#help-33
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Yeah
c'est l'ensemble de départ pas forcément l'ensemble de définition
c'est mon problème
Can you translate it?
g is the partial derivative
.
let f be a partially differentiable function such that forall (x,y) dfx >0 and let X= .... , so X_ =.......
do they ask you to prove this fact about the closure?
or are we missing something?
closure= adhérence
f est continue?
bah non
prend plein de fonction C1 sur R aleatoirement
et fait un millefeuille dnas la deuxieme dimension
sur chaque ligne on peut deriver selon x
dans ce cas là non f n'est pas nécessairement continue
genre si y est rationnel f(x,y) =cos(x)
sinon f(x,y)= sin(x)
donc ton argument de la boule ne tient pas
apres j'ai pas pris des fonctions decroissantes mais t'as compris
tu fabriques un contre exemple?
non je voulais montrer que c'était vrai
je croyais que tu avais capté avec ce que j'avais dit au vu de ta reponse
en gros crée une discontinuité sur un ouvert selon y
genre si y>0 une certaine fonction
si y<=0 une autre fonction
et la dérivée par rapport à x doit être négative stric.
You have to prove that for the point (x,y) in R2 such that f(x, y)=0 every ball centred in (x, y) intersects X
Because for every set A we know that A is conatined in his closure
it may be false
Contained*
think about this
But I thought it was correct
and now look at the bit of line between (0,0) and (1,0)
all points on the line have y=0
so the function is -x+1
so the result is > 0 on that bit of line
so its outside the "definition" of the closure
bur those points are inside the closure of x
because any ball around those point intersect with points with y >0
and thus with f<0
(tu peux le faire en français aussi stp)
en gros etudie la fonction que j'ai donné
et nottament les points sur le segment
ouvert
entre (0,0) et (1,0)
prouve que ces points sont dans l'adherence de X
on est d'accord que je dois trouver un point adhérent tel que f(x,y)>0. ?
donc la fonction c ca
en fonction de x alors
hein?
bah c'est deux points du plan ca fait bien un segment
le segment il est sur l'axe x oui
si c'est ce que tu veux dire
en gros ta preuve aurait marche avec l'hypothese x continue je pense mais la ca permet de fabriquer des bizarreries
c'est ce que je voulais dire
what you are trying to prove implies that you suppose f continuous
you prove that{x,y| f(x,y)=0} included in the closure
partially differzntiable
each slice along x is differentiable
but that doesnt tell anything about the y direction
Yeah yeah, I meant the phi function is derivable
as i said this fullfills the partially differentiable wrt x: f(x,y)= cos(x) if y is rationnal and f(x,y)= sin(x) if not
anyways your proof is probably good but it doesnt prove whats asked
Oh I see I should have added that the points (x, y) such that f(x,y) >0 cannot stay in the closure
like in the counter example i gave, there are points inside the closure but with f(x,y)>0
yes
il faut que je trouve une suite Xn et une autre Yn telle que f(Xn,Yn)<0 et telle que Xn->1/2 (par exemple) et Yn->0
déjà pour Yn je peux prendre la suite constante nulle
pas besoin de suite, parle des boules autour des points
pour montrer qu'il sont dans l'adherence
donc la boule B( (1/2,0), r) inter X n'est pas vide ?
c'est le plus simple pour montrer qu'on est dans l'adherence en general
dans cette boule il y a (1/2,-r)
oui voila
enfin -r moins un epsilon
enfin +r/2
oiui
enfin ca depend de quel coté t'as mis les truc
mais attention faut que le coté "ouvert" ce soit le coté negatif
et f(1/2,0) = 1/2
en gros si tu met les bonnes inegalites stricte ou pas dans ta definition ca marche
donc ce point est adhérent et pourtant l'image par f est positive
e comprends
je crois que c'est bon
merci beaucoup mec sérieux
j'aurais galéré pendant longtemps encore
en gros la lecon a retenir: derivable partiellement ca veut pas di tout dire continu
il faut imaginer le cas le plus bizarre possible dans ce genre de questions
pour voir si ca va etre vrai
yes
t'aurais aussi pu prendre un truc du genre e(x) et -e(x) pour les fonctions pour avoir carrement que l'ensemble proposé soit egal a x
et soit un ouvert
et donc peu de chance d'etre une adherence
t'es en quoi en maths ?
et en fait la preuve serait encore plus rapide
je veux dire en niveau d'étude
puisque f est jamais egal a zero
ok
donc l'egalite avec x est simple
en fait e(x) marche pas
mais un truc avec arctan décalé
et retourner
puisuqe e(x) c'est croissant
je suis ingenieur la
ptet une these en informatique theorique bientot
mais pas sur
t'as un master en maths ?
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Need help with 179 @rugged sierra If your not tired do you mind helping me with one more problem
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<@&286206848099549185>
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Same answer. Best of luck.
Yea i dont get your answer
I tried I can’t get it right
Can you write it on paper and show me?
How it would be
@tiny crown
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$LHS = \sqrt \frac{4+\sqrt(16-x)}{2} + \sqrt \frac{4-\sqrt(16-x)}{2}$
G. Spark
$LHS^2 = \frac{4+\sqrt(16-x)}{2} + \frac{4-\sqrt(16-x)}{2} + 2\sqrt\frac{4+\sqrt(16-x)}{2} \sqrt \frac{4-\sqrt(16-x)}{2}$
G. Spark
$LHS^2 = \frac{4+\sqrt(16-x)}{2} + \frac{4-\sqrt(16-x)}{2} + 2\sqrt{\frac{4+\sqrt(16-x)}{2} \frac{4-\sqrt(16-x)}{2}}$
G. Spark
$LHS = \frac{4}{2} + 2\sqrt{\frac{4^2-(16-x)}{2}}$
And so on... did I go wrong?
$LHS = \frac{8}{2} + 2\sqrt{\frac{4^2-(16-x)}{2}}$
That structure like (a-b) and (a-b) seems always to work out well when squared.
$LHS^2 = \frac{8}{2} + 2\sqrt{\frac{4^2-(16-x)}{2}}$
G. Spark
Any help? Maybe you can do the rest?
I suspect the probglem is cunningly crafted to make it work out ok.
But, check whether I goofed up, on the part I tried to illustrate witj.
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is anyone able to give me the answer I already tried getting help but couldnt figure it out
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The midline is the horizontal centre line about which the function oscillates above and below. The midline is parallel to the 𝑥-axis. And the midline is affected by vertical translations.
Does that mean it's 5
Cuz like the midline would normally be like y=0
But it's like higher by 5 fr
Omg I got it right
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Have you found the equation to the graph?
Did you guess?
Nar, you are right. Maximum value - amplitude = mid value
This is 3.5 right
Bro skipped all my deductive reasoning 😭 😔
Yep
No luck involved.
Help
Ok, so the x-axis this time
Still easy
In phase terms, how far apart are the max & min points?
Idk wat phase terms means
Or - What's a "period"?
10.6
Was meaning in words.
Like how far it goes until it like
Repeats
The cycle
Yes, in terms of maxes and miniums
or minima for purists
"repeats" huh? So returns to the same value?
Yep, so from a maximum - to the next maximum. repeats.
or minimum to the next mimimum
So they told you haw far from a max to a min.
How far (on the x-axis) from the max to the mimimum?
4π each period
Yep
cuz 2π each min to max
Too fast for me.
In terms of x
G. Spark
All good
so pick two, maybe x = 0 and then when the argument is 2pi bigger
Wahr
5 pi (x+period) = 5 pi (x)+ 2pi
5 pi (period) = 2 pi
period = 2/5 - heh, you are right again.
Ez
Tallent
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If anyone can read what I did, could you try to see where I messed up?
I think you made a sign error when factoring out the negative in the last line
the sign error is here
should've been $-\left(\frac{4x^{3}y^{7}+3x^{2}}{3y^{2}+7x^{4}y^{6}}\right)$
Combustion
Ohh I see thanks
This is the right answer though so I’m still doing something wrong but idk what
it's the same as this
factor out x^2 from the numerator
then factor out y^2 from the denominator
I’m not sure how to get the y^5 though
y^7 after factoring out y^2 becomes y^5
Sorry I’m a little confused doesn’t the 3 have to have y as well to factor out the y?
On the numerator
Aight thanks for the help
I hate these questions they’re always so long
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@blazing sorrel Has your question been resolved?
There will be infinite solutions
Because linear systems with more variables than equations
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How can the uniqueness of the solution f(x) = 1 - x be proven? I observed that f(x) = f(x + 1) + 1 numerically during my experimentation, but I couldn’t prove it using the conditions in the question. I’m guessing that if I could prove this, that would in turn prove that f(x) = 1 - x is the only solution, but I’m not sure. I saw induction being suggested online for such a problem, but I can’t really understand how that would prove uniqueness. Thanks in advance! :)
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what type of polynomial is 4a^2y and -x^3y^2 = 4x?
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
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can anyone check my answers real quick
@void dagger Has your question been resolved?
they look correct
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do you need to apply product rule aswell after chain rule?
bro got that PHD math
what u have is perfectly fine
so no, no chain rule. you are done differentiating
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i ahve a question
am i correct
seems so
good!
lol where si the graph
?

if blue is the graph then how?
Is the graph the blue?
Then no?
i presumed it was the black line going across
Do you know the vertical line test
the axis?
oh if blue is the axis then yeah i was wrong.
how did you define a function in class
Blue isn’t the axis
cuz that's x = 5
That’s not a function just because you can graph it as an equation
Functions have 1 output for every 1 input
Input x=5 to this
Solve for X
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yea for every 5 you get x 👍🏻
i haft to be right on this right?
What???
just joking
f({5}) = R moment
im confused on this one. is it c? if not then im clueless
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need help
hello

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i got ||f(n)=1 + n^2 - n(n-1)/2 using eulers characteristic and also i got f(n)=f(n-1) + n from logic||
for the proof bit im not completely sure how to approach it
second statement is probably easier to prove, when you add a line, notice it crosses exactly n - 1 old lines, which means n regions, and all of them get split into 2 parts
well, you can deduce a formula from the recursion, it should be the first one if that method was correct
best way is probably giving a formula and then using induction to prove it, with the above being the induction step
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I'm somehow doing this wrong and I'm not sure. Can someone tell me.
I'm trying to find magnitude of the force on the 1nC charge
So what I did was first rotate this figure so the 1nC will be on the bottom right
Then i drew the forces, so for Force of 1 and -2, it will go to the right on the x axis because its attracted towards the positive
for force of 1 and 2, it will be repelled towards the southeast
So then i did my calculations, for force of 1 and -2, I got 1.8*10^-4 towards the right
for foce of 1 and 2, i got 1.8*10^-4 towards south east
Do components, 1.8*10^-4 x cos60 is 9x10^-5
1.8x10^-4 x sin60 is 1.56x10^-4
Since both the x components go to the right, i simply add them and get 2.7x10^-4
I do pythagorean theorem, so square the compoennts, and find the root, and I get 3.12x10^-4
but this is wrong apparently?
@sharp wing
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S is clearly a subset of Rn and f is >=0 and integrable on every compact subset of S, so I think this rewrite into an improper integral is fine, but I was wondering if I was applying this theorem correctly at that step?
Another point of contention for me was if I was applying Arzela's DCT properly.
@stark trail Has your question been resolved?
Your writing looks a bit off to me, but I'm a bit too rusty to really comment on this
The obvious problem you have is that you are taking the limit as C approaches 1 from both sides, but you don't have convergence from the right.
The way I would set this up is to use Arzela's on the Geometric series to rewrite the integral as $\lim_{c\rightarrow 1^{-}}\sum_{n=0}^\infty}\int_0^c \int_0^c (xy)^n dydx$ and then just do the calculation.
JessicaK
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The cheeky way to solve the problem is to just directly use basic calculus to show that the integral equals \zeta(2)
we're told to solve it in this way
also we don't need both integrals going to C
just 1
because at x=1 it is still defined
unless x=y=1
so it is only the second integral that needs to have C on top
and then I did this, right?
I'm just telling you what I would do. I think it's easier to just cap them both off at c < 1 than to have to worry about the technicalities.
What is different between what I did and what you're suggesting, besides the extra C
I'm not seeing it
Well, like I already said, the big thing is I am taking a left handed limit, the rest is just a cleaner presentation
Ah okay
so just fixing it into a left handed limit
Did it seem like, if it were a left handed limit instead, that I applied Arzela's properly to rewrite the sum outside of the integral?
Well, I thought you needed the geometric series to be uniformly bounded too but it seems fine to me. It's been a while though
Yes, a uniformly bounded sequence of functions which converges pointwise
Sure, but you didn't say that.
That's probably fine, it just doesn't appear where I was expecting it to
On an unrelated note, what exactly is your degree you are studying? I'm confused because you seem to jump back and forth between asking first year problems and 3rd/4th year problems.
Math
Do I do that?
I am taking 2 math classes and one is more basic it is called "Art of Problem Solving" so it is like a proofs & tricky questions class but nothing super involved. This class however is Honors Accelerated Advanced calc so it should hopefuly be more than 1st year questions
Oh okay
Yeah
I've already done the basic calculus sequence
Anyways TY for your help
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you're choosing for (0,3) to be on the the curve, but this is not necessarily the case
I'm not?
maybe i'm just misreading
but the 'x' in point slope is different then 'x' of tangent/derivative
i think you are overthinking this
you know the equation of the tangent line
yeah
yes
but I'm just failing to derive a relation to find c
so you could set it equal to the curve...and this would give you where it 'touiches' the curve
hmmm after that?
and you have that expression for the derivative and relating c...
ok let me try
hmm...
ok
ok i thought i was going insane for a sec but ye my approach works
i solved it
:)
yes
look at c/x+1
ohhh yeah not defined at -1 oops
so it eliminates one one of them
now you can plug in x=1 into the line
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yep yep
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Let V be an inner product space over R with orthonormal basis B = {v1, ..., vn} and let f: V->R be a linear transformation. Show that there is a unique vector w which is an element of V such that f(v) = <v,w>. Hint: Consider the vector Sum(f(vi)vi)
I'm trying to prove existence by working with the formula, but can't figure out from there.
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i have a question with double improper integral
i was asked to find $$\int_1^{\infty} \int_0^{\ln{x^2+x+1}} e^{-(|x|-|y|)} dy dx$$
omgatriple
well to find whether it's divergent or convergent
i drew the graph of what it looks like, don't mind the weird bit before the green line
but basically, y is bounded by f(x) where f is an increasing function
and x is unbounded
so i thought that it would be divergent, and i immediately tried to shorten the bound and simplify the question to get a smaller integral
but the answer key just started off with, we know this integral is convergent and we will do this via...
like how are u just supposed to have an intuition with this stuff? i'm actually so lost with it, not to mention i spent like 45 minutes on my divergent path, just to find out i lost the coin toss at the beginning
how do u know if ur wrong and there's a way or if there is no way
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wait no but i was gonna ask another question
enter .reopen please
.reopen
✅
thank you
what's your question
meanwhile I'm writing out some of my work here
I managed to deal with the inside integral as follows
\begin{align*}
\int_1^{\infty} \int_0^{\ln{x^2+x+1}} e^{-(|x|-|y|)} dy dx &= \int_1^{\infty} \int_0^{\ln{x^2+x+1}} e^{-(|x|-y)} dy dx\
&= \int_1^{\infty} \int_0^{\ln{x^2+x+1}} e^{-|x|+y} dy dx\
&= \int_1^{\infty} [e^{-|x|+y}]_0^{\ln{x^2+x+1}} dx\
&= \int_1^{\infty} [e^{\ln{x^2+x+1} - |x|}-e^{-|x|}] dx\
&= \int_1^{\infty} [x^2e^{x+1 - |x|}-e^{-|x|}] dx
\end{align*}
_Kookie
now the inside is clearly increasing
therefore the integral will go to infinity
@vernal basin
hmmm but the integral is conergent
cuz u can do $e^{-x} e^y$ and then remove the $e^{-x}$ term from the inner integral and just do an integral $\int_0^{\ln(x^2+x+1)} e^y dy$
omgatriple
like i'm just wonedring how u get the intuition whether an improper integral is convergent or divergent
e^{-|x|} obviously goes to zero as x -> infinity
but
$x^2e^{x + 1 - |x|} = x^2e^1 \to \infty$ as $x \to \infty$
_Kookie
_Kookie
not $\ln(x^2) + x + 1$?
_Kookie
in that case, this changes everything
I was going by your original image here
the integral does converge now
because the double integral reduces to $$\int_1^\infty e^{-|x|}(x^2 + x) dx$$
_Kookie
exponential with negative power will converge to zero faster than any increasing polynomial
furthermore, you can easily integrate this using integration by parts
so you'll have a definitive answer for this too that isn't infinity
sorry i mistyped
no you're alright
but how would i, at the start when i just see the question, make a guess on which way to proceed in
i did understand eventually how it worked, but i just wasted a lot of time trying to show it's divergent since that's what it seemed like
Honestly, if I were you, and I saw this at a glance, I would have no idea if it was convergent or divergent.
if I was forced to evaluate this integral myself
I would do it normally
start from the inside
work my way to the outside
it was only after evaluating the inside integral to arrive at this
when I was able to tell if it was a convergent or divergent integral
If I was told to guess right off the bat without showing any working I'd evaluate the inside integral in my head
that's how unsure I was at the beginning
i see, i will try to kepe that in mind
improper integrals actually make me wanna die
but thank you for your help
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Having some trouble with this problem, its regarding Bayes Law/Theorem and Conditional Probability
The solution to 2 for P(A) is 0.58
I tried both the Tree Diagram and Bayes' Theorem methods, but I'm just getting stuck/confused
This is Bayes' Theorem/Law, which states its all good results occurring over all possible results that could occur
In this instance, the good event is B occurring given A, and all the events that could occur are the events that can occur for A
I guess what confuses me is, how do I actually do this in practical terms?
I've tried laying it out like a tree diagram, but I feel like I must be doing it wrong
I set it up similar to this
@frosty geode Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185> So, I found the answer, but in case anyone in the future asks how you would solve a question like this using these formats of probabilities using like P(A), P(A|B), etc. The formula for Bayes' Theorem is:
$\frac{P(A|B)P(B)}{P(A)}$
Huntifer
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@still temple Has your question been resolved?
@still temple Has your question been resolved?
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Need to find the x
it's power of a point or something
i can't really read your handwriting
is that 9 and 47
what is this?
the other ones outside is x
okay so basically 56 * 9 = (x+x+72) * x
from power of point
now you just solve for x
it's a quadratic
,w 9 * 56 = x(x+(x+72))
is the right answer really 84?
yup
47 + 9 = 56
oh yea
x+ (x+72) = 2x + 72
yup 6 is correct
can you tell me the formula you used
I just did
Look at this
and this
yea i askd the question badly
CB = 9
CA = 9 + 47 = 56
CD = x
CE = x + x + 72 = 2x + 72
which is how i got: (56)(9) = (x)(2x+72)
then you solve the quadratic and discard the negative solution

if that line passes through the center of the circle/triangle
then that line is a bisector
so you have that the line is perpendicular to the side with length 18
and you can use angle bisector theorem i guess
so 10/8 eaquels what?
use pythag to find the outer edges
you have the outer edge of the triangle with 10 and 5x as side lengths:
,, \sqrt{10^2 + (5x)^2}
kanna
the outer edge of the triangle with 8 and 5x as side lengths would similarly be:
,, \sqrt{8^2 + (5x)^2}
kanna
now it's just applying the ratio of the angle bisector theorem and solving algebraically
so i solve thees first right
what's there to solve right now
this
nothing to solve there
,, \frac{8}{\sqrt{8^2 + 25x^2}} = \frac{10}{\sqrt{10^2 + 25x^2}}
kanna
now you can solve i guess
why do i need the sqrt tho?
kanna
oh ok
anybody i have to go
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I need help solving this
I did this and got 17/55 and then arccos it but im getting a small decimal?
what did you get
i did this and got ~72 degrees
one sec
cant wait for your answer to be in radians
1.256?
,w 1.256 radians to degrees
that is correct
So I might just have the wrong mode on?
Well that explains the confusion
yeah convert to degrees when needed
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<@&286206848099549185>
@lofty fulcrum Has your question been resolved?
well you are right
4pi would make it 0
4pi > 9
but
that problem doesn't seem that much trivial
maybe the integral is supposed to be undefined there or something
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why does the sum equal to 1
You can move out the term on the left and notice that the remaining sum is just exp u substituted with u= lampta*e^t
but still, how does that sum to 1
e^(-yt)*e^(yt) = 1
Am I doing smth wrong here?
Are you also in stochastic 1? 🙂
this is intro probability, im taking stochastic processes next sem actually haha
So that's just exp(ye^t-y) which is the same as they got
oh yea thats true
Happens 
yea its this that was throwing me off
Just move the e^(-ye^t) out and the sum just becomes e^(ye^t) and then they cancel
I think you did it indirectly in (basically) the same way
lol
gotcha
thanks error
appreciate the help
You're welcome
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So I have come up w the ceiling for the question being ⌈8/4⌉ = 2 and using the pigeonhole principle i concluded k = 9. Im not sure if my working or my answer is correct
@random sail Has your question been resolved?
yeah I got 9
I'm not quite sure what your logic is but
Does this mean you want me to check your logic?
no i was asking
whats the proper way to do it
without like cheeseing it
cause ngl i did the floor of ⌈n/4⌉=2
and thought
hey n = 8
list out all the possible pairs of perfect squares
thus + 1 but im not sure if that makes snese
so we have numbers that aren't in any pair: 5, 6, 7, 10, 11
then we have numbers that are in one pair: 2,3,8,12
then we have numbers that are in 2 or more pairs: 1,4,9
see if you can figure out what to do from here
don't be sorry
as long as you're making a genuine attempt
usually the conversation is productive
it's only when you respond with only "idk" that ppl get annoyed
yeah that's what I got
oh its worth noting that the numbers cant repeat in the set
ie 5,5 doesnt count
does that somehow change how we do it?
i mean u did obtain the right amt of pairs so theirs no doubt you probably read the question and j autopilot the restriction
🤷♂️
ok wait i think i got it
so i used the pigeon hole principle
wait
nvm
ok so
i decided to
(|S-(A1∨A2∨A3∨...)| +3) + 1
(5+3)+1
I did it a bit more caveman style
clearly you need 5, 6, 7, 10, 11
then putting the numbers in one pair
and then put it one element that's in 2 or more pairs
done
you kinda need to put them there as placeholders
for lack of a better phrasing
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why does the answer use integration by parts?
i subbed u for 2y and then just solved tan^-1 x = 1/(x^2 +1)
Ye that is fine too
but theres no way im getting an answer that has pi and 2ln here
That's the derivative
Lol
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Is there a formula for the number of unique rationals that you can make only use integers from 1 to x
depends what you mean by "make"
...and "numbers from 1 to x", whether that's integers or rationals or reals or whatever will affect the answer
I was thinking integers
Like in form p/q where p and q are only integers from 1 to x
@pastel storm Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
Any open interval of the reals has countably infinite rationals
That is not the question I asked
Oh I see what you meant now. There would be
$1 + 2\sum_{k =2}^x \phi(k)$
chencking
Every coprime pair (m, n) corresponds to m/n and n/m unless m = n = 1.
(Here, $\phi$ is the Euler totient function)
chencking
Won't help with what? Are you trying to solvve a problem?
I was trying to find how many rational numbers there are (yes I know people say there are aleph null but that's not what I'm doing)
i feel like any way you do that is just going to be really arbitrary because of the reasons why actual infinite cardinals act so differently to finite cardinals...?
like why are you saying there are 2*inf-1 integers and not 2*inf+1, or inf because we enumerate them as 0, 1, -1, 2, -2, 3, -3, ...
2*inf-1 integers because for every natural there is a unique corresponding negative except for one case (which is 0)
if "inf/2" is meant to mean something different than "inf" then you have to either totally abandon anything resembling identity of indiscernibles, or say that the same set contains different numbers of things depending on what structure you put on it, and both of those are weird
Is this a homework problem? The question doesn't really make sense. You seem to be taking the argument for sets being countably infinite and restricting to finite subsets to get some type of cardinality measure (which is not really mathematically sound but setting that aside).
The problem is the enumeration for the rationals isn't natural the way the enumeration for the naturals and integers are.
Two times infinity is still infinity.
that is not true in all systems
in the first case, there are multiple distinct sets with different numbers of things that as far as i'm concerned are all "the set of integers", they are isomorphic rings
in the second case, it doesn't mean anything to ask "how many even natural numbers are there" without specifying what operations you're putting on the set of even natural numbers - addition? multiplication? comparison?
I have no idea what you mean by either but the second case seems way more wrong then the first
Like what? I am not aware of any system where two times infinity is finite.
no one said it was finite
ok so if we take the set of natural numbers, and declare that even numbers are "positive" and odd numbers are "negative", and give it new + and * operations that act exactly the same as + and * of integers
this set still has only "infinity" elements and not "2 * infinity - 1", but it acts exactly the same as the "actual" integers in every way that actually matters
well in that case, how do you know that this isn't how the set of integers is actually constructed?
maybe the "real" integers are this construction and there really are only "infinity" of them
because all naturals are integers but there is at least one integer that is not a naturals
-1 is not a natural
what are you talking about
the natural number "1" and the integer "1" aren't the same object
Anyway, the infinities there are why this doesn't make sense. You can't directly count infinities like that. It simply doesn't make sense.
For the relations you are getting at to make sense, you would need to restrict to elements in a set with finitely many integers. That would allow you to express the relations you are getting at.
However, then you run into what I said earlier - every open interval has infinitely many rationals.
there is a map from the natural numbers to the integers that sends the natural number "1" to the integer "1", and the natural number "2" to the integer "2", and so on
there is also a map from the natural numbers to the integers that sends the natural number "1" to the integer "-1", and the natural number "2" to the integer "-2", and so on
there's no reason to assume that one of these sends each natural number to itself and the other one doesn't
maybe neither of them do and in fact no integer is a natural number
Are you saying that the natural number 1 doesn't equal the integer 1
yes
because that would be a silly take
He's pointing out they are different groups, and a map between the groups does not necessarily preserve the embedding into the reals.
You are implicitly looking at enumerations which drop any natural structure your group had.
there's also a 2x2 matrix that you could reasonably call "1"
the more common notation for it is $\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \ 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix}$
bee [it/its]
do you think that is equal to the integer 1?
I have no idea
so you're confident that the integer 1 is equal to the natural number 1, but don't know if the integer 1 is equal to the matrix 1
what's different in this case?
hi
That I don't know enough about matrices to form an opinion
and that matrices are probably not numbers
what's a "number"?
I will not answer that
because that will bring us on another tangent that dosn't answer my question
...ok let's just look more directly at this question then
however I can show you this image I made about that
ok so here's a question
...nevermind i don't have a question apparently, i'm going to think more and then hopefully i will have one
bruh
ok wait just to check the notation convention we're using
is 0 a natural number or not
yea it is
ok so here's a question
if i take a set of things, and replace each of them with one other thing, is it possible that i end up with more total things than i started with
I would think not
so if i take the set of even numbers
