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So in Rogawski 4th edition for multivariable calc it says (paraphrasing right now) that curl is a vector quantity that which has a magnitude equal to the maximum rate of rotation of putting some kind of paddle in a vector field and then the direction is the orientation of the paddle
Doesn't really make sense for this analogy like isn't curl supposed to be related microscopic circulation
I don't really have an intuition of this. Can someone explain?
I'm asking since Green's Theorem is the idea of summing the microscopic circulation in some domain being equal to macroscopic circulation
In other words we use curl to make a line integral in a plane easier to compute as a double integral
@stoic galleon Has your question been resolved?
@stoic galleon Has your question been resolved?
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@stoic galleon Has your question been resolved?
Bruh
screenshot/picture some paragraphs/formulas to give more context
This is it.
Introduction to Green's theorem, based on the intuition of microscopic and macroscopic circulation of a vector field.
This website though here talks about curl as microscopic circulations
Circulation though AFAIK is defined as line integral of some vector field along a curve (most of the time closed)
How is curl related to it when curl is a measure of velocity basically?
It sounds like it makes sense but things just don't fit together for me
@stoic galleon Has your question been resolved?
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@stoic galleon Has your question been resolved?
I am learning this now, also. Check this video, it might help in gaining a conceptual understanding of curl: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=rB83DpBJQsE
Visualizing two core operations in calculus. (Small error correction below)
Help fund future projects: https://www.patreon.com/3blue1brown
An equally valuable form of support is to simply share some of the videos.
Special thanks to these supporters: http://3b1b.co/divcurl-thanks
My work on this topic at Khan Academy: https://www.khanacademy.o...
@stoic galleon Has your question been resolved?
@stoic galleon there is a link in the article that you mentioned to "get intuition".
There are animations and explanations on GeoGebra as well.
I asked ChatGPT for many analogies to these abstract ideas, which seems to be an effective way to to learn.
For example, an atmospheric system, like a tornado can have many smaller circulations in it. All these microscopic circulations make up the overall circulation of the tornado, which is the macroscopic circulation.
There seems to be a difference between "magnitude vector curl(F)(P)" and "magnitude curl(F)(P)". Magnitude vector curl is the velocity of rotation at point P, the speed at which the paddle rotates. Magnitude curl is a scalar quantity, it shows the strength of the rotation of the paddle in point P.
At least this is how I understand it at this point, it might be wrong.
Curl is used in 3D, while Green's Theorem is used in 2D.
So for the 2D plane, only one component of the curl is used, it is isolated with • k. In 2D, circulation can only happen around an axis parallel to z.
<@&286206848099549185>
Curl shows the tendency of rotational motion in a velocity field. It captures the presence and strength of vortices or rotational motions.
What is the difference of circulation and curl?
@lean rock I understand this stuff but if we capture this in terms of physical quantities the "circulation" macroscopically is the vector line integral, which is work (measured in Newtons*Meters). But curl magnutude is not work. Curl's magnitude would represent velocity, so dimensionally we it doesn't connect
So how can we say "sum of microscopic curls" (measured in meters per second) = "sum of microscopic circulations" (measured in Newtons*Meters) = macroscopic circulation (measured in work)
We need a conversion factor between the two and I don't see it there
hi
Someone who speaks Spanish to explain to me the congruence of triangles please?
Bro there's already a question in this one post in help and get your own channel
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how do you do this without graph
Find f(g(x)) and g(f(x)) and make sure they're both x
you can find inverse of f(x) and see if its equal to g(x)
How do you do that
Can u do a example
I'm pretty sure that easier.
alright, i doubt you've learned this yet or not
But do whatever you're comfortable with
i'd do
let y=f(x)
x=f^-1(y)
let x=h(x)
h(y)=f^-1(y)
replacing y by x
h(x)=f^-1(x)
here's an example
f(x)=x-1
let y=x-1
x=y+1
let x=f^-1(y)
f^-1(y)=y+1
replace y by x and there it is
ig i made a mistake
That's a lot of work for just verifying that the functions are inverses of one another
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you would need lambert function to solve e^x * x = -1
No
e^x here is the slope
You need to sub in x = 0
your slope at (0, 1) will be e^0 which is 1
why?
ahh ic
oh
Damn
e^x is derivative, it gives you slope of tangent at point x, so you would have to plug it in
Gimme a min
i see thanks
Intersection points (-1,0) (0,1)?
Aye so distance is 2
Ahem sqrt(2)* my bad
Ok thanks
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is there no variable x?
just unique solution of y=-5, z=10?
or infinite solutions
cuase rank is 2
and theres free variable
@torn bane Has your question been resolved?
is there an original question?
x can be whatever it wants
and it still satisfies the system
so yes, infinitely many solutions
U can also interpret it as the intersection of two planes. It will always result in a line where every point is a solution. As a line is made by an infinite number of points, it has infinite solutions
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(3a-b)^4 pascal triangle
im confused on how the (-)(+) change thru the equation
treat 3a - b as (3a) + (-b)
when you treat the second term as (-b), (-b)^1 will be same as -b
so 108a^3 b will have negative sign
rest of signs is fine
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,w expand (3a-b)^4
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I can deduce the equation of the tangent but I don't know what to do after
The slope of the normal line is -1/3
Meaning f and g both have the tangent with slope of 3 at x = 1
So I can just do f'(1)*g'(1)?
I don't know how to get from this to the slope of tangent of f*g
No, you need to apply the product rule
(f * g)' = f' * g + f * g'
i don't quite understand wdym by common tangent at x=1, does that mean both the curve intersect at x=1 and that tangent has slope 3, or that a random common tangent two the two functions has a slope 3 at x=1?
f'(1) = g'(1) = 3, like I said, so the expression (f * g)'(1) turns into 3(f(1) + g(1))
They intersect at x = 1 and have the same derivative at x = 1
Can't imagine anything beside intersect
Oh now I understand, I thought you had to find f×g(1)
But f(1) = g(1), so this is just 6f(1)
So you have to find (f×g)'(1)
Let us now find f(1)
The tangent line to f at x = 1 is y = -x/3 + 3/2, it must have the same value as f at x = 1
So f(1) = -1/3 + 3/2
7/6 I think
if they intersect at x=1, then x=1 in equation of line will give f(1)
So 6f(1) is just 7
Ye
We are using the same line and the same point so same value for g(1)?
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does 1 represent 360?
What do you mean?
the value of tan =1
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@viral zenith Has your question been resolved?
@viral zenith Has your question been resolved?
Hey, thanks for replying! What does M and N stand for?
So I just need to solve this?
It is not
Hence my confusion
Hmm okay, it is a weird question
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how to do b?
its midnight lol
pst
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Suppose that $A$ and $B$ are sets where $\abs A \le \abs B$ and $\abs B \le A$. This means that there are injections $f: A \longrightarrow B$ and $g: B \longrightarrow A$. To prove this, we must show that there is a bijection $h: A\longrightarrow B$ implying that $\abs A = \abs B$.
\vs{3 mm}
To build $h$, we construct the chain of an element $a \in A$. This chain contains the elements [
a, \map f a, \map g{\map f a}, \map f{\map g{\map f a}}, \map g{\map f{\map g{\map f a}}}, \hdots
]
It also may contain more elements that precede $a$, extending the chain backwards.
\vs{2 mm}
So, if there is a $b\in B$ with $\map g b = a$ then $b$ will be the term of the chain just before $a$. Because $g$ may not be a surjection, there may not be any such $b$, so that $a$ is the first element of the chain. if such a $b$ exists, because $g$ is an injection, it is the unique element of $B$ mapped by $g$ to $a$; we can denote it by $\map {g^{-1}} a$ (This defines $g^{-1}$ as a partial fraction from $B$ to $A$).
\vs{2 mm}
We extend the chain backwards as long as possible in the same way, [
\textxs{adding} \map {f^{-1}}{\map {g^{-1}}a}, \map {g^{-1}}{\map {f^{-1}}{\map {g^{-1}}a}}, \hdots
]
Knowing all of this, how do we verify that $h$ is a bijection?
Is this the exercise?
Yes?
Ok why would you need to show that there is a bijection in the first place
|A| <= |B| and |B| <= |A| can only be true if |A| = |B|
sure but this isnt proving it
also it should depend on the type of chain that u may have, no?
there are 4 types of possible chains
chains that form a loop, that is, carrying them forward from every element in the chain so that it will eventually return to that element (type 1)
chains that go backwards without stopping (type 2)
chains that go backwards and end in the set A (type 3)
chains that go backwards and end in the set B (type 4)
Well if its a bijection any chain can only be of length 2 before looping, as for $a \in A$ $f(a)$ must be in $B$. If h is a bijection $g(f(a))$ must be $a$ again no?
Cyrol
Because if $g(f(a))$ isn't $a$ then there is an Element $x \in B$ for which $\vert g(x) \vert > 1$ meaning $g$ isn't injective and $h$ isn't bijective
Cyrol
At least as far as my understanding of this problem goes
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I'm completely lost on how to solve this problem
I've been thinking about using triangular cross sections to compute the volume of the shape
,rotate
if the left is 0 and the right is $$ \sqrt{\frac{2}{3}} L$$
Brandon H
the area of the triangular cross sections would be $$\frac{1}{2} * \frac{l}{n} * idk$$
Brandon H
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@torn jolt Has your question been resolved?
can you make an integral using these?
yes? but idk how
$$\int_0^{\sqrt{\frac{2}{3}} L} \frac{1}{2} * ? * ? dx $$
Brandon H
@torn jolt Has your question been resolved?
the proof is geometric right
idk
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for part c i got the range as : 0 <= h(X) <= root5/5
Yeah, your answer is correct
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A random sample of 20 college graduates revealed that they worked an average of 4 years on the job before being promoted. The sample standard deviation was 16 month. Calculate the margin of error for confidence interval (Notes: Use 3 digits after decimal point) is 99% confidence interval.
just a question with regards to the formula for margin of error where MOE = critical value * stand dev / sqrt(n)
in this case, would we just do critical value * 16 or * 16/sqrt(20)
and 2nd question, do we change the 16 months to years
<@&286206848099549185>
you can change to years if you want, doesn't seem like they ask for it
and yes, include sqrt(n)
because it's the standard error
and another question to clarify, we use t-distribution since n < 30 right
so if we're given a population standard dev instead of a sample standard dev, does that change things
I think you use the z-score for MOE, but tbh I don't remember for sure
you won't know the population standard deviation
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stuck on 8
!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin
2. I have begun but got stuck midway
3. I got an answer but I'm told it's wrong
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked
5. I have a question about someone else's worked solution
6. None of the above
1 or 2?
1 really, dont see how u can get that area
the pink region is the symmetric difference of two quarter-disks
so if you can get the area of each quarter-disk and their intersection, getting the pink area is not hard from there
hi bonx
hmm
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I tried answering 46) using u-substitution. Why does the solution equate to that? My current answer isn't even close to the solution. Am I missing something? If so, what should I study?
Ps. I substituted a with 5
Can't just let an x out of the integral like that, since the integral depends on x, by depending on u which is x but in disguise
How do i remove the x then?
In order to have a successful u-sub:
It's possible that your choice of sub cannot work
So u substitution doesn't work in this equation?
What are the other options available? Especially in the forms from 45-52?
I wonder if IBP is the right first step, yeah.
Ibp?
Hint: Completing square following by a trig sub
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Help
Could you possibly specify what you want help with?
read
@candid girder Has your question been resolved?
no
@candid girder Has your question been resolved?
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if i have a bilinear function then why f(a+b, c) != f(a,c) + f(b,c)
why i can't use the linearity on the first variable?
who is saying you cant?
chat gpt lol
well there you go, dont listen to chatgpt
you need to provide more context
obviously if you have a bilinear function it is linear in both slots
👏 chatgpt 👏 does 👏 not 👏 do 👏 math 👏
the context is the determinant
ie det(A+B) != det(A) + det(B)
because det is n linear well i don't really get the argument
ok then det(A) = det(a1,...,an)
so det(A+B) = det(a1+b1, ... , an+bn)
can i use the n-linearity here?
sure, but you are going to have a bunch of terms
ah ye it's not det(A) + det(B)
you could also have just proved this with a counter example
its nearly always not true
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ah yes just to be sure
det(a1, ... an) != 0 <=> the column vector a1 .. an are independent
is it really an equivalence?
yeah
always a good exercise to try to find a sketch of the proof again
The invertible matrix theorem is a theorem in linear algebra which gives a series of equivalent conditions for an n×n square matrix A to have an inverse. In particular, A is invertible if and only if any (and hence, all) of the following hold: 1. A is row-equivalent to the n×n identity matrix I_n. 2. A has n pivot positions. 3. The equation A...
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hello
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To calculate a determinant is it right to do that?
That's the first part of it
Gotta do the same for each of the other entries in the first row
when there are it's 0* .... and it simplify it ok
1 det(3x3) - 2 det(3x3) + 3 det (3x3) - 4 det(3x3)
side note: if you get really lucky you might notice that the rows are linearly dependent..
(Row2 - Row1)/4 = (Row2 - Row4)
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help please
So far, I have only found these
the ratio is the same as the height of the small triangle to the height of the big one
youre almost done, use the fact that OD=BO
Oooh i got it
though, i couldn't really understand this part tbh
how are the heights in the same ratio as sides?
try finding FE and AC in terms of the heights
well not in terms of the heights, in terms of x
but youll realize that hte side lenghts are the heights multiplied by sqrt3/2
so the sqrt3/2 cancels when you divide
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I have no idea how to sketch for this question. Sally (S) is standing on Pride Rock (R), 50 m above ground level. She sees her friend Tim (T) standing on the ground, with an angle of depression of 25°. Behind Tim, Sally sees Prue (P), with an angle of depression of 17°.
I think the only thing that can trip you up is "angle of depression"
You'll want to know what that means
@proven magnet Has your question been resolved?
depression angle is like the angle of something looking down on something else
right
Yeah, from the horizontal
If Sally looks horizontally, then lowers her gaze by 25°, she'll see Tim
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Hey, guys. I apologize if this question is somewhat elementary, but does anyone know if I can divide both sides of 2e^x·cos(x) = 0 by 2e^x? (Is there a mathematical "rule" preventing me from, or advising against, doing that?)
the only thing that would stop you is division by 0
like for example, you could divide both sides by cos(x) here, too
but youd be making assumptions about the solution in doing so
so you just have to ask if 2e^x is ever 0
and if so, account for that assumption
Or if it ever is 0, you can just keep it
There would be no real reason to get rid of it
yea, it gives you easy solutions here
If it's on both sides of the equation you can factor it out
I am trying to find the zeroes of this equation, given that x must be between [–π,π]. So, I am guessing dividing by 2e^x is the best choice.
maybe an even better way to think about it is like
one of the two factors must be 0
if the thing is equal to 0
so consider separately where each is 0
i get approaching it in an equation way too though 
I like that approach. However, there is nowhere within [–π,π] where 2e^x = 0 (at least, not that I know of); there are, however, values where cos(x) = 0
those are your solutions, then
Ahh. Do you mind explaining why? I know this is an aside from my original question, but I am interested in knowing why.
well on one side, it looks like e times itself a bunch of times
Hmm, so, x = No solution or x = ±π/2 would be the correct way of denoting the zeroes of the function, then, right?
and on the other side, it looks like 1 divided by e a bunch of times
buncha math with positive numbers
hrm? theres a solution, right
Yes. x = ± π/2 is the solution to cos(x) = 0 over [–π,π], but 2e^x = 0 has no solution, right?
sure
Or maybe writing "DNE" is better?
Lolol ok. I am curious, though. How would you write the solution to 2e^x = 0?
no sol
Lolol ok ok
wait, I thought that the way you might write so in a formal proof is to use $\nexists$ on whatever represents the solution
Stole
Do you mind elaborating on this? I am looking at the graph of e^x, and I'm not seeing the latter part of your explanation; I see how the graph of e^x looks like e multiplied by itself a bunch of times, but I don't see how the other side of the graph looks like 1÷e a bunch of times
just think like a negative exponent
its like division
so as you divide 1 by more and more e's
it gets smaller and smaller
Exponentials are never 0
What Jan Niku said makes sense
But only for integers
you can also just remember it as a rule
yea im just talking about loosely
how youd interpret why it might be true
You can also prove it with the logarithm
$$e^x = 0$$
$$\ln e^x = \ln 0$$
$$x = \text{BOOM}$$
NEONPerseus
yea but then you have to know domains
Ah
Lmbo. x = Boom. Ok, so since e is about 2.72, e^x can never be 0, since e is a positive number being raised to some power.
just think e times any number of other e's is still just some positive number
Well technically the closer x gets to 0, ln x gets to negative infinity
It blew up because it's undefined in our case
hm but also proving the series converges everywhere
im too tired 
Why is that necessary, the Taylor series is already well established, we need only show it has no real roots
looks like someone did it using existence uniqueness of ode 
Which isn't any easier
Nope. I'm still a math noob 😐
haha idk
I think you should just stick to what Jan said
or you can just say e^x -> inf when x -> inf, so e^-x = 1/e^x goes to 0 when x-> inf
e^(something) is just e multiplied by itself some number of times
You can't multiply numbers and end up with 0 unless one of those numbers is 0
If e^x is 0, then is it legal to use e^(-x)


assume 1/0
idk im trying to find a clean one 
i think question is answered either way
It is not 😔
,w e^x=0
Damn thought there would be imaginary solutions
NEONPerseus
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Help pls
Just apply one of the trigonometric functions
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is 3/25 the answer for 36000000/3 x 10^8?
,w 36000000/3 x 10^8?
Well I guess so
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Does anyone know where this equation for the simpson rule came from?
Please don't occupy multiple help channels.
It comes from this page of my book https://math.libretexts.org/Bookshelves/Calculus/CLP-2_Integral_Calculus_(Feldman_Rechnitzer_and_Yeager)/01%3A_Integration/1.11%3A_Numerical_Integration
Is it related to lagrange interpolation?
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Polynomial_interpolation
i can't find it
yes
how?
In numerical integration, Simpson's rules are several approximations for definite integrals, named after Thomas Simpson (1710–1761).
The most basic of these rules, called Simpson's 1/3 rule, or just Simpson's rule, reads
In German and some other languages, it is named after Johannes Kepler, who derived it in 1615 after seeing it used for wine b...

oh i see
Still super confused
So it's not based on lagrange interpolation?
It comes from https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Newton–Cotes_formulas ?
Can i replace the simspon rule thingy with lagrange interpolation?
oh
One derivation replaces the integrand
f(x) by the quadratic polynomial… One can use Lagrange polynomial interpolation to find an expression for this polynomial,
I might have misread
So P(x) is the lagrange interpolation function.
and the derivative of it is this part?
antiderivative* ?
💜𝓁𝒶𝓎𝓁𝒶💜
which is just a number
true
P and f are supposed to be “similar” in shape (on [a,b])
and this is the area under P from a to b
so that approximates the area under f from a to b
yay 🙂
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haha that’s ok, math is hard
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Simplify: ((a ^ (1 / m) - a ^ (1 / n)) ^ 2 + 4a ^ ((m + n) / m))/((a ^ (2 / m) - a ^ (2 / n))(root(a ^ (m + 1), m) + root(a ^ (n + 1), 3)))
,rotate
Tyvm
!nosols
As a helper, please do not give out answers that could be copied as a homework solution. Have the student work through the problem themselves and guide them along the way.
Sorry
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in determining limits, if we get 0/0 at f(x) as x->3, we don't immediately conclude that limit DNE because maybe y doesnt exist at that point but both sides are approaching at the same y value. On the other hand if we evaluate f(x) as x->3 and get a number, for exmple 5, we immediately conlcude that the limit exists. Why is that? How can we assume that the left and right are approaching the same value, havne't we only evaluated that a y value exists at f(3). Why aren't we using the same 'do not assume it's exists or doesn't just by doing f(3), as we did for when we get 0/0
Wait, what's y here?
y=f(x)?
yes
for a continuous function f(x) the limit at x=a is f(a)
is the function is discontinuous and after evaluating f(x) at x=a you find some indeterminate form then you have to find other reason to conclude the limit
except for a piecewise function, if a function exists at f(a) it immediately implies that it is continuous at that point and the limit exists regardless of not knowing how the function behaves to left or to the right of it ?
not entirely sure but I would disagree, thinking about like the 'edge' of a piecewise function that is for example, 0 for 0->1 , 1 for 1->2 etc
,w plot floor(x) for 0<x<10
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we have 2 red and 2 white balls in a box . how many different ways you can choose 3 balls out of that 4 ?
i don't know why you think it's relevant
ok then say we had 14 red and 24 white . Then what would you do ?
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4C3/(2!*2!)?
this equals to 1 ?
this does not makes sense
rrw and wwr are at least two different ways
but your formula is not right ?
I think that should have been multiplied by 2. I am not very sure as I haven't done combinatorics in a while
y but i need exact formula to do this type of tasks in general
Let me revise and come back then
but not id there is larg amout of balls
is this for probability?
well in book yes but i am interesting only how many different ways is that possible , But why it does matters wheter it is for probability or mot ?
making a table is only possible way, i guess
well there can be other ways, which i am unaware of
there must be
maby this whould help guys : in a book there is this question : we have 11 black and 5 white balls. what is probability that we take 2 balls and both will be white ?
and the answer is 1/12
because if you’re doing it, then the order of choosing matters
made mistake there
So i wonder why all possible ways of choosing 2 balls out of 16 is 16C2 ?
if these balls were all dofferent than i agree
but we have same coloures balls there and that is confusing
the word ways is very general, it doesn't define what to count
another reasonable answer is one
there's is only one way to take 3 balls: take 3 balls
for probability purposes, balls behave like they are different
why
idk
It would be more like “order matters” than “balls are different”, wouldn’t it?
They do?
I think this is what you meant to say
ok lets leave probability alone for now
it's like an empirical fact, that the nature cares about each ball separately, and doesn't care about the color
and just count how many ways i can take 2 ballss out of that 16 if i wont to get different results
when you pull them randomly, that's how it works: the chance can tell the balls apart when you can't
yeah, if the color affected the chance, in real life, we would use that for probability instead
and we should think as if ballss were different or numerated
so should we imagine numbers on each ball?
ok problem solved 🙂
the color doesn't matter, you can tell the balls apart
doesn;t change the result if there's color in addition to 16 numbers
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What is meant by M^(T)?
,w transpose matrix
Ok sure thats an example
^T means to transpose the matrix
Reflect it across the negative diagonal
Ah okay
I thought it was a power, thx for the help
I think I can solve the rest of it now
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Hello
So the final answer of the thing im answering is this
oh wait wrong pic
this
but isnt this
can be simplified further?
into this?
you cannot cancel out the e^2's as you attempted.
yeah so it really doesnt simplify more than this
thank you @onyx glen @formal timber
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what is this xD
!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin
2. I have begun but got stuck midway
3. I got an answer but I'm told it's wrong
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked
5. I have a question about someone else's worked solution
6. None of the above
Which step are you on @static field?
1
Ok, what information do you get from this problem?
For example, what is the height the ball is dropped from?
h? next bounce = 2/3 h something like h! but with 2/3 till the end i guess
ok, so the next bounce is 2/3 h. What is the next bounce after that?
h/3*2 to the infinite
not quite.
If every bounce is 2/3 the one before it wouldn't it be a seqence that looks like this?
$h, \frac{2}{3}h, \frac{2}{3} \cdot \frac{2}{3}h, \frac{2}{3} \cdot \frac{2}{3} \cdot \frac{2}{3}h...$
jpsz
Does this make sense?
mm i get it like this h/3*2 = h/3*2 = h/3*2 = h/3*2 = .....
i don't get the "," or the multiplication of fractions there
The "," is there to seperate each bounce distance
\begin{enumerate} \item $\frac 2 3h$ \item $\frac 2 3 \cdot ( \frac 2 3 h)$ \item $\frac 2 3 \cdot (\frac 2 3 \cdot ( \frac 2 3 h))$ \end{enumerate} where each element represents the height after the corresponding bounce, for example $\frac 2 3h$ after the first bounce
^ @static field
That's an alternative way of writing it, if you don't want it as a sequence as jpsz wrote it
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How do you multiply congruence classes? ex [5]8 * [3]8
[5*3]_8
so its just [15]_8? and then reduce?
yes
ok perfect. and what's an efficient way to reduce congruence classes?
just keep taking away multiples of whatever you're moding by
if the numbers are massive then long division will always work
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Can someone help me find the x and y intercepts?
do you know what an x intercept is
and a y intercept
i understand what you mean but that's not the right way to say it
Oh
you have to express it in coordinate form
(6, 0) and (0, 4) specifically
^
yeah
Thank you guys so much
you're welcome
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How the mcrib am I going to solve this (I did) Is my answer correct?: x = 1.96218928, y = -sin (1.96218928) + 4
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i need help on this question because I struggle in School on this question. My expected grade is a Grade 7
I really want to achieve this grade
2y-30=70
y = 50
yes
now
just gimme 1 sec
we can say that the angle i have marked in HUGE red for some reason
is equal to 2y-30
yeah
what is an isosceles i kinda forgot
2 sides and 2 angles are equal
ok
So that massive red angle is equal to Y
ok
80
x=80
the answer was 60 degress
ok
i am so stupid
sorry
i typed the wrong thing
no did i
get someone elses help rq let me collect my calm
sorry mate i didnt read it properly
that huge red angle is equal to 2y-30
meaning its 70 aswell
so its 50+70+X = 180
i am really sorry
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in how many ways can we arrange a group made of 1 owner, 1 helper and 1 co-owner out of 5 people
i see you use permutations, but we don't take order into account in this case, shouldn't we've used combination?
what is that
hmmmm
why?
we use this formula for other stuff
as i was taught
my real question is: how many ways if there are 2 people who can't be in the same group
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need help to solve this equation:
x² / (x² + 1) = 2
Please don't occupy multiple help channels.
i guess make it [
\f{x^2}{x^2+1} -2 = 0
]
and add up the fractions, then you can completely ignore the denominator since the expression is equal to 0
$\frac{x²-2x²-2}{x²+1}$ do u have this?
Fucktalogist
yeah... and that's
-x² - 2 = 0
ignore denominator
is that equal to x²=-2?
yeah this equation has no solutions over R
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uh
sick
but but.. something is wrong..
what is
,w plot x²/(x²+1) -2=0
this is the original equation I need to solve
i used substitution
yeah that works
and got
i used math app and it says that the solution to this whole equation is ALSO +-sqrt(2), workbook also says this is the solution (besides +-1/sqrt(3))
oh... i see
it's x/(x²-1)
and I wrote t = x/(x²+1)
Thanks for helping!
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You can't abuse the helpers ping like this
You can only use it after 15mins of no help
Also, you should use relative velocity here
no i dont want help from u
its something to do with SUVAT
and sim equations
not 'relative velocity'
you're just being rude at this point
okay..
BC will be 240-s
now literally plug everything you know about the particles and solve for s
240-s
AB is 240 apart
who said ac is s
What would the inital and final velocity be, just 5?
u have no time
@noble horizon wait so am i wanting to find t
or what
cos im confused on what i am actually trying to find
you have to solve for t and s at the same time
you'll end up with 2 equations that you'll have to solve simultaneously
or if ur smart there is a way to cancel out t
actually no there really isnt
wait
so just solve simultaneously
so for BC
is s 240-s
u 5
v 5
a 0.75
and for AC
Is
s s
u 4
a 0.75
?
Because thats what i used and shoved into s=ut+1/2 at^2
and formed 2 sim equations but i got wrong answer
what answer did u get
12.9 for t and then 56.3 for s
man
So we cant use suvat?
because suvat works for constant acceleration only
for BC
?
no you can just set a = 0
or again use v = s/t
@karmic grotto start a new help channel
this is someone else's
why does that work
because constant speed means 0 acceleration
does it?
yes
ohhhh yeah
because
acceleration is change in velocity if velocity doesnt change
a is 0
I LOVE U
ITS ALL FALLING INTO PLACE
DAMN I LOVE U SO MUCH
😅😅
Ok im giving it another go
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