#help-28
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Need help with linear equations
@uncut marlin Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185> can anyone help me
YE
mgm
mhm
how do you solve this
i made the right fraction postive because it had two negatives
so it would be -5/8 + 1/6
@uncut marlin Has your question been resolved?
@floral scrollcan someone just guide through this whole thing
Find a common denominator
alredy did
So what are you stuck on
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f(1,1,1,1)=0
f(3,1,2,2) = (1,5,1,0)
f(0,0,1,0)=(1,1,1,1)
f(0,0,0,1)=(1,5,1,0)
,w det {{1,1,1,1},{3,1,2,2},{0,0,1,0},{0,0,0,1}}
,w rank {{1,1,1,1},{1,5,1,0},{3,1,2,2}}
.solved
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can someone show me how they'd draw the rectangles for part a)
The red rectangles are the lower ones
The green ones are the upper ones
You can distinguish the upper and the lower based on their position with the graph of your function
hmm
Although I wonder what people would think is the right one when the function is decreasing ...
Here, I think the exercise has been loose on the terms, in a way that they've let themwelves write "lower" because the top of the rectangles are just below the curve, and "upper" because the top of the rectangles are above the curve
hm
i see
in question b
it says
of equal width
but isn't it already supposed to be of equal width?
no like in part a
yes but it doesn't specifically mention that in part a
but it then says "equal width" in part b
Yeah probably forgot about it
k
Or else there would be different possible bounds than the ones asked to find
For that area
how would you answer this
Look at how the area of the rectangles bound the value of your integral
yeah they get closer
but I need to give a specific quantitative value
but idk how they get this
Yeah I don't know either without actually knowing the theory around integration
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Please help, what is the value of the yellow shaded area? Is it twice as large as angle A (x1 + x2) or x2?
Here we have a triangle ABC inscribed in a circle, and ABEC is a quadrilateral. x1 = x2 and y2 = y1, because AE is the bisector. Triangles ABE and ACE are similar.
Now, I want to examine quadrilateral OBED and prove that a circle can be circumscribed around it. To do this, the sum of angle O and angle E (y2) should equal 180 degrees
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Could someone check my solution to this problem? Everything is in the screenshot. Thanks!
,w solve y''-y' = x e^x
looks right
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Thanks.
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how do u know when to switch the direction of a vector
@ancient folio
how does this one work?
Can someone help me with geometry
make a channel
How
Use triangle
But this time its not right triangle anymore
Kinda
is it not the tail to tip method
my question is why did they make the u vector the opposite direction
I mean when u actually do that math, its the same thing
huh?
U mean it points downward?
look at the bottom
u is pointing down
Well
Its all about the direction that u choose
U can see the problem original coord system
yes
It doesnt provide which direction is positive/negative
Since the arrows are appear on both side
So, it basically tell u that you can choose your own
oh, interesting
In the example, ur teacher choose downward as positive
But u can choose the other side
Usually, the upward is positive
But its just convention/standard
Different countries/region use different standard
But when u convert them into math then consider the dir, u still get the same result
why did they subtract 90 from 180
Look at this triangle
that’s not a 90 degree tho
They're trying to get the green angle
Its 180 - 2 others angle
35 is one of them
The other one is made up of 90 and 15
oh
So its 180 - 35 - (90 + 15)
Well
By the way they writing it
They probably trying to get the angle using something else and not the triangle
oh
if i had to guess it probably this
The total angle of 1 side of a line = 180
The green angle = 180 - 90 - 15 - 35
But its a bit overcomplicated though, u could just use the triangle
could u check if i did this one right when ur available
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can someone explain the last line?
what do you not understand about it
what is it trying to say?
i mean i kind of get what it says i just don't understand how
does it just say that every T in L(V, W) has a unique A = T[B_1, B_2]
@buoyant hinge Has your question been resolved?
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I have a qusetion
Why can't we use Cauchy integrals in the ellipse? Isn't it considered a closed curve?
depends on holomorphicity of the function inside the ellipse
ya abuuudeeeh
One sec I'm sending the image 😅
okeh
,rccw
Here, we cannot say zero because there are no singular points?
Here too cant we just say 0 ?
,rccw
Sorry 🤣
ur aware ur function isnt holomorphic anywhere @void shore ?
how do I know if its or not ? Cauchy-Riemann conditions?
oki 😁
let me know if there is good competitive programming question kekw good luck
its in my uni I have an exam
sheeesh, u been slackin off, whats the other question?
look if ur function isnt holomorphic over the connected region, dont use cauchy-integral ur violating the first condition
sure go ahead
In real analysis, there are constants, meaning a function is differentiable if it is a polynomial or something similar. Are there constants in complex analysis that allow me to immediately conclude that a function is analytic?
I mean holomorphic
Here for example how did we instantly know that the function is holomorphic ?
because the singularities lies inside the contour @void shore
practice alot
bet bet free syria!!
we divided two holomorphic functions by each other, and the singularities lie inside the contour. Therefore, the resulting function is holomorphic everywhere on the contour except at the points where the singularities occur.
got it ❤️
correct
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Quick question is the zero there because of the free variable?
whatever the question is lol
which zero and where
the small green arrow xd
thanks
it just felt wierd to just forward the zero
but i guess its a bit redundant to have a forth matrix that is multiplied by zero?
or is there a more interresting take?
I usually just think of it as any number multiplied by 0 is equal to 0
np!
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variance?
cause range is independent of freq
ping if replied
@prisma cradle Has your question been resolved?
250th? bro what test are you doing
its a question bank
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$X\oplus\ker T = Y\oplus\ker S$
if $\ker S\subseteq\ker T$, does this tell us anything about the relationship between $X$ and $Y$?
Hi, can I ask you guys something?
Did you try something with this?
i'm not sure how should i verify this for now
You can start with applying the definition always. The space is decomposed in two different ways: \ $x + k_T = y + k_S , x \in X, y \in Y, k_T \in ker T, k_S \in ker S$
but it's a direct sum. each vector in V can only be written in one way using x and kT. likewise for y and kS
if kT is in ker(T) but not in ker(S), then x = kS and y = kT
i think?
but the vector only X and kerS share is the zero vector
so in the case of kT in ker(T) but not in ker(S), v must be in Y cap ker T
original problem btw
wait i just had an idea
The forward direction is trivial. Are you stuck with the backward direction?
Construct a linear map E: S(V) -> W as follows ||- For each w in S(V), pick v in V with S(v) = W. Let E(w) = T(v).|| Show that this is well defined and extend it.
@craggy tapir Has your question been resolved?
i was gonna feed you the next part of the proof
you're supposed to define T' : X -> W, T'(x) = T(x), and apply your lemma again to T'
to get X = ker(T') (+) Y and V = ker(S) (+) ker(T') (+) Y
.reopen
then prove that ker(T) = ker(S) (+) ker(T')
no, the forward direction is the highly non-trivial one
what a coincidence, neither am i
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Sv = 0 => Tv = ESv = E(0) = 0?
that's the backwards direction
no
Don't you first show the "if" and then the "only if" ?
that's not what people mean when they say "forward"
nomenclature, alr got it 
A <=> B, A => B is forward
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cool, thank you 👍
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how do i do this
plug y
You can sub the value of y
oh yeah
thanks
wait a seond
ah
wait bro
how do i do this
plug y?
nvm got it
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what does it mean for it to be that
@thorny shuttle Has your question been resolved?
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question : show that if a decreasing sequence converges to zero, it is positive
hey
what would happen if there was a single negative term?
hint: ||all successive terms will be smaller than or equal to that negative number, which in turn is smaller than 0||
thnks bro
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What are some reasons i would get a worse approximation using Gauss hermite integration with more nodes? I have a task given to compute it for 9 given points and weights and 18 nodes and weights. Shouldn't the 18 nodes give a better approximation? I know the integral analytically computes to 1 but for 9 nodes its about 0.95 and for 18 nodes its 0.8 ish. Why is this?
@woven grove Has your question been resolved?
@woven grove Has your question been resolved?
how are you distributing your nodes
definitely runge phenomenon
try using chebyshev nodes
@woven grove
In the mathematical field of numerical analysis, Runge's phenomenon (German: [ˈʁʊŋə]) is a problem of oscillation at the edges of an interval that occurs when using polynomial interpolation with polynomials of high degree over a set of equispaced interpolation points. It was discovered by Carl David Tolmé Runge (1901) when exploring the behavior...
wait
Both nodes and weights are given in a table so i can't choose them
yea
Imma triple check so i didn't miss enter any weight or node to be super super sure
Already did it once
but the weights dont sum to sqrt(pi) which i saw online they should?
They do for the 9 nodes and weights
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well isn't it easier to just divide 29 by 1.4?
which results in 20.71 disc cases could fit in
so basically 20
@frail hound Has your question been resolved?
yes i divided numbers but its bounds
i divided and still didbnt work
lemem put 20
wait i dont got ti open now
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let f : $\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be differentiable twice, bounded form above, and has a global minimum point. prove that there eixsts an x $\in \mathbb{R}$ such that f''(x) = 0
jason2D
I have a problem I need help with
this channel is taken
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go to an empty help channel
@versed lily Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
Ngl, i thought it wanted to show f'(x)=0, and was confused why this problem seemed so trivial
It just got more interesting
interesting isnt the word id use lol
I'm guessing you have learned about mean value theorem. And i am thinking that is what should be used here
i have
What can you say about f' and f" at the global min?
one is 0 one is negative
Negative? You sure?
isnt it?
$f(x)=x^2$ has a global min at $x=0$. What is f''(0)$?
SWR
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I guess, at a global min, it is also possible the f"=0, but then we're done, so let's ignore that case
It is also possible the derivative does not exist at a global min, but the function is twice differentiable, so we can rule that out
yeah
Here's one idea using intermediate value theorem: $f">0$ somewhere. If we can show that $f"<0$ somewhere else, then $f"=0$ follows from IVT
SWR
You can also use MVT if you can find two spots where f' would be equal
Essentially, they're very similar proofs, so take your pic
yeah i thought of that but i coudnt find a point like that
this is where you need to use the upper boundedness of f
what class is this for btw? What level of rigor are they wanting?
im not sure how to use that
that's good, because I can only think of epsilon-delta limit definitions to prove this
we dont know anything about the upper bound
you know it exists
That's good enough
so how can i use that
There are two cases you need to consider
You know f''>0 somewhere. If f''<0, then IVT tells you that there is some f''=0 somewhere. That make sense?
yes
what im doing now is i assumed that there isnt another extrema point and im trying to reacha contradiction
Okay, so now the task is to prove that $f''<0$ somewhere. To do this, we can try to use MVT. If we can find some $x_1, x_2\in\bR$ such that $x_1<x_2$ and $f'(x_2)>f'(x_1)$, then MVT will tell us that $f''(x)$ for some $x\in[x_1, x_2]$
SWR
Oh. There's one other way to find $f''=0$ that I want to touch on, before we move forward
SWR
We know $f'=0$ at the global min. Suppose $f'=0$ somewhere else, then MVT will tell you that there is some $f''=0$ somewhere inbetween. That make sense?
SWR
you mean f'(x2) < f'(x1)
Oh you're right. Typo'd the inequality sign
yes
So, if f'=0 somewhere, we are done. So, now we're left with the final case where f'=0 nowhere else except at the global min
yes
So, in our last case, here are the facts:
- f is twice differentiable everywhere
- f is bounded above
- f has a global minimum
- f''>0 at the global minimum
- f'=0 only for one specific x
And here is what we want to find
- f''<0 somewhere
If we find that, then the rest is ezpz. But finding f''<0 is not so ezpz.
Can you think of some kind of example function that has all of the above facts that I shared? And is there something you can see from that function which helps you see why f'' would be negative somewhere?
a function where f' = 0 only at a single point?
that means the the function would have to be monotone increasing after the min and decreasing before the min
right so i have to reach a contradiction form that
but how
Ask yourself this one question:\
\
What is $\lim_{x\to\pm\infty}f(x)$?
SWR
Anyway, I'll be back in like an hour
this one question should help you a lot I hope
no problem thanks a lot!
0
no
why
if f has one extrema which is a global minimum
and f is bounded
then at +inf f approaches some M, and at -inf too
which means f' approaches 0
sin(x) ?
what about it
well sin does have a global minimum, is bouded, but it's derivative cos has no limits
it has more than 1 extrema
let f : $\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be differentiable twice, bounded form above, and has a global minimum point. prove that there eixsts an x $\in \mathbb{R}$ such that f''(x) = 0
Lebrown
what ?
thats the original question
we split it into 2 cases
one where it has more than 1 extrema point, which means theres differnet point at which f' is 0, so were done
and the other case is where there is 1 extrema point
oh kk
and in this case we need a contradiction
why do you need a contradiction though ? Just need to find two points where f'(x) = f('y)
f(x)=sin(x) does not have a global minimum in the strict sense required by the problem. While sin(x) achieves its minimum value of −1 at infinitely many points, it does not settle into a single global minimum point because it oscillates indefinitely. Thus, f(x)=sin(x) does not satisfy the third assumption of the problem
A global minimum requires the function to achieve its lowest value at a single point (or a finite set of points) in R.
sorry, i was replying to lebrown
okey just follow what SWR suggested
since f as has global minimum at c
then f'(c) = 0
and since its bounded, then f'(x) -> 0 as x-> plus/minus infty
so f grows from 0 at x=c to 0 again as x -> p/m infty
so it has to reach a local maximum/minmum somewhere , call it x0
then by IVT
we get f''(x0) =0
oh my god i completely forgot we have a point where f' is 0
that sounds stupid now that i say it outloud
thanks
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@versed lily @charred raft, the proof is actually a bit more subtle than this. It is not necessarily true the f has a global max. This is why I was asking how formal your proof had to be
f?
✅
in the conditions they said f has global min
,w plot -e^(-x^2)
yeah but the proof doesn't require that
yes, but a global max is not guaranteed
f' is 0 at some point, and it approaches 0
problem is that you were using this idea that there was a global max somewhere
if its constant 0 were done
if its not, then theres a point where f' < 0
because it approaches 0 that means this point is a local min which mean f'' at this point is 0
this function has a point where f'' = 0
so what are u trying to counter here?
It has no global max.
why would that be relevant
Your argument was that it will have a max somewhere, and therefore f''=0 somewhere by ivt
min/max
one of them is guaranteed to exist
doesnt have to be both to make the proof fail, u see what i mean?
this logic doesn't feel rigorous enough
It's not wrong, but the rigor isn't too great
it's why I was asking jason what level of rigor he needed
i never made a proof for someone in this server since i joined
im just sketching ideas
which apparently seems to some degree probabilistically correct to me
the idea is correct. It's a good idea for jason to use. But if I were his grader, I wouldn't give it full points
Not trying to tell you that you are wrong, just that the proof might need more substance
But that's based on what level of proving jason needs
yeah for sure, we are just givin him hints, not spoon feeding him the solution, he has the tools we had given him, he can sketch a proof for himself
@versed lily, if that all feels good to you, and you feel confident to finish the proof from this, then go ahead and close
Yeah, I thought you needed like an epsilon-delta proof 
i do but i know how to continue from here
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im obviously doing something dubiously stupid but i cant see what or why
@ripe stream Has your question been resolved?
@ripe stream Has your question been resolved?
lol practising for STEP?
anyway the answer is you've assumed that there exists some function T such that T(x+y) = t((x+y)/(1-xy))
we don't know if there does exist such a function
(for example, if t(x) = x, then can you find a function F such that F(x+y) = (x+y)/(1-xy))
Yeah….
hmm but the rest of the q hints towards assuming it does though
after a bit of messing around I realised if u sub T(x) = t(tanx) it works tho
well basically we want to massage our condition t(x) + t(y) = t(z) to become what we have before
yeah basically it's you look at x+y/(1-xy) and realise it's the thingy for tan
you get t(x) = karctanx but im still somewhat confused why my initial approach was wrong D:
^
nw!
if u've gotten a cambridge offer then GL for step!
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would the radius be 3 here ?
No, 2
why
is it cause thats the amount of lines it takes to reach each point from the center ?
Think in terms of diameter
still don't get it
3 counting the line in the center if that doesn't count then 2
Do you know what a diameter is ?
The horizontal distance between points (-4,2) and (0,2) is 0-(-4) = 4
And so the radius is 2
why do you have to divide by 2 or something ?
yes
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(k+1)! + (k+1)! * (k+1) = (k+2) * (k+1)! how do I expand this?
or rather simplify it so I can show both sides are equal
I got to this point but can't figure out how to progress further
factor (k+1)! out of the the left hand side
factor out the factorial
(k+1)!(1+(k+1))?
oh that's it
huh
because the k+2 on the right side is * (k+1)!
so they are equal after that step
man the one thing I hate about all my math courses is I never actually get better
I just learn new things
anyways thanks for the help
I got it
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need help solving this cause i don't even know where to begin 😭
i got 70
can you explain how please
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1 sec
so I solved a) and b)
but for c I don't know how I would indicate letters
I know it is m, n, o, p
part of the alphabet
Think about their positioning.
Hmm, well...
^
Yes.
so 13 <= x <= 16
You could have $x\in\text{Position in alphabet}$
but then what about x is an element of alphabet
;(
ah position in alphabet
ok well thanks, but does the other way I gave work?
if I say letter in alphabet
where x is any given letter
just trying to figure out what's acceptable

Well, we need numbers in there somewhat.
Let me think.
I don't know, it feels strange.
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ive got a circle defined by 3 points, a start, middle, and end; and a parametric equation that draws that circle https://www.desmos.com/calculator/z47o7prgup.
you can see in the circle that it starts at a_0 (angle of the start point) and ends at a_2(angle of the end point). the problem is, this isnt always the case. if a_2 is less than a_0, it wont draw. other times (and i cant tell what causes it for the life of me), it draws but the visible section of the circle doesnt intersect the middle point.
im adding 4 pictures, the first 2 are examples of what i want, the last 2 are examples of whats going on that i dont want.
@dreamy spear Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
E<=t<=S+2pi and E<=t<=S define the different sections of the circle at every combination ive tried, so thats helpful. the only hurdle now is writing something that knows which one to choose
Have you tried to sustitute t in your parametrization by t-a_0 and take t in the interval [0,a_2-a_0]?
I have, but i get the same issues
If we consider t = a_2*x + a_0 with x in [0,1] that should fix the problem when a_2<a_0
@dreamy spear Has your question been resolved?
Sorry, I made a mistake take t = (a_2-a_0)/a_0 * x + a_0 and x in [0,a]
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can x have nnegative value..?
They say it converges at x = -3, so yes.
but usually we write it as abs(x) < 3 right
dont we usually take the smaller value in this case so it guarantee converges
Is this supposed to be the ratio test?
i dont think so.?
I think everything except a and d
wait it doesnt make sense abs(x) < -3
so can radius of convergence have a negative value?
!nosols let them work through the problem
As a helper, please do not give out answers that could be copied as a homework solution. Have the student work through the problem themselves and guide them along the way.
sooo..?
In general, there is a limited interval where a power series converges
So you can be suer that $\mathrm S$ converges if $x \in [-3, 4]$
King Leo
oh
thats what it meant
i thought it was saying abs (x) <4 and abs(x) <-3
so anything falling within the domain -3<x<4 are all value that converges?
Should be < but yes
Yes, but
- we generally test the endpoinst individually after that
- its given that the power series converges if
x = -3, 4
oh so its based oon question
okok got it
thank you very much
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Sorry.. Layman.. Might come off as a rube/shitpost but its been bugging me today.. I've always read that "0.9999...=1" without any caveats.. but also that 1/0 is undefined..
But whenever I look at why 0.999..=1 it always seems to based on limits to infinity...
So if I follow that line of reasoning...
0.999999... = lim(n→∞) [1 - 1/n] = 1
0.00000... = lim(n→∞) [1/n] = 0
Which means if you can substitute 0.999.. for 1 (and vice versa), then could you substitute 0 for 0.0000.. and write 1/0 as 1/0.0000.. and now 1/0=∞?
the reason that 1/0 is undefined is because if you take 1/0.0000.. -> +infinity and 1/(-0.0000) -> -infinity, even though in the limit both +0.0000 and -0.0000 are 0
this is just a simplified version of a more rigorous argument but i hope this is understandable
indeed, $\lim_{x\to 0^+} \frac{1}{x} \to +\infty$
artemetra
I read about the issue with the discontinuity.. that it can't work because of it. I just can't tell why following the same line of reasoning that leads to 0.9999.. being valid can also lead to 0.000.. being invalid, particularly since it seems like you need to invoke the 1/inf to be able to do 0.9999..=1
I mean it got a bit more sensible if I limited to 0+
since I guess that solves the discontinuity
mhm
moreover here you are never dividing by zero
yeah thats the point.. I can "pretend" not to divide by zero by dividing by 0.0000...
0.999999 goes to 1 but also 1.000000....1 goes to 1
and if 0.9999..=1 then 0.000..=0
you can go from both sides
but as i say here, you can't go from both sides here
both 0.0000 and -0.0000 go to zero, while 1/0.0000 goes to positive infinity and 1/-0.0000 goes to negative infinity
,calc 1/0.000001
Result:
1e+6
,calc 1/(-0.000001)
Result:
-1e+6
It would suffice to know what the expression 0.999... means, i would consider the limit of something that will look like $x_{i+1} = x_i(10^{-i} + 1)$
Prelude to archbishop
graph of 1/x if that helps
A real sequence defined recursively*
if given initial terms of course,
Preferably can choose a better sequence
i don't see a reason for a recursive definition tbh, isn't it just 1-1/n okay?
I've heard of lower and upper decimal approximations of real numbers
Or that
Whichever sequence works better
But still makes sense*
I think in the proof I saw it expanded out to an infinite series.. but it seems roughly equivalent to do 1-1/n as n approaches infinity..
but the point is that 0.9999... is not the limit of 1-1/n, it stands for a different limit (which also happens to equal 1)
so they arent the same situation
the specific notation 0.9999... means something
so if you want to apply that to the notation 0.0000... you also have to use that same meaning
and 1/n is just something else
In order to properly define decimal approximations of a real number
and while 1/x->infty is true, there are good reasons to let 1/0 not be a thing in the real numbers
It might perhaps suffice to consider irrational real numbers
hm alright thanks - I think the issue is in how I'm formulating 0.9999..?
is that where I'm ending up with the incorrect premise?
eg. the whole limit 0.999 = 1-1/inf isn't a valid representation of the infinite series?
whenever you are writing inf as if it was a real number you are already writing wrong things
yeah sorry, I'm not familiar with latex.. I mean as a limit as n approaches infinity then 1-1/n
while thats not wrong, its more accidental as just both things equal 1. but strictly speaking 0.9999... is a different limit
The limits of two sequences may be equal, but the sequences aren't equivalent to each other
In the sense that there exists an i in N, so that ai != bi, where ai is the i'th term of the (infinite) upper decimal expansion of 1, and bi is 1 - 1/i
the bigger problem is just that you want to replace 1/0 by its limit which just isnt a real number
and then you just run into issues with infinity
a/b = lim a/b_n where b_n -> b is true, unless b=0
or b=infty
in both cases the lhs just isnt defined
for good reasons
(in the real numbers)
hmm okay thanks. I think I need to go learn how convergence and sequences actually work. I think I'm taking way too much liberty and misunderstanding WHY 0.9999..=1
What else would the expression 0.9999.. mean?
It is defined in math as an infinite decimal expansion
well.. the limity thing I had earlier, which converges to 1
well - thanks, I know where I'm messing this up; I think I know what I need to go read more of - I will stop making silly statements
and go read until I get it
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Im not really sure what I did wrong here
First I subbed in e^-3 into f(x) to calculate the y coordinate of the tangent, that gave me -4
Then I got the derivative of f(x), which was 2/x
Then I subbed in y=-4, x=e^-3 and m = 2/x into y=mx+c
the slope $a$ should be $f'(e^{-3})$
south
so that's not correct, this is not the slope of the graph at x = e^(-3)
Ah I see
you carry on from here and then sub in e^(-3) in here
and then you use point-slope form, so you need y when x = e^(-3)
I will 1 moment I will try again to solve it
$y - y_1 = m(x - x_1)$
south
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Can someone help
anyone who can help with a physics problem help 8 pls
partial fractions
@signal creek Has your question been resolved?
Yea
@signal creek Has your question been resolved?
C&rroter
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I dont really get why the integral goes from a to a?
does it have to do that g(x) = integral a to x and g(a) will say g(x) is integral a to a?
cant be that easy right?
it is that easy
It is that easy yes
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@limpid scroll
@limpid scroll bro you are maths genius , please help us we all are noobs
Hi guys?
just ask your question
Ya dude why you pissed of
I'm not
I'm telling you that people aren't helping cause of this
cause there's no question yet
Help me with this
oh, use the symmetry of Pascal's triangle
,w 3r - 1 = 39 - (r^2 - 1), 3r = 39 - r^2
??
hmmm wait
no way we can do that?
basically use the fact that 39 choose k = 39 choose (39 - k)
Ohh I get it now thanks bro
I don't have the right equation but it must be close to this
arghhh
it's okay other people will come given enough time
Nahh your right
is this chemistry problem? how 39 got up there?
yikes
no it's combinatorics
nCr
Algebra
oh thanks I see
What career prospects are there after undergraduate in maths?
search up "maths careers" on Google
Hi! every one can anyone help me to solve this assignment i shall be very greatful to you all for this help. Thanks
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ok i have 2 problems i need help with
probably do row and column manipulations to transform the first matrix into the second
you can use determinant properties
do cross product and then solve
i would probably take the transpose first since the xyz stuff is in col 1 of the first matrix and row 1 of the second, etc
then just do row/col operations until you get the second matrix
If you haven't found yet: first thing you can do is linear operations to to clear out the original matrix (for example factoring columns/rows, adding/subtracting multiples of one row to another...)
then once this is done, see what further operations (switching rows/columns, transpose, etc...) need be done to obtain the matrix you want
ok so
i got to
---|x y-2z z|
18 |r s-2v t|
|u v-2u w|
ok ye
where to go from here
how to remove the -2 things
@tulip badge Has your question been resolved?
@tulip badge Has your question been resolved?
hi zap
today I can't help you, I'm studying for my exam
but use these properties of the determinant (when you do elementary row operations the determinant changes):
row interchange: $R_1 \leftrightarrow R_2 \implies |A| = -|A|$
nico.alesi
row scalar multiplication: $kR_1 \rightarrow R_1 \implies |A| = \frac{1}{k}|A|$
nico.alesi
addition of different rows (and their multiples): $R_1 + kR_2 \rightarrow R_1 \implies |A| = |A|$
nico.alesi
last one basically does nothing
NICO
goodluck man
thanks : )
use these properties and you'll find the answer 100%
i got to this point
hm ok il ltry again
tysm
I can't see what you've done
but quickly looking at the exercise
I would also add
before using elementary row operations
do the transpose of the matrix
$|A| = |A^T|$ so you can do it without affecting the determinant
nico.alesi
i did it
oh ok so just try man
.
.
@tulip badge Has your question been resolved?
(1)תכפיל שורה ראשונה ב1/6
(2)תכפיל עמודה ראשונה ב1/3
(3)תוסיף לשורה ראשונה את -2שורה שנייה
(4)תכפיל עמודה ראשונה ב-1
(5)תכפיל שורה ראשונה ב1
(6)תעשה טרנספוז
תראה בכל שלב מה צריך לשנות ב-180
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tysm
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hello
i have been thinking about this limit for a while
to no success
i will write it down
lim x->0 of (sqrt^4(x+1) - sqrt^3(2x+1))/x
the sqrt^3(2x+1) can be solved easily through adding and subtracting an x for the first and second sqrt
then using the formula sqrt^3(x) - sqrt^3(y) = x-y /sqrt^3(x^2)+sqrt^3(xy)+sqrt^3(y^2)
but sqrt^4 what do i do with that
$\lim_{x\to 0} \left(\frac{\sqrt[4]{x+1} -\sqrt[3]{2x+1}}{x}\right)$
is that the limit?
no
then?
General_Jacob
Again, this is a 0/0 limit
We can say that, if this does have a limit, then by l'Hopital it should be the limit of "the derivative of the numerator over the derivative of the denominator"
In mathematics, the binomial series is a generalization of the polynomial that comes from a binomial formula expression like
(
1
+
x
)
n
{\displaystyle (1+x)^{n}}
for a nonnegative integer
n
...
maybe this can help
ngl I think that's a little overkill
it does not end well..
i tried it
taylor series?
u can't get away of x^2
i dont know that
LHopital?
The binomial approximation is useful for approximately calculating powers of sums of 1 and a small number x. It states that
(
1
+
x
)
α
≈
1
+
α
x
.
{\displaystyle (1+x)^{\a...
that does not end well
$\sqrt[4]{x+1} \approx 1 + \frac{1}{4}x$
General_Jacob
this feels like cheating..
Hows come?
$\sqrt[3]{2x+1} \approx 1 + \frac{2}{3}x$
General_Jacob
differentiate it and you will find out
'still
/x in the denominator
it will end up infinity
$1+\frac{1}{4}x - 1 - \frac{2}{3}x = -\frac{5}{12}x$
General_Jacob
$\frac{-\frac{5}{12}x}{x} = -\frac{5}{12}$
General_Jacob
oh
that's cool but suppose i dont have that
binomial approximation
how do i ddo
it
wait
There's no quotient rule at play
That's quotient rule yeah

