#help-27
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you can close it if you want
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How to go about this $\int tan^{3}(\theta) \cdot sec^{3}(\theta)$
inheritance.
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I think rewriting tan^2 in terms of sec helps as then only one tan will be left and then we can substitute sec as u
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why is it when expressing ln(1+x) as a power series you dont have to put +C (when using integration)? or when ln(5+x) you know C=ln5 and so on
what is ln 1
no like i get why its not there anymore im just confused why in some functions you still have to write +C instead of evaluating at 0(?)
the +C comes from the integration itself, has to do with the fact that for differentiable f(x), f(x)+k has the same derivative.
In the particular case of ln(1+x), again, you can procede by evaluating at x = 0
ln(1+0) = C + 0 - 0/2 + + 0/3 ...
ln(1) = C
0 = C
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Can anyone explain the construction in dis
What part of it didn't you get?
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for questions that wants you to proof a function's continuity or discontinuity are you meant to use epsilon delta proofs most of the times?
no
It's one of the ways, but not used most of the time
most people avoid epsilon-delta whenever possible
i have never seen an eps-delta proof of discontinuity actually
that just sounds really bad
Epsilon delta is what defines continuity, but usually they are used mainly to prove some theorems about continuity, which you can then apply more easily
oh actually using eps delta for discontinuity is really not that bad for simple functions
for example continuity of most common functions follows by the fact that continuity is preserved after addition, multiplication, inverse... and continuity of some basic functions such as e^x
for discontinuity, e.g. the sequential definition of continuity is quite useful - it suffices to find one sequence xn -> x, such that f(xn) doesnt tend to f(x)
there's like 20 ppl responding to thsi question so i don't wanna add too much more confusion
but i think if you find the epsilon-delta way of proving (dis)continuity very confusing it might be worhtwhile to try and force yourself to apply it in a simple scenario
even before using the sequential criterion doing the regular methods like checking if the limit matches the function, comparing left and rgiht limits is good enough
like showing that something like f(x) = 1 for x > 0, and f(x) = 0 for x <= 0 is discontinuous in 0 is super easy with eps-delta if you understand what you're doing
but yea as with everything in math, at some point you stop going back to those basics and just use all the easy machinery that has been built from it, i.e. the other answers to this question
So what methods are there to proof continuity and discontinuity
other than epsilon delta
i think MathIsAlwaysRight's answer covers it
if you have all the limit machinery already, it suffices to check the limits
for some functions such as sin(1/x) as x -> 0, you probably dont have a simple way to conclude that the limit doesnt exist, so thats where you could use the sequential criterion (finding a sequence converging to 0, whose functions values dont converge to f(0))
for proving continuity, you can often use this:
if f and g are continuous, then:
f + g is continuous
fg is continuous
f - g is continuous
c*f is continuous
f / g is continuous, if g isnt equal to 0 anywhere
f^-1 is continuous (if the inverse exists)
f o g is continuous, if well-defined
together with continuity of some basic functions such as
e^x, c, x, trig functions, ...
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yo how were they able to go from there to there
,, \41{\32}x^{\512}=\4{\3x}{\32}=\3{\4x2}
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here too
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Y does no 6 have a fractions amount of sides of a polygon
Ohh ok ty
you're welcome
How do u do 13
How do I get the midpoint
I tried making lines from each point of a to a point of b and getting the tangents
They didn’t meet at a pt
well
so first you enlarge A by a factor of 3
and then you move it right, then up
<@&268886789983436800>
correct?
or does it have to be 1 step only
what do you think /s
tangents?
There're no circles here
Assuming you mean you tried to draw lines connecting corresponding points of A and of B together, did you try extending those lines to see where they met?
@tidal sable Has your question been resolved?
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no idea
Ig you can use x³+y³+z³ identity
🤨
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lambda1 + lambda2 + lambda3 = Tr(A) = 6
Lambda31 + Lambda 32 + Lambda33 = Tr(A³) = 36
okk wait so lambda is an eigenvalue?
Mhm
Use x²+y²+z² identity
Then the cube one
Do you get what I am saying? Coz I am bad at explaining
I don't want to give the answer. Just hints 😭
ok i understand the steps after that but im already a bit unclear in the entire eigenvalues part
ill just try searching on it then and come later
thanks
.close
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If the function f is defined by f (x) = [ \begin{cases} \text { } 0 \text{if x is rational} \ \text{} 1 \text{if x is irrational} \end{cases} ] then prove that $\lim_{x\to 0} f(x)$ does not exist
In mathematics, the Dirichlet function is the indicator function
1
Q
{\displaystyle \mathbf {1} _{\mathbb {Q} }}
of the set of rational numbers
…
Toaster
Contemplating my life choices
wait
But since the irrationals and rationals both have infinite densities then the Dirichlet function is nowhere continuous?
Indeed.
So if epsilon is 1/3rd then due to the densities of the rationals and irrationals x cannot be 0 or 1 therefore it is undefined?
Yeah well any epsilon < 1 would not work.
Another way to see it is that given a point c, then you can always get a sequence x_n -> c of only rationals and a sequence x_n -> c of only irrationals. Both of those would give you different limits for the function.
Ahhh I see
ok I have another q
Prove that f is continuous at a if and only if $\lim_{h\to 0} f(a+h) = f(a)$ (only using epsilon delta)
Ok, for this question I don't understand because for an $\epsilon > 0$ then $\exists\delta > 0$ such that if $0 < |h-0| < \delta$ then $|f(a+h)-f(a)|<\epsilon$ and I have no idea what to do with that
what is your definition of continuity? is it in terms of sequences or limits
limits
okay, so can you state that definition?
f is continuous at a if ??
f is continuous at a if $\lim_{x\to a}f(x) = f(a)$
Toaster
okay, now use the epsilon delta definition for limits to expand this definition
for an $\epsilon > 0, \exists\delta>0$ such that $0 < |x-a| < \delta$ then $|f(x)-f(a)|<\epsilon$
Toaster
now do you see how this is secretly the same as the epsilon delta definition you just wrote?
?
lim_{h-> 0 }f(a+h) = f(a) means:
for every eps > 0 there exists delta >0 such that 0<|h| < delta implies |f(a+h) - f(a)| < eps.
the above is the same as:
for every eps > 0 there exists delta >0 such that 0 < |x - a| < delta implies |f(x)-f(a)| < eps
which is the same as:
lim_{x -> a}f(x) = f(a)
which is the same as:
f is continuous at a
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Yo guys i kinda forgot what to do when i get the rankings..
I need the test stats right
And then add em snd divide by two
A no
I need the smallest one
Is it correct?
@severe prairie Has your question been resolved?
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for my inductive step I have $\frac{2\sqrt{n^2+n} + 1}{\sqrt{n+1}}$. I know that $(n+1)^2 > n^2+n \implies \sqrt{n+1} > {\sqrt{n^2+n}$ but I am unsure how to proceed from here
BigBen
Compile Error! Click the
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Do you have the rest of your working
@robust bobcat Has your question been resolved?
Yes so induction step is: $\sum_{k=1}^{n+1} k^{-1/2} = \sum_{k=1}^{n} k^{-1/2} + \frac{1}{\sqrt{n+1}} < 2\sqrt{n} + \frac{1}{\sqrt{n+1}}$
BigBen
So the idea is to do some "backwards" work basically, you will see the inequality is satisified for every n, so you can use the <= to show why the inequality holds
You can also square both sides since both sides are not negative for n>=1
@robust bobcat in case you weren't pinged mb
so for your right side are you saying that $2n+1 > 2\sqrt{n+1} > 2\sqrt{n}\sqrt{n+1}$
BigBen
I just multiplied by sqrt(n+1)
ye so your saying that if I can show your right side then that implies what we want to show
Yes
ok so what I was saying is we know $\sqrt{n+1} > \sqrt{n}\sqrt{n+1}$ = $2\sqrt{n+1}> 2\sqrt{n}\sqrt{n+1}$
you have a [ in the begin
BigBen
then we also know that $(2n+1)^2 > 4(n+1) \implies 2n+1 > 2\sqrt{n+1}$ and $2n+1 = 2(n+1)-1$
BigBen
Not quiet sure I can follow
where did I lose you?
Like for surfficiently large n sqrt(n)sqrt(n+1) will not be less than sqrt(n+1)
It's like quadratic vs linear growth
lmao
We know $n+1> \sqrt{n}\sqrt{n+1} \implies 2n+1 > \sqrt{n}\sqrt{n+1} \implies 2(n+1)-1> \sqrt{n}\sqrt{n+1}$
BigBen
From where do we know n+1>sqrt(n)sqrt(n+1)
well $(n+1)^2 = n^2+2n+1$ and the other one squared is $n^2+n$
Find the backwards steps to get there
Ok yeah but that ought to be shown as well that this follows from our assumption n>=1
ok so we just say that $(2n+1)^2> 4(n^2+n)$ square root both sides and then we can solve what you wrote by adding one to the right and dividing by $\sqrt{n+1}$
BigBen
Yes, but you start from n>=1 not from (2n+1)^2> 4(n^2+n)
Basically resolving the inequality should yield an equivalence anyway which would include the <= too
so that you start from a trivial truth
like 1>0
isn't that a given though?
wdym the problem asks us for n>=1
yes
which means I am only looking at those n. Not any n<1
That's not what I meant
(2n+1)^2> 4(n^2+n) what makes you think this was true for n>=1 in the first place
this is the missing step
you can factor it out
Yes but you need to show that
You can't just claim that's true for n>=1
even if it seems trivial for you
no I understand where your going. We say that 1>0 add 4n^2+4n to both sides and then were good.
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help
i know im being stupid but i like
ig idk exponent rules anymore??? why is it 8 when u plug in ln5 and ln3 what 😭
,, e^{2\2\log(5)} = e^{\log(25)} = 25
try to work out the rest on your own
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\textbf{Question:} Let $X$ be a simple graph with $n$ vertices and $e$ edges. If $\lambda$ is an eigenvalue of the adjacency matrix $A$ of $X$, show that $\abs\lambda \le 2e(n-1)$
\medskip
\textbf{My work so far:} It is easy to find a weaker bound of $\abs\lambda \le\3{2e}$ since $\tr(A^2) = 2e$, but I am kinda stuck on how exactly to introduce the vertices to get the same bound in the problem. Hints?
@sand quarry Has your question been resolved?
Hmm, maybe use the fact that there are n dimensions and then =< n eigenvalues?
uhhh but what exactly does that tell me
wait wait wait wait
I am onto something I reckon
Oh?
,, \lambda + \sum_{i=2}^n\lambda_i = 0 \Implies \sum_{i=2}^n\lambda_i = -\lambda
Yea
,, \lambda^2 +\sum_{i=2}^n\lambda_i^2=2e \Implies \sum_{i=2}^n\lambda_i^2 = 2e-\lambda^2
aight one million dollar question now
how do we use this to bound it
uhhh
im thinking of cauchy-schwarz bcuz of the sum^2
but idk if that would work
why not i guess
Well if $|\lambda | \ge 1$ then $|\lambda | \le |\lambda^2 |$ right?
i dont think we can say that
Texit come on
remove whitespace around $
NotABot
Alright... then what's the most a vector can change?
Entries in the matrix are dependent on the number of edges right? And vectors represent some combination of the vertices
what vectors are we talking about, to be clear
An eigenvector I suppose
But an eigenvector can be written in terms of the vertex representation/basis
well i dont think we need to use the eigenvector to bound this
i dont disagree
but i dont see what you are trying to say
The question is to put a bound on the eigenvalues right?
Eigenvalues measure how much eigenvectors change
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Once, me and my friend was solving a math which had integrals. If I'm not wrong, it was similar to integral of (1-x^2)/(X^4+1), but its probably something different. When I solved it, I got the answer in inverse trignometry. But, when my friend solved it, he got the answer in logarithms. Somehow, both answers were correct. Is there something I am missing, or did one of us make a mistake?
do you know complex numbers?
Yes
do you know e^ix=cosx+isinx?
Yes
so this basically says that exponentials and trigs are the same. so logs and inverse trigs are also the same
Ohhh. So its possible to express logarithms as inverse trig functions?
The other way round, I'd say
see what happens when you add e^ix and e^-ix
Oh. So you can also express trig functions as only exponential?
yes
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triangle inequality 
also make sure that you don't reuse n for all three sides
Hello?
We thought u went undercover
I'm waiting for frowny awesome trick
if the largest side is 19, the others are 18+3, 17+4, 16+5... 16 triangles, also 19,19,2 so 17
if the largest side is 18, the others are 17+5, 15+7, 13+9, 11+11... 7 triangles
17: 16+7, 15+8... 10 plus 17,17,6
16: 15+9, 13+11; 4 triangles
15: 14+11, 13+12, 12+13, 11+4 plus 15,15,10
14,13,13
opens trick
it's bruteforce
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!nosols
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part 5 and 6 i need help with
You can use vieta's formula for part 5
do you know what the sum of the root will be?
alright cool
and what would be the the sum of the products of the roots taken two at a time
11
nice
now you can use this something like this $\sum z_i^2 = \left( \sum z_i \right)^2 - 2 \left( \sum_{i < j} z_i z_j \right)$
MxRgD
how? there are 6 terms, not three, how can i use this
wdym by three terms
yeah
what formula you gave me can only be used for (a+b+c)^2 isnt it?
wait
no
ur right
no it can be used for any amount of terms, the one I gave is more general
i get it
can you tell me how i can write lie that
the texit thing you did
i found answer 78 then
you can put dollar signs like this $[anything]$
MxRgD
$hi$
MxRgD
no i mean the mathematical notations
$\sum$?
MxRgD
as an example
usually you put \ for commands
so like $sin(x)$ is different to $\sin(x)$
MxRgD
is there are channel where i can get the list of nomenclature
you mean #latex-testing and #latex-help ?
$\sum arccot(x)$
Heaven Refining Demon Venerable
oh thanks
can we move on to part 6
basically if a continuous function (like a polynomial) changes sign between two points a and b, there must be a root between those two points
so basically mean value theorem?
how is it different?
oh if it changes sign
o
k
mvt means if c lies between a and b then f(c) lies btw f(a) and f(b)
for a continuous fn
can anyone else help me??
.close
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z^n=(1+z)^n
roots of this equation and what realz will be
you see where both sides have a power of $n$?
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
trivial n = z = 0 (if you define 0^0 = 1)
but 0^0 aint 1
it is?
according to some definition exponentiation is just counting how many ways a set can map to another set, the empty set to the empty set has only 1 mapping so 0^0 = 1?
oh hell nah
see a^0 = 1
and 0^a = 0
so 0^0 suggests two answers
in elementary arithmetic
yo guys
it is undefined
wait for the OP to respond
there are more solutions tho , z = 1/2 and any even n>2 should work
nw yall ain't in trouble
How did you get it
0^0 is undefined
Z=0 should be excluded
(a^x)^y = a^(xy), so you can factor out the 2 in the even n, then by abusing the fact that squaring n and -n gives the same number we can prove [(1/2)^2] and [(-1/2)^2] gives the same thing
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
twin using latex for this is overkill
-# ||making discord's server management heavier and heavier anytime||
i was gonna do roots of unity. but this works as well.
n is positive integer
the only real solution should be z = -1/2 when n is a positive integer
z^n=(1+z)^n
1/2^n = 1/2^n when z = -1/2
1/2^n is not (3/2)^n when z = 1/2 in the first place
oof i forgot the -
i misread and thought it was 1-z lmfao
and I think you can probably prove something like Re(z) is -1/2 in general case so that -1/2 becomes trivially the only real solution
tbh i was going off the dividing n by 2 method
not rigorously proving it like this
I mean if I understand what you intend to do, you are rigourous
it's just a bit of a pain to conclude about 2^n cos(ntheta/2)
i think z = 0 is not a solution since 0^n not equal to (1+0)^n
Buyt why?
So that you can use the identity (a^x)^y = a^(xy)
if n is not divided by 2 then
could you clarify?
@hasty cargo
z^n=(1+z)^n
z^3=(1+z)^3
Thanks
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hold on going through the method its taking a bit of time to do it on paint sorry
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oh I found an elegant solution
the solution im using is roots of unity
yeah sure do your thing
idk if we're talking about the complex part here
but if in reals then sure $z = \frac{-1}{2}$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
ohh i didnt see that 😭
Twin. use n/2 * 2 = n
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oh damn
Pretty sure we are at different levels of math and my logic is certainly not your logic
But thanks
?? |z| = |1+z| is enough to answer op
.reopen
not about logic mate, you can solve algebraically from there if you want
Yes
its probably better then my method actually i think since you get it directly without having to toss through all the other values
do you want the other complex solutions as well or just want reals
well, good news, the complex ones are conjugate and we already know their real parts
bad news they are a pain to write
wait could you check my solution i just want to make sure ive done it right
I mean I can give a look but I haven't checked them myself since it wasn't asked for
alr ty
i didnt manage to simplify it down xd
nth roots of unity
I think you should use exp form rather than algebraic
because from z = w/(1-w) you get e^(itheta)/(1-e^(itheta))
And theta is 2kpi so only cos gives
the cot comes from there
I got it z=1/(costheta-1)+isintheta
so you write it like w = 1+1/z
then like you write it back in terms of z
z = w/(1-w)
yeah
w is nth root of unity
and you have the identity e^(itheta)/(1-e^(itheta)) = -1/2 + i*cot(theta/2)/2
you can prove it by multiplying by e^(itheta/2) on num and denom
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and then apply it to w
so thats why you could just cut off the imaginary bits and get the -1/2
it's the part that simplifies yeah
still easier to see from |z| = |1+z| tbh
it says no access for me
studying role removes math - discussion as of now
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this still looks sick
so if i wanted to get the real solution only for a problem like this in general i could just do this?
gonna open a new channel for the third time now
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Can I ask a question
yes
Asking the actual question right away is more likely to get responses.
Asking "Can I ask...?" or "Does anyone know about...?" doesn't give people enough information to decide whether they can help, and answering can feel like a promise to help with the actual question, which they might find themselves unable to.
This channel just got closed, you want one that's ready for you
also in the future don't delete your first message as the channel will close
We're gonna get locked out any second
tbf it wasn't this OP that nuked the initial msg I presume
but yeah time to move, Infinity
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Hi
Yesterday I tried to proof that this subset of X was indeed a topology, after sending my work to my professor he cleared to me that I haven't used the properties of this subset to proof if it is a topology. So I tried to reformulate my work and reached here:
I will only send the proofs for the arbitrary union axiom and the finite intersection axiom, which are the parts my professor disliked
Arbitrary union axiom
And this is the proof for the finite intersection:
Are this proofs valid? thanks in advance
This sounds like you're assuming what you're trying to prove; you want to prove that the union U_a C_a is an element of T. Also, I think you're mixing up elements of T and elements of R. You wrote "such an element is in the topology", but an element of U_a C_a is an element of R, not T
The main issue is that your proof is fluff, all talk no show
infinite unions of open sets maintain the structure ...
Why tho ? That's exactly the thing you need to show, you’re just saying it's true without justific1tion
Like it's not too hard to give explicitly what A and B tell you that U_aC_a is an open set using the As and Bs of each C_a, do so
Give me a min and I'll send it
This is for arbitrary union axiom
This are one of my firsts proofs so take it with calm please xD
That is essentially the idea yes
Tho you need to show it for arbitrary unions, not just union of 2
okay
let me do it correctly
btw, thanks for the help
Give me one min and ill send it back
Would this be valid?
It’s better but your union still isn’t arbitrary, it’s finite
Like you defined the C_a earlier, use them
isn't it infinite countable?
you mean using the index?
No, n can grow arbitrarily big sure, it’s still a finite number of things you’re unioning each time tho
And your proof should still work for uncountable unions anyway
Up in the paper there is the rest of the proof which hasn't changed since this image
And what are Aa and Ba ?
So each Ca = Aa U Ba right ?
yes sir
Write it then
What alpha are you talking about on the RHS tho ?
what is RHS?
Right hand side of your equation
it is the same alpha as in the left side I mean, it's arbitrary right?
So idk what that right side is supposed to mean here
well, the inside of the union is the definition of open set for this topology
and?
good question xD
Still stuck in square 1 aren’t we
Do I have to say that the union preserves this structure?
Do I have to expand the expression?
You need to write this whole union as (something in Tu) U (something inside Q)
Essentially yeah
Find A in Tu and B inside Q such that this equation is true
That's how you show that the union fits the def of an open set here
this is equal to my definition of open set in my topology
what
But, this applies for every A and every B
but A U B like that is my whole topology
I don't know if im following right
You want to show that the union of open sets is an open set
yeah
An open set here is a set C such that there exists A in Tu , B in Q with C = A U B
yeah
So if the union is to be an open set you need to find such A and B such that Ua Ca = A U B
That's what it means to be an open set right
These A and B will most certainly depend on the Aa and Ba we defined for each Ca
And?
that i could choose every a and b
i mean, all a and b are valid
i don't have to find any because all satisfy
Well no we want A U B to equal the union of Ca
You can't just pick any A and B and expect that to be true
okay
I see
I was seeing it the other way around
For that to be true we have to pick the biggest open set A which contains all the other open sets which are in Tu
So A = all of R ?
because our topology is A U B where A in Tu and B subset of Q, therefor the union of Ca should be the union of all R and Q?
No
Yeah
It has to work for whatever Ca you pick
And it has to be an actual equality each time
Not just UC_a included in A U B, that's a copout
So picking A = R, B = Q always doesn’t work, as I said even with only one open set in the union it doesn’t work, there are open sets in T other than R, these are all counterexamples to your claim
So my claim does not work?
So this is false
Okay, I though that you were saying that the statement was wrong
couldn't I pick a open set from the topology and eliminate Q from it
and the same goes the other way?
A = Z in (T\Q)
B = Y in (T\Tu)
?
I don’t get why you think these A and B should not depend on the C_a in any way
You have to know that I'm stupid, thats the case xD
So may I say A = z in (C_a \ Q) and B = y in (C_a \ T_u)
?
What does that mean ?
that are my A and B xD
for the union
or
may A and B just be elements of C_a
_
As in ?
That sounds more promising
sorry, I'm a bit lost with topology as you may see :/
as in ? xD
elements of C_a which is the same as saying elements of the union of (A_a U B_a)?
Which things in Ua Ca go in A and which ones go in B ?
what do you mean what things in the union go in A and which ones go in B?
Isn't it the opposite
like
you input A and B into C_a?
elements of the usual topology go to A and subsets of Q goes to b
$A \in T_u$ , $B \subseteq \mathbb{Q}$
I don't know how to write what you are asking me xD
S0S4 - Feel free to ping
like
the things in Ua Ca that goes in A and in B
I think there is a language misunderstanding on my part
i am not a native english speaker
Ok i’ll be more explicit
From all the Ca, you have a whole bunch of Aa and Ba
Can you write suitable A and B using these Aa and Ba ?
mmmm
Like the answer is just repackaging these Aa and Ba inside A and B
S0S4 - Feel free to ping
Something a bit like that yes
S0S4 - Feel free to ping
Indeed
So just union all of these Aa to get A
Cause Tu is a topology and the Aa are all in Tu, then Ua Aa is in Tu
Do the same with the Ba, B = Ua Ba
Then A U B is indeed Ua Ca, we’ve just shuffled the Aa and Ba around
It’s sufficient if the person reading your answers in the exam isn’t a hardass but you never know
Cover your ass as ppl say
so should I just specify that A is a element of Tu?
and the same for B?
oh weell
i say it in the proof
this is the fool proof
Ok right with the first paragraph it’s understandable
okay
but this is just for the first axiom
omg
xD
Now we need to go for the other

im going to kms
At least for the intersections you can just pick two open sets
for the intersection axiom is it valid what I did before?
yeah
or say, given a n in the naturals
?
Yeah but intersection of 2 implies intersection for all nats
Cause induction yada yada
And doing it for arbitrary finite sounds like a pain in the ass here
So let’s stick with 2
stick two in the ass?
joking
lets see xD
mods pls dont ban me
let me see how I do this
If you were banned for saying ass, I’d be banned a thousand times
btw, how common is that you get headaches when doing proofs? xD
Apparently only 69 times looking at my whole record here
nice
Do you tend to get headaches for other things ?
no xD
just proofs
like, proving makes me use the 150% of my brain for a long period of time
as you can see a stupid proof takes me hours
and thats having help
"Monkeys get headaches after doing basic proofs"
Monkeys have written all of shakespeare on a typewriter, now they're fking tired
nice reference over there
no fucking way
Well we take two open sets C0 = A0 U B0 and C1 = A1 U B1
And we wanna find A and B such that C0 cap C1 = A U B
(cap is the intersection symbol)
wat is 1+1
this is like the last time right?
Nope it’s different you screwed up the last line
It's unions in the parentheses
Not caps
Now the "refactoring" doesn’t work
im going to kms
That's why I suggested going with 2
It’s not as easy as the first proof
Ua Aa and Ua Ba are pretty obvious choices in retrospect
Here it’s gonna be less obvious
One nice thing to use here is that intersections distribute over unions
1% now
(a+b)(c+d) = ab + ac + bc + bd
Same thing here
Replace + by union
And products are intersections
They work the same
@buoyant verge
My time prolly comes to an end
You’re a big boy
I pushed you through the first thing
Hopefully you can emulate that for the second part
Well, thank you very much, I'll try my best
And this is the trickiest step really
Ill go have some ramen then came again to fight this proof
If you use that you’re pretty much done
bai
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Hello, I'm turning what feels like it should be almost an immediately-done function into a power series,
f(x) = [ -5 / (1 - 10x) ], and finding the interval of convergence.
I might be done, but I could use a check.
It feels too simple, I'm wondering if I got lazy with how I'm looking at r and too-quickly thought it looks like both the bounds of the convergence interval (-1/10 and 1/10) converge by the geometric series test, but I'm having trouble thinking of a reason why they wouldn't.
Your common ratio is 10x, not x.
I've assumed that by the ratio test, I want to have a value of | r | that's less than 1. is it wrong to divide my r < 1 by 10 on each side?
My point is that you identified $r=10x$. But when testing convergence at the endpoints, you used a common ratio of $x$ instead.
Civil Service Pigeon
Also why are you using the ratio test here
The geometric series test tells you the series converges if and only if $|10x|<1$, no need to test endpoints (why?)
Civil Service Pigeon
trying to think of how to word this, one sec
I think I was misremembering the thing with the ratio test, sorry, it probably just got used a lot in the last problems I've done finding the covnergence window for other series.

When I did those, I had to test the convergence of the endpoints because the ratio test is inconclusive at p = 1, so I think I mixed things up.
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Juust to be sure I'm all the way there, in this case I should be putting 10x in as the r for the geometric series?
mhm
/asking "is the sky blue" voice
eh I'm naturally quite terse in general lol
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This is the first assignment my teacher assigned me and I'm completely lost
I would appreciate the help
well for starters, the domain is the set of all values of x such that f(x) is defined
Look at the first one.
when is f(x) undefined?
(hint its a fraction, so the denominator should be ..........)
Umm
the denominator cannot be zero, right?
yes
4+2x=0?
Its -2?
Anything except -2?
yes but we need to write that in a bit better format
does your school accept answers of this sort?
what did you do in class?
No its a bit informal
hm so i assume you know the basics of set theory and a bit of notation?
Yes
try to write it as the difference of two sets, A-B
,texsp$\mathbb{R} - {-2}$
oh wait mb
yes now it is correct
you must envelope 2 in a bracket
we can only subtract sets
not elements.
-2 and not 2
Annie Maqionde
- -?
Is the correct answer supposed to be - (-)?
Oh wait
Im sorry
Got a little confused
There was 2 images
In case you don't know, I'll provide a list for what you need to check given a function to find its domain.\\
- If there is a fraction, check when the denominator is zero.\
- If there is a root/a term of the form $a^{1/n}$ where n is even, check always for $a>0$. Exclude values of $x$ such that $a<0$.\
- If there is a logarithm $log_a{N}$ then always $N>0$, $a=1$, $a>0$. Exclude those values of x for which this doesnt hold.\\
Here ofc, a and N may or may not depend on x(they usually do in given problems)
Annie Maqionde
Ill try working on it myself, thanks for the help!
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How does a Koch snowflake has infinite parameters the parameter increase gets smaller and smaller right? So it should be a number?
if i remember correctly $P_n = 3 \times (\frac43)^n$
Annie Maqionde
the perimeter doesnt get smaller
adding infinitely many decreasing changes doesnt mean that the result is gonna be finite
and yeah, the changes actually do get bigger i think. Youre tweaking it on a small scale, but you're tweaking lots of things at once (there are many corners)
I by 2. 1 by 4 1 by 8.... Sum is 2 right? So
Thats one example.
1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 + 1/5 + ... = infty
Why for that it works but not the other one I infinitely it should reach a really smaller point?
A very good exercise on this would be to analyze the criteria for convergence of a series and where your argument falls.
Basically 1 by 2 1 by 4 1 by 8. Is finite but not 1 by 2 1by 3 1by 4... Sum
And also, the example of the Koch snowflake is one where each size of new sides you add may decrease exponentially to 0, but the amount of new sides you add increases exponentially to infinity
so it's not even 1 + 1/2 + 1/4...
more like 1 + 1/2 * 2 + 1/4 * 4 + ...
which is 1 + 1 + 1...
Do you know how to check the convergence of a series?
even worse
I just want to know why sum decreasing summation series is a number while the other one is infinity even thoug it's decreasing I mean if I sum numbers infinity that r decreasing I should be able to reach a really really small number that doesn't matter any more right?
Like how it is for 1by 2 1 by 4 1 by 8...
The best definition we have for a series is the limit of its partial sums
while 1 + 1/2 + 1/4 + ... + 1/2^n is 2 - 1/2^n
Can u dumb down ur explanation to like a 13 year old?
which goes to 2
Lots of unknown words
So do you know what a series is?
Series summation yes
do you understand the notation i used?
um so a partial sum $S_n$ is a sum of the form $S_n = a_1+......a_n$
Annie Maqionde
Basically, while a series would be summing an infinite amount of terms in some order
In order to define that, we need to start at looking what happens when we sum the first "n" terms
A partial sum is a sum of only a finite number of terms.
(Since it's only a part of the entire summation)
Now let's say we increase $n$. The value that $S_n$ approaches to can be regarded as the sum $a_1+ a_2+..........$ For simplifications, we'll assume $a_1>0, a_2>0,...$.\
What do I mean by approaches? As I increase $n$, the value $S_n$ becomes closer and closer to a certain value. This 'certain value' is called the limit of the partial sums of the series. If this 'certain value' is finite, the limit of the partial sums is said to exist\
Now observe one thing. Let's say the limit of the partial sums of the series is $S$. Then, you can see that $S_n = a_1+a_2+....a_n < a_1+a_2+....a_n+a_{n+1}+.......... = S$. So $S_n < S$. And now let's say some real number $k>S$ then $S_n < k$, right? So one very important rule is that:\\
If the limit of the partial sums exists, then the partial sums must be less than some finite value $k$
Annie Maqionde
If we show that for a particular sequence $a_1...$, no $k$ exists such that $S_n<k$ for ALL $n$, then our job is done.
Annie Maqionde
I'm sorry for the textwalls but you wanted a 13yo explanation, and unfortunately explaining this to a 13yo will involve a lot of text
As for the reason why 1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + ... specifically goes to infty:
1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 + 1/5 + 1/6 + 1/7 + 1/8 + ... is certainly larger than
1 + 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/8 + 1/8 + 1/8 + ... now group the like-terms
1 + 1/2 + 2(1/4) + 4(1/8) + 8(1/16) + ... and this is
1 + 1/2 + 1/2 + 1/2 + 1/2 + ... which goes to infty
Well its the same thing: for the series $1+1/2+....$, there is NO such $k$ such that $S_n<k$ for all n
Annie Maqionde
So the infinity of 1 by 2 1by 3 1by 4..... Is a bigger infinity than 1by 2 1by 4 1by 8.....?
Like the first one will always match the 2nd series numbers but more late. And it's not enough. So the first one isn't fast enought and the numbers still big so it's infinity? So it matters how fast it's decreasing?
A lot of unknown words in that text so didn't understand can u just do English? I think that would be better
Chatgpt said some r infinity cuz it's not decreasing fast enough. Is it like gillbards hotel in veritasium video
- $1/2+ 1/4+ 1/8+.........$ converges. no infinity here
Annie Maqionde
idk what you're talking about
- that method of logic is extremely fallacious.
we don't 'compare' infinitie's' like that
Btw it needs to be said that this whole 1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + ... thing is quite a detour, jsyk. I only brought it up to correct one of the 2 gaps in your reasoning - that sum of increasingly smaller numbers needs to be finite
The reason why koch's snowflakes perimeter goes to infty is much simpler, look at rafi's explanation.
I meant the series is infinite
yes, so?
im going to use VERY vague language here, but both 'infinities' in this case are equal.
Like let's say the series of 1 by 2 1by 3 1by 4. Has all the numbers of 1by 2 1by 14 1by 8. But late so the the first series is a bigger infinite series than 1by 4 1by 8 one
no.
what do you define by bigger infinite series?
if you say the number of terms, the number of terms are uhm uhm 'equal'(vague language but works)
Here is the simplest explanation of why some decreasing series go to 0 and some to inf i can give:
Take a stick of length 1. Go at 0 and move 1/2 to the right, then move half of the remaining distance and repeat. Obviously, this will result in a series that starts like 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + ... and its sum will be finite - it will be 1
Now take a never-ending stick. Again start at 0 and walk a distance of 1m. Once you're at the 1m, decrease your step size to 1/2 and keep walking until you cover a distance of 1m (that's 2 steps). Now decrease your step size to 1/3 and keep walking until you cover a distance 1m, so 3 steps. And continue like this. Obviously, this way youll get as far as you wish - if you do enough steps.
This results in the sum 1 + 1/2 + 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/3 + 1/3 + 1/4 + 1/4 + 1/4 + 1/4 + ... and the sum of this series will be infinite - because it cant be finite, we can cover arbitrary distance.
thats actually offtopic here
I understand the Koch one the original one should I go to another channel for this question or continue?
you may continue ig. (idk)
But we are just assuming the sticks r finite and infinite from the start
in the first one, i always walked half of the remaining distance to the end of the stick
that means that id never go beyond that stick
so finite stick sufficed
you could probably remove the sticks completely
Lets just say that in the first case, I always walk half the distance to 1 and in the second one, i always keep walking at steps of size 1/n until i reach 1 meter and then I change n by 1, so my new step size is 1/(n+1)
the 2nd series will always have the numbers of that halfing series so the 2nd series should also reach finite number? Cuz the nplus 1 series is just halfing series plus all the other numbers ? It will be a bigger finite number result ?
how big do you think could it be?
maybe it could be around a 100 lets say
first I walk 1
Then 1/2 + 1/2
then 1/3 + 1/3 + 1/3
1/4 + 1/4 + 1/4 + 1/4
1/5 + 1/5 + 1/5 + 1/5 + 1/5
at this point, ive walked 5 meters
if i did it all the way to 100 rows, i would be at 100 already
and I wouldnt be done!
so it certainly has to converge to something greater than 100
and you could do the same for any finite number
ill always surpass it, if i do enough steps
1 +
1/2 + 1/2 +
1/3 + 1/3 + 1/3 +
1/4 + 1/4 + 1/4 + 1/4 +
1/5 + 1/5 + 1/5 + 1/5 + 1/5 +
...
Notice that each row is literally 1. So im just summing infinitely many 1's, ofc thats not gonna be finite
But it's not 1 by n into n. It's just 1 by n summation.
I just don't understand if 1 by n series sum reaches a really small number infinitely then it shouldn't matter if it increases or like 1 by 100 quintillion so then we can say it's just a finite number right? Just like how we do with the halfing one?
It absolutely does matter
for the 1/n summation, see this
there is no reason to expect that summing infinitely many, albeit very small numbers will always get us a finite result
just as there is no reason to expect that summing infinitely many very small numbers will always get us an infinite result
you need a better argument than "it seems like it should be finite"
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So I’m trying to do this problem
Any 1-D lie alg is abelian isnt it

