{-\sin\theta}{\cos^4\theta})d\theta\to\frac{-(-\sin\theta{d\theta})}{u^6}+\frac{(-\sin\theta{d\theta})}{u^4}]
Astral
sorry, keep forgetting that
it's an important detail
otherwise we could say u^2=cos^2=1-sin^2 = 1-du^2
which is a mutilation of mathematics
but adding that negative in there, i would have to multiply a negative one outside the intergral right?
as per here
right, but we multplied a negative one to get that
wouldnt i have to multiply a negative one outside the integral because we did that inside the integral?
i remember my calc 1 prof said that if you multiply a constant in an integral, you must multiply its reciprocal outside the intrgral
right
[\int\frac{\sin\theta}{\cos^6\theta}d\theta+\int\frac{-\sin\theta}{\cos^4\theta}d\theta\to-\int\frac{-\sin\theta}{\cos^6\theta}d\theta+\int\frac{-\sin\theta}{\cos^4\theta}d\theta]
correct
so we can simply do each one individually if it makes things easier for you
in this case though
Astral
if that makes things clearer for you
good good, so long as we are on the same page
so now that i can simply each integral into u and du
yes
plug u back in and evaluate from 0 to 2 i assume?
plug u back in, then plug ø back in
wait, since that negative was infront of that first integral
you started with an integral in terms of x
doesnt that make my first term negative?
yup you forgot all the coefficients too lol
both here and from the original
aleyy
quick question, what coefficients, i only seem to have the -640 that we pulled out from in the beginning
yall gave a 2
yep
so therefore -320 would get multiplied to each term?
giving us (cancelling all of the negatives of course)
,, -320\frac{u^-5}{5}+320\frac{u^-3}{3}
aleyy
Astral
you need to convert back to x from u, which means going from u to theta then theta to x
literally, just replace every (u) with (cosø)
it's that simple P:
we already did the hard part
so now we have
but do i just plug the x's for theta?
[-320|_{x=0}^{x=2}[\frac{1}{5}\sec^5\theta-\frac{1}{3}\sec^3\theta]]
Astral
that is not the sub you made
you said x = 2tanø
however, you can do it differently now
you can say x/2 = tanø
so ø = arctan(x/2)
and evaluate from ø = arctan((x=0)/2) to ø = arctan((x=2)/2)
make sense?
yep
was originally stuck on how you got sec in that equation
it made sense
and then we said that theta is equal to arctan(x/2) after we said that x = 2tanø which was then tanø = x/2
got it, then we just plug in and evaluate at those intevals
then multiply our differences by -320
right?
yup
i got that ø = -14400
?? how
i did -320*[tan^-1(2/2) - tan^-1(0/2)]
you're skipping steps
we have found F(ø), the antiderivative of our integral
we know we have to integrate from x=0 to x=2
x=0, but x=2tanø, so tanø=x/2, so ø = arctan(x/2), so ø(x=0) = arctan(0) = 0, so our first theta is 0 when x=0
what is the second coordinate we integrate to? corresponding to x=2
so doing that arctan(2) is about 63.4349
incorrect
does this sound correct?
let's put it this way
x=2tanø
2=2tanø
what is ø?
you forgot the 2 infront of the tan
aka the /2 on the x
45
kinda messed up so many times, didnt really trust my instinct
also, 2 quick question, what is the exact form?
oh i see, our teacher is fine with inexact form
real quick
my friend wanted to ask
was this a "hard question"
or is this kinda average for calc 2
eh it had a fair number of steps but they forced you to do a trig sub which are always terrible
I have never once needed a trig sub to do an integral
they only make things harder imo
otherwise it was fairly varied, ie the way we solved it required two substitutions and changing the bounds of the integral once
so u sub is usually the play then?
u sub is just a mental shortcut for doing integrals but it is one of the most common methods of solving an integral, yes
so harder than usual
thank you so much
but not as hard as it could be
ie integrals involving partial fractions can get very nasty for the unexperienced
particularly if you layer steps
oh my word
my boy and i are going to need several redbulls right about nowđ
but fr thanks for helping us for like 3 hours man, absolute legend
thanks, from rowan university calc 2 students
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hi! could you please help me with finding why this is true and how to calculate it?
ik you are supposed to calculate the limit with n going to infinity of ln^7(n)/sqrt(base=3)(n) and its supposed to give you 0 for this to be true
but how to calculate this limit?
it's annoying to work with ln(n) so you can try a change of variables that'll cancel it, like n=e^c
it'll turn into c^7/e^(c/3) which is like comparing a polynomial with an exponential, and can be proved with the ratio test or taylor series
alright thank you
i also found on the internet that limits looking like this where the upper side of the fraction is growing very very fast divided by something growing slowly is 0
is this true? does it imply in this case? @slim spire
oh yeah sorry i meant the opposite
yea that's true
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In differential equations, even if I get a constant like "-C", will it always be placed as positive? "+C"
because what I did first was the thing on the left and when comparing with the answer it is something else
this is the problem, when I solved it they gave me logarithms, is there no problem if I work with either of the two? if I use the first one, I get what is on the left, and that is why I came to ask about the constants
@solar mesa Has your question been resolved?
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@solar mesa Has your question been resolved?
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@solar mesa Has your question been resolved?
Yeah that's how it works, but usually you can denote -C as K where C and K are both constants
Both are the same, since ln|1-p| = ln|p-1|, and for the value of log(x), x must be > 0, and that's why there's an absolute bracket there to denote that the value must be positive
It doesn't matter
Choose C < 0 and so -C would be greater than 0
C = -5, --> your expression -(-5) = your expression + 5
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nyes1375
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split fraction
What's that?
$\frac{a+b}{c} = \frac ac + \frac bc$
âιΟΊâĎâ ¤
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dont understand where to start even after looking at mark scheme
what's the mark scheme
^
which part don't you understand
how do i start on the question
the worked solution indicates that
divide both sides of the equation by cos(x)cos(y)
which leads to getting the expressions tan(x) and tan(y)
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is this even doable
Have you tried anything?
did you copy down the question correctly?
The exercise is very straightforward

What are you trying to find?
its strange that they have both a and x present here
The last equation doesnt make too much sense to mw because u can replace immediately with 20
So the system solves by itself but you cant get a single value for everything
is it like simultaneous equations
It is called system of equations
hows that work
So for example y+z = 20
So you can replace that in the last equation
a+20=?
But even with this simplification you cannot get single values for all the five variables
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Hi !
I need some help
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okay
$f\left(x\right)=\frac{x+1}{x-4}$
eclipseryu
eclipseryu
eclipseryu
after three tries i get this
it says the answer is this
i seriously dont understand why
could anyone possibly tell me why this is the case?
im gonna try it a fourth time and see if i can recreate the answer
nevermind
i seriously hate having adhd
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11?
i'm not sure the way you're doing induction is correct or rigorous, that's a bigger thing
for one you're assuming the conclusion during the inductive step
you can assume $2^{k+1} > k^2$ for some $k \geq 3$ holds and you follow it by manipulating the inequality to get $k+2$, so something like $2^{k+2} > k^2 \cdot 2$
jack
you can't simply make the assumption that $2^{k+2} > (k+1)^2$ since this is the very thing you're trying to prove
jack
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how to determine the factor ring $\mathbb{Z}[i] /<1-i>$?
Dubs
@wary yew Has your question been resolved?
please check
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Rombuses perimeter is 40 need to find the acute angles cos if one of the diagnals is 12
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
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Determine the factor ring $\mathbb{R}[x] /<x^2 +2x+1>$
Dubs
my answer: $\mathbb{R}[x] /<1-i> = {ax +b + I : a,b \in \mathbb{R} }$
Dubs
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for this one i do not understand why we are solvving for A
what key word in the probelm tells us we are solving for a
we have to find where the graphs intersect to find the bounds of integration
yes but what key word in the probelm tells us we are solving for a
"enclosed by the graph[s] of..."
well shouldnt we be finding the x and y values of this point instead? to fin the "enclosed by the graph[s] of..." part
a is the value of x at that point
we are finding the value of x where y (the output of both functions) is the same
so it would all be in respect to x
since our limits on teh integral are also X values then
okay
uj
(reposting for reference)
so when teh question says "find the area of the region" it is really saying solve for the upper limit?
those 2 and 2 dont make sense
if you want to use an integral to find the area of the region, then you can't do that until you have limits of integration
but i was thinking we find upper limit yes but then after we find uppper limit then solve fo the area of the region and that is the answer.
in this question i think they just made the upper limit be the answer to the problem
in this question the area coincidentally happens to be a number that is close to the upper limit
according to the solution the upper limit is a = 2.754 whereas the area is 2.784, whcih is close but not the same number
ohhhhhhhh, so they do actually find upper limit then solve fo the area of the region with the upper limit there
guys?
yes
a is the intersection of the two graphs, so you set the two functions equal and solve for x
i think they used a calculator to find an approximate solution
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Hello can you help me to prove it part a i think we can not use archimedean property here can you help me or give me a hint , about part b is it true yn must be converge
you're on the right track for part a, you do need to use archimedean property
@potent nova Has your question been resolved?
How i can prove it?
for every real number (r) we can found a natural (n) s.t n>r
@potent nova Has your question been resolved?
or: for every positive real r you can find a natural number with 1/n < r. that form is often more useful
@potent nova Has your question been resolved?
yes but how can i use this idea to prove the above question ?
x<y means that y-x is positive. motivated by that you might rearrange the inequality you want to show to 1/n+1/m < y-x
we can not use archimidean property here
why not
@potent nova Has your question been resolved?
you will say 1/m < -x ? you can not coz m is integer
-x could be negative so I cant do that
y-x is positive so we know there is a natural k with 1/k < y-x
can you now find natural numbers m,n with 1/n+1/m < 1/k ?
maybe if we take m=n=k , but then ?
is 1/k +1/k < 1/k ?
no i make mistake
n>m>k ?
no thats not enough
then how ?
for simplicity you could assume that n=m
so then 1/n+1/n <1/k
can you solve that for n?
n>2k
can n is not equal to m?
i mean how i can prove if n is not equal to m
you are supposed to show that some n and m exist
you now showed that some n and m exist
so you are done
you are allowed to assume that they might happen to be equal
i got it thanks
can you see part b plz
here
@potent nova Has your question been resolved?
0 is not a natural number where u learn right?
well i mean it is useless too mb
u use infinity ig
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Find the parameter m so that for every x that is a real number the equation is satisfied. Please someone help
okay
so f(x)=mx^2-2(m+2)x+m+1
and, f(x)<0 for all real x
what can you conclude?
@jade hazel
@jade hazel Has your question been resolved?
that m must be less than 0?
I really dont know how to calculate this
(LHS is a quadratic -- in what case is a quadratic always <0, i.e. not touching the x-axis?)
try finding D then
OMG
I am so dumb I was doing that but forgot to add one more m
ok thank you
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Titu's lemma seems natural because of the form but it ain't helping much, simplifying LHS isn't working either, any ideas?
@midnight estuary Has your question been resolved?
Nah, Titu's lemma is the way to go
$\frac{(2(a + b + c) - 3)^2}{a + b + c} \ge a + b + c$
$\implies (2u - 3)^2 \ge u^2$
south
This is true for $u \ge 3$
south
$\frac{a + b + c}{3} \ge (abc)^{1/3} = 1$
south
Yeah lol
Thanks
Np
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I donât understand. Why did they put a negative sign there?
definition of abs value
sqrt(n^2) = |n|
for negative n, that = -n
similarly
sqrt(x^6) = |x^3| = -x^3
for negative x
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why is the centre of the form (-a,-a)
Bc its in the third quadrant
no, why are the abcissa and oordinate the same
touches both axes
Because it touches both axes
so it must be equidistant from both axes
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how do I do this question
I get [(ι^3 + β^3 + γ^3 + δ^3) + (ιβγ)^3 + (βγι)^3 + (γιδ)^3]/[(ιβ)^3+(βγ)^3+(γδ)^3+(δι)^3] - 30(ιβγδ)^3 but everything after that gets too lengthy for me and I screw up everytime
@limpid oxide Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
What does summation sign mean here?
So it's a cyclic sum
Ig you need to expand and apply vieta + identities
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So the question here is to write a statement so that the function f is shown in the graph a and not in graph b, would this be enough?
Also, I intitially wrote this, would this be enough in this case?
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yea that's correct
the second one is the right idea but technically you don't know the units along the x axis so maybe 0.1 is too big
Thanks
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Iâm confused on number 15
Right now I know they both touch at 2pi/3 and 4pi/3
But Iâm not sure how to set up the integral
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I dont understand how to do this question
what have you tried
Do you know what kind of calculations youâre allowed to do in a system of equations ?
@lost birch
hey what's going on
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21
@brisk totem Has your question been resolved?
can you show what you tried
don't really need finite sums
hint: ||split it up into triangles from the centre of the circle||
im supposed to use finite sums
its the lesson
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@brisk totem Has your question been resolved?
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(x/a) + (y/b) = 1
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Hi, not sure what Iâm doing wrong here. Any help would be appreciated
d/dx (a^x) = a^x ln a only works when a is a constant
You need to write $t^{1/t} = e^{(\ln t)(1/t)}$
south
Then you'll see you need the product rule
Ohhh ok ok thank you
So why this works is cause $\frac{d}{dx} e^{(\ln a) x} = e^{(\ln a) x} \ln a$, as the derivative is nice here
Nw
south
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Hi! If i have some function like a 1 sheet hyperboloid given by: 1 = x^2 - y^2 +z^2 . How would I go about finding the vector function that creates the space curve
I was reviewing and I noticed a lot of times they just provided a vector function and just had me parameterize it
but what if we just have the function of a surface, how do we then find the vector function
Well there's more than one way to parameterise it, but using the identity $\cos^2 \theta + \sin^2 \theta$ is probably the easiest
south
So we can let z^2 = cos^2 theta and x^2 - y^2 = sin^2 theta
Now recall sec^2 x - tan^2 x = 1
So one possible parameterisation would be $(x, y, z) = (\sec \phi \sin \theta, \tan \phi \sin \theta, \cos \theta)$
south
@uncut island Has your question been resolved?
why are we using sec^2x-tan2x - 1
i assume thats for z
wouldnt x = sin^2(theta)
@uncut island Do you get this part?
<@&268886789983436800>
no
sin^2(theta) = 1-cos^2(theta)
Yes that is true
If x^2 - y^2 = sin^2 theta and z^2 = cos^2 theta
Then x^2 - y^2 + z^2 = 1
That's why I did that
1 != x^2 ?
I dont see how this works
sin^2 theta + cos^2 theta = 1
yeah
but isnt that x^2 + y^2 = 1
Ah, well here x isn't sin theta
y isn't cos theta
Here, x, y, and z have nothing to do with the unit circle
This is a surface in 3 freaking dimensions
yeah
So x and y absolutely aren't points on the unit circle, which is in 2 dimensions
They're points on the hyperboloid
Once you understand why cos^2 theta + sin^2 theta = 1 for all theta
You don't need the unit circle anymore
You can just use the identity
x and y can be anything, well anything that lies on the hyperboloid
i thought it was because cos^2theta and sin^2theta were lenths of each side of that triangle in purple
It's cause of the Pythagorean theorem
We define cos theta to be the base of the triangle, the x-coordinate
yeah
And we define sin theta to be the height of the triangle, the y-coordinate
thats wat i mean
So since the radius is 1, the hypotenuse is 1
i get that
Okay this doesn't make sense firstly
You can't define x in terms of itself
Yes
so from here where do we get sin^2(theta). = x^2 - y^2
We're just defining x^2 - y^2 to be sin^2 theta
yeah but why and how is that true
x and y in x^2 - y^2 aren't the same x and y in here
So I'm not saying that x = cos(theta) and y = sin(theta)
I'm not talking about the unit circle when I say this
ok I can see that. But i dont see what your doing to make that statement work
OK back to this
Do you get this part?
no i dont get the x^2 - y^2 = sin^2 theta
i dont see how we can just say they arbitrarily = sin^2 theta
how do u know to set that = to sin^2(theta) and not something else
Cause we're using the identity sin^2 theta + cos^2 theta = 1
yeah
And yes this is an arbitrary choice
You could also let z^2 = 1 - a and x^2 - y^2 = a for some number a
But notice how this is very similar to the idea we use behind spherical coordinates
right
Yeah it's the same principle: sin^2 + cos^2 = 1 and use another angle for x^2 + y^2 to be r^2 sin^2 theta
So that z^2 = r^2 cos^2 theta
ok
so when working in 3 dimensions we cant use polar?
because of a 3rd angle
2nd*
so if were to parameterize it in polar coords
x^2-y^2+z^2 = 1 goes to. x^2 = (rsin(theta)cos(phi))^2 , y^2 = -(rsin(theta)sin(phi))^2 , z^2 = (rcos(theta)^2
pretty confident I'm doing something wrong here
Yeah, we need another angle to describe 3 dimensions
For 3 dimensions we need at least 3 pieces of info
(rsin(theta)cos(phi))^2 - (rsin(theta)sin(phi))^2 = 1
Ah cause cos^2 x - sin^2 is not 1
So you can't use cos x and sin x
You need sec^2 x - tan^2 x = 1
Also you don't need r here cause the RHS is just 1
Right hand side
x^2-y^2+z^2 = 1 goes to. x^2 = (sin(theta)cos(phi))^2 , y^2 = (sin(theta)sin(phi))^2 , z^2 = (cos(theta)^2
so is this now parameterized?
There's a problem
The problem is with y
Cause if you square root both sides you will get y = i * plus/minus sin theta sin phi
is it the negative
x^2-y^2+z^2 = 1 goes to. x^2 = (sin(theta)cos(phi))^2 , y^2 = (sin(theta)sin(phi))^2 , z^2 = (cos(theta))^2
Nope, cos(phi)^2 - sin(phi)^2 is not 1
So you won't get x^2 - y^2 = sin^2 theta
This
but sec^2x = 1/cos^2x
i dont see where that is coming from
i understand
where u get the sec^2x from its an identity buti dont get how thats relevent
So if x = cos theta sec phi and y = cos theta tan phi
Then x^2 - y^2 = cos^2 theta sec^2 phi - cos^2 theta tan^2 phi
= cos^2 theta (sec^2 phi - tan^2 phi)
where are we getting the sec?
= cos^2 theta
isnt is x = sin(theta)cos(phi)
It's not cos phi
We could have sin theta or cos theta
But we must have sec phi to use the identity sec^2 phi - tan^2 phi = 1
im lost. the spherical conversion says x = sin(theta)*cos(phi)
THE SPHERICAL CONVERSION DOESN'T WORK FOR EVERYTHING
The spherical conversion was just an example
It uses the same ideas but it's definitely not the same
No
gotcha
oobh
i think i see it
nvm
like i can see how sec*2 phi - tan^2phi = 1 and x^2 = sec^2phi and y^2 = tan^2(phi)
1-x^2+y^2 = z^2
not sure what do with z
z^2 = 1 - sec^2 (phi) - tan^2phi(phi)
but that just z = 0
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The mark scheme totally ignored any change in the i direction even though there is a change present
Why?
