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nice!
How would i go about showing that y = -1-x is an oblique asymptote?
I thought of showing that the distance between both graphs for every (y,x) tends to 0 as x tends to infinity
but then i didnt show that its an oblique asymptote but just an asymptote
@tribal gust Has your question been resolved?
@tribal gust Has your question been resolved?
is this Dutch?
Yeah
cool
Lol
my friend goes to Leiden
Im not from the netherlands, thats cool tho
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hEY
Hey
Consider the expression inside the logarithm
yea
What are you trying to do first of all
splitting it
Ok
Let us first consider ln(z)
Trust me on this.
When is ln(z) negative or positive?
yes
in x = 0 and x = 2
according to my calculations
so like from ]0;2[
@vapid barn
Yep
x^2+2x = 0
So this function is defined on the entirety of the real line
Except for x = -1
Agreed?
And it is negative on the interval (-2,0)
yes
So for x in (-2,0) we want to return -ln(x²+2x+1)
why
Because the function is negative over that interval
So we take the negative of the negative to get the absolute value
ok
Make sense?
yes
Now what do we do outside of (-2,0)?
outside we let it positive
Yeah
why or
👍
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so im trying to do this and i solved for x, then did the solution for vx but my solution wasnt any of the options
show your work
@patent meadow Can you show your work and what are the possible answers?
One of those indeed is the correct answer. Can you show your work?
That is where your error.
How'd you arrive at this?
This would give you a negative length
since the lines in the triangle were congruent i assumed that ST and VX were equivalent
yeah
so i knew that was wrong from the start
The triangle are not congruent
i mean
They are similar
They are similar.
oh
So the corresponding sides are not equal
Though, there should be a theorem you've seen that will help here.
But their ratios are
Or if you are learning similarity now, then use that.
alr hold on
yeah idk how to do this
i can find how to use the ratios on similar equivalent triangles
but this i just dont get
There is a theorem that states what the ratios between the two segments is, and also states that they are parallel. Does this ring a bell?
oh is that the proportionality theorem?
Can you state which theorem you are referring to?
Can you state what the theorem says?
Ak. I meant to say can you state what the theorem you are referring to says.
that if a line is drawn parallel to one of the triangle sides and intersects the other two sides of the triangle at a certain point, then the other sides are divided with the same ratio
Not what I was looking for. Do midsegments ring a bell?
Yes.
where the midsegment that connects the midpoints of two of the sides is parallel to the third side
What does that theorem state?
and that its half the length of the third side
by solving for x again but using half of VX instead of the full thing?
or is that wrong
am i right
Yes. So now, what is VX?
46
✅
No problem.
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how can i prove, that (A~B)&&(C~D) -> (A x D) ~ (B x C)?
What is ~ and &&?
Any more context than that?
it is a set theory problem
Probably a relation
Equivalence relation(?)
But we need more information
oh, it sounds like it
in polish it is równoliczność
But what actually is ~? Like has it been defined? Because you're using the same relation symbol for two different relations
it is something that means, that two sets have the same number of elements
those are any unempty sets
Have you seen something like A~B if and only if there is a bijection f : A -> B?
yes, i've seen it
So your goal will be to make a bijection h : AxD -> BxC, using the maps f : A -> B, g : C -> D
but how can i create this h function
@kindred viper Has your question been resolved?
i've generally managed to do accomplish this
B x C = f(A) x g(D)
but i don't really know what can i do next
anyone? <@&286206848099549185>
:((((
ok, just to sum up, we have to prove this
~ means, that two sets have the same number of elements
and now
becasue A ~ B there exist a bijection f: A -> B, and because D ~ C there exist a bijection g: D -> C
Then B x C = f(A) x g(D)
when can i do next? <@&286206848099549185>
@kindred viper You need to find a function that maps pairs (a,d) in A x D to pairs (b,c) in B x C.
For a hint, think in terms of components of the pairs.
hmm
i still don't really know what to do 
Alright. Do you know what the elements of A x D look like?
And what about B x C?
same, pairs (b, c)
So, you want to transform a pair (a,d) into some pair (b,c). How do you think that can be accomplished?
Consider the two functions you have, f: A -> B and g: D -> C.
Right. Maybe you can define your function somewhat like that?
(It is relevant by the way)
Correct.
Now, you just have to show this is a bijection, which is a straightforward task using the fact that f and g are bijections themselves.
I believe you should be able to take it from here.
Do you know how to prove a function is bijective?
not really
i mean
i can prove it is surjection
and
injection
and then i know it is bijective
but i don't know if this is a good way in this situation
no, wait
That is basically how you proce a function is bijective. Bijective functions by definition are injective and surjective.
@kindred viper
(I'm heading off to dinner now, so I won't be able to respond. I think you can do this on your own now.)
kk
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ok, and how can i solve this one?
~ means, that two sets have the same number of elements
because A ~ B, there exist a bijection g: A -> B
Is this in the real numbers?
Let G: A^C -> B^C be given by G(f) = gof
and i don't know how to prove that G is a bijection
Trenek is this in the real numbers?
why would it matter?
Like what space is it in
A complement means nothing
unless you have a set it is contained in
Doesn't matter
well lets calll E the bigger set
those are any unempty sets
w/e
sooo, anyone have any ideas how to do it?
G isn't well defined
So you said g is the bijection from A to B, right? Then you said G is the same function, but from E - A to E - B?
I think I have a counter example
And is f an element, or a map?
Trenek, I don't think it is true
G(f) = g ∘ f
now it's prettier
So if f is in E - A, then how do we know f is a function?
I'm assuming this is composition of functions
yes, it is
yyy
Is our space E a set of functions?
It is important because otherwise we have no idea of what A complement should be
If E were the real numbers, and A were a subset of the real numbers, A^c is usually the set of all real numbers not in A
That's like your "universe", in that A, B, A^c, B^c are all subsets of that
C is also a set
Same here! Very poor choice of lettering 
what is A^C defined as
Think that's all functions from A to C?
Okay
it is a set of all functions f: C -> A
I'll see if I can think of something
In that case, because A and B have a bijection between them, you have an invertible function $f: A \to B$ (and $f^{-1} : B \to A$)
chartbit
So I think that would be the idea
Did you prove it was a surjection or injectino yet?
Oh yeah you've done that already so far. fair enough
$f$ is a function $f : C \to A$, and then $g : A \to B$ is your bijection between the sets, so then $G(f) = g \circ f : C \to B$
chartbit
Assume you have two functions $f_1, f_2 : C \to A$ such that $G(f_1) = G(f_2)$ and work with that (injectivity)
chartbit
Are you going to have to use the axiom of chioce? for surjectivity
For surjectivity, assume you have $h : C \to B$ and try and create an $f$ such that $G(f) = h$
chartbit
@kindred viper Has your question been resolved?
ok, i did this
now i have to do this one
huh, i don't really understand this one
I want to quickly check what you did for the proof it is injective
Did you say G(f1) = G(f2)
Then let c be an element of C
We have g(f1(c)) = g(f2(c)), so by the injectivity of g, f1(c)=f2(c)
Thus, f1 = f2
yes
Perfect
I'm happy to take that
The proof for surjectivity is a bit more difficult. When I tried it, it requires the axiom of choice
Do you understand the axiom of chioce
i'm not sure if i know what it is
Do you know what a choice function is
not really
I'm going to be afk for a few minutes. You should search up what a choice function is
kk
@kindred viper I'm back
Do you have an idea why we would need the choice function?
i.e. the axiom of choice
but it provides nonconstructive proofs
so, isn't there a better way to do it? 🤔
I am not sure
The way I found uses the axiom of choice but I am not qualified to say you can't prove it without the axiom of choice
not really
Do you want to have an attempt at the proof or do you want me to guide you through the process
i would prefer you to guide me tbh
okay
So we have a function in B^C and we look for a function in A^C where, when we apply G, we find our function in B^C
So let h be a function from C to B
If we have an element c of C, then h(c) is an element of B
and since g is surjective and function from A to B, we have some element a of A where g(a) = h(c)
So what we want to do is find a function f that goes through this process: taking c in C, and mapping it to a in A where g(a) = h(c) (so that f(c) = a so G(f) = g(f(c)) = h(c))
Does this make sense
The problem is that there may not be a unique a where g(a) = h(c)
So we use a choice function to choose a specific a
g is injective too, no?
I'm unsure of how that would be useful
ohhhhhh
so we don't need the axiom of choice
Yea, I was gonna say why not just take $f = g^{-1} \circ h$ as is, thought I would have been talking shit 
and we just let f be this function and we'll find G(f) = h
chartbit
Yeah that works
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how to prove, that f is injective iff
A and B are sets
to see that it's not necessarily true when f is not injective, try a three-point domain {1,2,3} with A = {1,2} and B = {2,3}, and give f some appropriate values so that the desired result doesn't hold
For starters, suppose $f$ is injective, and let $A, B$ be non-empty sets. Then, ...
DavidL1450
To prove sets are equal , prove that each one is a subset of the other.
@kindred viper Are you studying Category theory by any chance? I would be a bit surprised if you are taught exponentials in any introductory course on set theory/proof writing.
Very strange. Well, I suppose going over the set of functions between two sets is fine in an introductory course.
it is "Logika i teoria mnogości" which translates to "Logic and Set Theory"
I see. What do you have so far for this problem?
well, i see that this equation doesn't hold up if f is not injective
and it means that if
this equation is true, than the function is injective
but i don't really know how to prove to other way around
how to prove that is the function is injective, then this identity occures
I presume A and B are subsets of the domain of f, right?
one containment is true even if f is not assumed injective. do you know which one?
Are the sets A and B fixed? Or is the statement quantifying over all non empty subsets?
what does it mean that those sets are fixed?
i mean, this is basically a problem
i will translate
Dla dowolnych
I presume that means for all.
Let f: X -> Y be a function. Prove that following conditions are equivalent:
(a) f is injective
(b) [equation] for any [the_rest]
So the sets are not fixed then.
So, it should be simple to show that if f is not injective, then (b) does not hold.
To negate (b), you only need a single counterexample. See if you can construct one.
and it means that if b holds, than a is also true
I can, let A = {1, 2} and B = {2, 3}
let f(A) = {0, 2} and f(B) = {2, 0}
this is the right idea, but you need to specify exactly what are f(1), f(2), f(3)
How can you generalize that? A and B are subsets of X, which might not contain any natural numbers.
you only need one counterexample to show that the formula isn't true in general
oh, ok, so f(1) = 0, f(2) = 2, f(3) = 0
yep, that'll do it
now, i claim that one of the containments $$f(A \cap B) \subseteq f(A) \cap f(B)$$ and $$f(A \cap B) \supseteq f(A) \cap f(B)$$ is true in general even if f is not assumed injective, do you know which one?
Bungo
Well, yes, though part of me says to be more general and not fix a concrete X.
oh, ok, so the first one is true
i think you need an X with at least 3 points (and a codomain with at least 2 points), so this seems like the simplest counterexample. For a larger X, you could embed this example inside that X and ignore all except 3 points of the domain
right
so now try the other direction and see where you need injectivity
if you ask about this, then i need it on the right hand side, i have one element of a set too much
2 points suffice. Take A and B to be disjoint singleton sets. f maps these to the same value. LHS is the empty set, right hand side is a set with one element.
oops misread, one moment
Their intersection need not be non-empty.
right, good point
yep that works
And the claim is vacuously true if some sets are empty.
seems right, surely the image of an empty set is empty
By definition of the image. Yes.
can you elaborate on this?
right
and this 0 element is there because the function is not injective
what i meant above was:
if you assume that f is injective, how does that fact needed in order to show that $$f(A) \cap f(B) \subseteq f(A \cap B)$$
Bungo
like, carry out the proof and see at what point you need injectivity to proceed
🤔
sounds like you need a nudge in the right direction to get started...?
to show that one set is a subset of another, show that an arbitrary element in the first set is also an element of the second set
so in this case:
suppose $y \in f(A) \cap f(B)$
Bungo
the goal is to show that $y \in f(A \cap B)$
Bungo
now what does it mean for $y$ to be in $f(A) \cap f(B)$?
Bungo
ok, so $y \in f(A) \wedge y \in f(B)$
Trenek
and i'm not sure how to continue
$y \in f(A)$ means that there is some $x \in A$ such that $y = f(x)$
Bungo
$y \in f(B)$ means that there is some $z \in B$ such that $y = f(z)$
Bungo
agree?
Trenek
no... we are assuming that f is injective
yes exactly
ok, i see it
because an injective function cannot send two different inputs to the same output
therefore since x and z are the same point we can just call it x
and it's in both A and B
sorry, i'm a bit sleepy XD
no worries!
ok, now i can see it
yes, now the rest seems fairly easy
thanks for help
sure, enjoy
Dobranoc! Its nearly midnight here. Good luck!
Dobrej nocy, pięknych snów 🙂
Dziękuję!
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How to solve it?
Question, what does exp() mean?
Just exponential function e^(whatever in parentheses)
Anyways
exp() function in R Language is used to calculate the power of e i.e. e^y or we can say exponential of y
I think you need to integrate by parts + trig sub
But you have to clean it up a bit first
How to do that?
Replace all trig functions in terms of sin, cos and simplify
Use as many double angle formulas as it takes
I see
@tardy lotus Has your question been resolved?
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@topaz valley @wise wyvern my idea about that summation came to fruition. pic inbound.
Ann
bounded from below you mean?
,w 2sqrt(99)
anyway what im doing here is approximating our sum by one that lends itself better to calculation
and then putting a bound on how far off i was
👏
Oh wow approximating that from 1 to 99 
i mean the galaxy-brain move would be to say that $\int_1^{99} \frac{\dd{x}}{x^{5/2}} \leq \int_1^{+\infty} \frac{\dd{x}}{x^{5/2}}$
so no integration required
Isn't this the problem you helped me to solve before, snow?
Why is this question so famous?

if nobody has anything else to say i'll close this

i would like to pitch in with something
yes?

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Is it true?
Yes
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I have a convergent, decreasing sequence that converges to 0. I've proved that its bounded (below) but how do i show that its bound = 0
well clearly 0 is a bound
and if there was a bigger bound then it wouldnt converge to 0
I assume you meant greatest lower bound
Oh yeah i wasnt giving a counter point
this was just another question haha
greatest lower bound is literally the infimum
Yeah i know but we dont consider it in this class, all the question asked for was a bound
we do in proofs nd reasoning tho
Anyway, thanks again
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How do i show that the (alternating) series given by pi^n/2 cos(npi) is divergent?
If i take the limit of the series as n tends to infinity i end up having to evaluate cos(npi) but im pretty sure that limit doesnt exist
In absolute value however the series tends to infinity or atleast a non zero value
So the terms keep getting bigger and bigger
to show that the limit DNE you can try to find two different subsequences that tends to the same result and show that values of cos(npi) for them are different
Im not sure how id do that, could you maybe show me an example?
ok, for examle let's say we have limit x goes to inf of sin(x)
and we want to show it DNE
let's take two subsequences
(both divergent to inf)
xn1 = pi, 2pi, 3pi, 4pi, 5pi, 6pi, ...
and xn2 = pi/2, pi/2 + 2pi, pi/2 + 4pi, pi/2 + 6pi, ...
now it's enough to show that
f(xn1) and f(xn2) goes to different numbers
I dont really see that these are subsequences
oh wait, a subsequence can just be the sum of random members of the series its defined from?
I thought it had to be 'in order'
sin(xn2) = sin(pi/2), sin(pi/2 + 2pi), sin(pi/2 + 4pi) ... = 1, 1, 1, ...
so it tends to 1
1 != 0
limit DNE
so for example sin(x) from n = 0 to 10 would be a subsequence, while sin(x) for n = 0,2,4,6,.. wouldnt be
it refers to Heine definition of limit
ee maybe I said it wrong, it can be just sequence haha
😅 thanks but im not sure i get it then
just two any sequences
** for all sequences **
we found 2 sequences which gives other results, so limit does not exist by definition
Sorry im still not sure i get it. I thought you wanted to show that two subseries of the series had different limits and therefore the series has no limit but i suppose thats not what you're doing?
I havent really learned about this and im trying to make do with what we saw in class
Sorry if I made you confused, I've just read you wanted to calculate the limit of cos(npi) where n goes to infinity
and you thought limits does not exist, so I suggested a way how to prove it
no of pi^n/2cos(npi)
but you ended with what?
Well i thought of just calculating the limit, since its an alternating series the limit should equal zero, if not then its divergent
The issue is that i dont know how to calculate that limit
in fact you can try same thing as I did, I guess it doesn't exist, just other sequences for this one (take limit of exponent)
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Hi, could someone help me by double checking whether this is correct or not. Online calculators are giving me different answers so I'm not sure. The goal is to find the series both converges and absolutely converges.
I think it does not absolutely converge, nor converges normally in this case. Am I correct ?
Don't even need ratio test
The terms don't even converge to zero. So the series diverges by the limit test
Right, but the question asks to check for absolute convergence
A series can't technically diverge, and still absolutely converge ?
If a series diverges, it also doesn't absolutely converge
In that case I'm a bit confused about the inconclusive result of the ratio test.
If the result is 1, in which case it's inconclusive, wouldn't that mean that the series could either converge or diverge ?
Yes.
,w define inconclusive
Oooh, right. No you're absolutely right. So any time a series diverges, the result of the ratio test could either be > 1 or = 1, but not < 1 which is the only case where it absolutely converges.
So here, doing the limit test first would've led me to the conclusion that the ratio test's result would either be = 1 or > 1, which meant that it could not be absolutely convergent
Thanks you for explaining ^^
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Find the set possible values of random variable X and draw a table to show each probability
1a) a box contains 3 redmarbles, 5 green. Two are taken at random without replacement and X is the number of green marbles obtained
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Paper plates cost 8$ per package and plastic utensils cost 5$ per package your supplier delivers 15 packages for 90$ if x=paper plate package and y=utensil package that would mean that there are 5 paper plate packages and 10 utensil packages how do i make a system of equations to get the coordinate pair to (5,10)
$x + y = 15 \
8x + 5y = 90$
VulcanOne
Gracias bro I was missing something and this was it
There are two things you know about the delivery: number of packets and price of packages. And given x and y, you can write the number in terms of x and y and write the price in terms of x and y. Hence the two equations above
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Could anyone assist me with doing the proof for #12?
From what I've been helped with, once I use the hint given and apply it to the lhs. I can start to simplify the lhs.
I understand that (z_i - zbar) will give me 0.
But what about (zbar -d)?
How do I approach that?
z_i - zbar is not always 0
ah, yeah, if you sum and average, then yes
then you're done? the middle term 0's out
zbar - d is constant
the 2(zbar - d)(z_i - zbar) is 0 after you apply the sum
the (zbar - d)^2 is constant, so when you apply the sum and 1/n you just get it back.
Sorry, I just get what back? (Zbar -d)^2 ?
yes
(z_i - zbar)^2 would also come out to 0 right?
no
it's squared, you can't bring in the multiplication of 1/n into it to get (zbar - zbar)^2 like you did for the other one
Hmm
and you can't bring the sum into the quadratic either
So on the lhs, I'm left with (z_i - zbar)^2 + 2(zbar - d) + (zbar - d)^2
Noted
the middle term is 0
it's multiplied by this
Oh
Derp
0 * (zbar - d)
So that's 0
Wow
So now I'm finally left with the same on the rhs
yep
So I'm finished with what I wanted to prove
Thank you so much man
That little detail was messing me up
np
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hey 
c = 3
8a - 4b = -1
Well this is what can be implied
yea
The local maximum of y would be at the point where y' = 0
So 3ax^2 + 2bx + 9 = 0 for some x
Hmm
Ah wait it's asking for the local maximum value
Knowing this x might not be necessary

y = ax^3 + (8a + 1)x^2/4 + 3x + 5
but then u get maxima with containg a
Maybe
doesn't "touch" mean root of multiplicity ≥2?
is it always implied?
So y(x) = a(x + 5/4)(x + 2)^2?
Yeah it's be "intersects" otherwise
And now just pick a such that y'(0) = 3
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I am unsure on what the differences are between a cut set and an edge set?
like according to the definitions i am reading, they are different, but they seem to be interchangeable in a lot of situations for some reason?
can you give the exact definitions you are using?
Sure
oh its you again
A cut set of a graph $G$ induced by a partition of $G$'s vertices into sets $X$ and $Y$ is the set of all edges with one endpoint in $X$ and another endpoint in $Y$
\vspace{3 mm}
An edge cut of a connected graph $G$ is a set $S$ of $G$'s edges such that $G-S $ is disconected and $G-S'$ is connected for any proper subset $S'$ of $S$
♡Lex♡
welp time to learn graph theory
what i am getting is that every cut set is not necessarily an edge cut, because like, if $X$ itself wasn't connected, then you would need more than one edge to reconnect $G$
but i am really not sure
♡Lex♡
yes
I see
that makes sense
oh yeah i suppose cut sets can be defined even for disconnected graphs i guess?
which is also another distinction
that aswell, yes
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Oh yeah just another quick clear up, but is null graph a subgraph of every graph?
According to what i am reading, a subgraph can be defined as ""A graph G is a subgraph of graph H if the nodes of G are a subset of the nodes of H, and the edges of G are a subset of the edges of H""
because a null graph just means empty sets for the vertices and edges, which is just like, phi
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oh but from what i read, some people tend to say that the set of vertices need to be nonempty
i guess it doesnt matter either way?
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✅
yeah fairly isn't haha
this made me think
this is just a question i came up with, but how would we figure out how many induced subgraphs are there of a graph of n vertices?
number of choices of subsets of vertices
oh yeah i just realised how non-general my question is
since i am supposing if the graph has more than n vertices, we cant really know can we
wait no
uh
i am confusing myself
yeah that does make sense in my head too
ty
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Can anyone explain how this came pls ping
multiply by 12 on each side of the equation
@fervent mirage
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bit confused on this i can do the basics of inverse functions
I assume that notation is composition
then remember than when
f: A → B and g: B → C, then (f o g): A → B
@mortal sinew Has your question been resolved?
Hi sorry had to do something, i am still a bit confused on how to answer this..
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Not that mann
That a/80-56 thing
Yes ?
you said pls ping
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This is the bernoulli inequality right
Can x be a negative number?
I need to show that this converges with the bernoulli inequality and sandwich
Needs to be at least -1
ahh alright
Just in case my answer wasn’t clear, x can be negative, provided it’s at least -1 
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Determine the intercepts of the graphs of the following polynomial functions:
- y = x^3 + x^7 - 12x
- y = (x-2)(x - 1)(x + 3)
Im tryna do this but im still confused I keep getting the wrong answers
Workings?
Do x3 and x7 mean x * 3 and x * 7 ?
x^3 and x^7 then
Yup
Show your work
You need to find x-intercepts too I think
Its supposed to be 0
Btw 12x = 0 when x = 0
Hey you have made a mistake in last literal of question-1
put x=0
Yes
Ahh alright
for question-2, when you put y=0 it gives you x intercept but you have written as Y intercept in the last line
y intercept in question-2 will be 6
Yeah mate
Reach out to me if you have any doubt
Will do
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I need help with this please
Have you learned the hinge theorem?
@upbeat root Has your question been resolved?
Yes
Do you see how it might be helpful?
In your picture, it looks more like B and C are the smaller acute angles
and A and D are obtuse
It might help to make the parallelogram more slanty so the difference is more obvious
but either way
compare triangles ABD and CDB
they both have congruent sides
oh wait
Im going to say A and D are the smaller angles and B and C are the larger ones
that means B is going to be bigger than C
So from angle B its diagonal is longer than the diagonal from angle C?
angle B and C share the same diagonal, don't they?
That is, BC is a diagonal
in your picture
yeaa
The diagonal AD >CB, <B would be larger than <D because ABD had two small angles and CDB had two large angles.
Idk if this is right
Srry for my bad drawing
What you're saying doesn't really match the picture
In the picture, B and C are the small angles
They are acute
A and D are obtuse
Do I have the right idea though?
not exactly
dang it
To use the hinge theorem, you want to use two triangles, and first show that those two triangles have two congruent sides
so triangles ABD and CDB
do you see any congruent sides?
congruent sides are from the diagonals
hm
No, the diagonals are different lengths.
In fact, that's what we're trying to prove
that BC (joining the smaller angles) is longer than AD (joining the bigger angles)
the congruent sides are going to be from the sides of the parallelogram
Yes, that's good
this is true, but AC is not a side of either triangle we're looking at
Look specifically at triangles ABD and CDB
Notice that BD is a side of both triangles
oh reflexive property
right
So you have AB cong to CD
and BD cong to DB
Now do you see how we can use the hinge theorem?
If I said D was the smaller angle and angle B is the larger angle then AD>CB
yes
I know how to prove this but im having a hard time trying to write it like a proof
@rocky vale
Should I include that <A and <D are the smaller angles and <B and <C are the larger angles in my given statement
yes, but again that's the opposite of what you drew
I'd do the other way around
Idk when I should be talking about the triangles
Where do I put it
After that I just use the hinge theorem
Yes, I'd say something like "hinge theorem on triangles ABD and CDB"
np 👍
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can you use completing square on sin and cosine?
can you give an example of when you would want to apply it?
you can use completing the square whenever you have something of the form a^2+a*(something). whether it's useful is another question
can i use complete square to solve this?
instead of the way he did it
after completing the square then finish it with arctan
if we complete the square
yes it seems possible
of the dom
I can continue but my question is can i use complete square woth trig?
with
alright thank you
but still, the sign is wrong
which sign
of the -1/4
you can just multiply -1 to get it inthat form
in the end it will turn into essentially the same thing as what is done in the picture
no thats not arctan
arctan has 1 + x^2 in denominator
on this we have 1-x^2 on denominator
its entirely different
i mean
let me check what it is rq
oh yeah
also integral 1/(a^2 - x^2) is also equal to [ ln|(x-a)/(x+a)|/2a ] + c
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its asking for domain of the function i dont even know where to begin 😭 how do u do this
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