#help-27
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(degrees)
that's for your situation
yea i know sin+cos=90 but how does thta factor into these indeinites
hm
lemme think rq
u can prove these on unit circle
even chatgpt can prove it for u try texting it tbh
bro would you shut up
AI's not recommended tho
how i not stupid i already tried for 2 hours i dont get it
so I usually don't ping mods over this kind of stuff, but <@&268886789983436800> rather poor behaviour in help channels, including encouraging OP to turn to AI for help.
past poor behaviour: #help-12 message and #help-12 message.
sinx is the y coordinate,
trace an angle A, and then angle B after A
the net y coordinate would be sin(A+B)
I dont support use of AI, but in this case I guess, use of AI is fair , cause it actually helps you understand proofs
it isn't neccesary here tho
thank you!
damn das crazy
This is getting messy
i mean it can be a way to prove the uhh thing
no didnt leanr complex trig
if the OP decides to use AI himself, that's his choice to do so, but as helpers directing them to AI is never a good idea.
I believe OP came to this server and asked questions specifically in this server for humans to answer.
strong point that i agree
yeah, I also agree tbh
This is the rule of thumb indeed
is the user handled may i ask?
Now please, go back to either helping or not participating to noise in this channel
is OP's doubt cleared btw?
for y but how does x work
i get y but not x part here
Also, how silly that suggestion may have been, there's no need to resort to this
x coordinate is for the cosine
same process trace an angle A, then B, and the net x coordinate is cos(A+B)
yea so why do we combine cosb with sina instead of writing sina+ sinb +- cos a cosb
becuasse in cosine we dont split it but in sin we do
?
so ur problem is understanding that trig identity?
yea
i think theres a geometric way of looking at this
However, its like the middle of the night for me rn
becuase to form the right angle we have to take the radius of 1 here whcih i get but i dont get the resk of it becuasse the deigtram is like sin45+cos45 = the full 90 but i odnt get the split
becuase the sin of 1 angle is the cosine of the other they add to 90 becuase of right triangles so sin(45)+cos(45)=90 but then if we take hl to prove 1 line is relfective how does sin and cosine land on the same line
<@&286206848099549185>
are we doing the geometry or unit circle here?
trig
but geomerty og course
here $a = \angle DBA$ and $b = \angle CBE$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
yea
new diagram
from this diagram, can you find $\sin A$, $\sin B$, $\cos A$, $\cos B$ for me?
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
im trying to build up my proof now so don't judge me if im wrong
i haven't looked into the proof yet
interesting, this the first time ive seen this proof for it
the sin of a would be the lenght of segment be/be
since a is laregst angle here
in <abe
oh i mean <bae
hm
i think it be better to think of it as in unit circle
but maybe im just biased tho
i don't do much trig so i'd do geo more to prove this
oh okay
well be is reflective here no
lemme see, $\sin A = \frac{AD}{DB} = \frac{DE}{CD}$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
$\sin B = \frac{CE}{BC}$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
$\cos A = \frac{AB}{BD} = \frac{CE}{CD}$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
$\cos B = \frac{BE}{BC}$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
@tall trellis Has your question been resolved?
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what do I do if im trying to use the quotient rule but the numerator equation is raised to a power like (# +- #x)^#/x^#+-#
do I just move the raised power to each variable inside the parenthesis ?
using hashtags is crazy
;-;
Azyrashacorki
It becomes $n (a+bx)^{n-1} \cdot (a+bx)' = n(a+bx)^{n-1} \cdot b$
Azyrashacorki
You should practice the chain rule. $(f(g(x)))' = f'(g(x)) \cdot g'(x)$.
Azyrashacorki
Here $f(x) = x^n$ and $g(x) = a+bx$
Azyrashacorki
f'(x) = nx^n-1 g'(x) = b
a+bx^n-1 * b
I feel like I know how to use the chain rule it's just a bit hard when trying to represent it only using letters
n(a+bx)^(n-1) * b
ok so If i took (9x+10)^6 and applied this I would get 6(9x+10)^5 * 6(9)^5
No. (x^6)' = 6x^5 and (9x+10)' = 9, so the derivative is
(derivative of outside with inside plugged in) * derivative of inside = 6(9x+10)^5 * 9
@magic echo Has your question been resolved?
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i need to prove these by induction i had help doing the first one but im still a little lost on the rest
Hi, next time please send it as a picture
Okay, so for the 2nd one, do you know what the big O notation means?
definitorically
f(n) = O(g(n)) where f(n) is always less than g(n)
um not quite
f(n) = O(g(n)) if there are constants c and k, such that
f(n) <= c*g(n) for all n > k
in words, if f(n) is eventually smaller than constnat multiple of g(n)
okay
So for what constant c do you think that n^2 < c*n! will eventually hold?
well it depends on what value n is
all n
we want it to work for all sufficiently high n
now you can just take a guess, we are only trying to find the constant c. We dont need to prove it yet
im not sure but ill guess 5
uh, that works but is somewhat arbitrary
do you think that n^2 <= n! will work? n^2 <= 3n! will work? n^2 <= 5n! will work?
by "will work" i mean will be true for large enough n
okay i think every value but 0 will work for large enough n
Great, so lets just pick the simplest one, 1
okay
5 works too, but is kinda arbitrary. You could use it though, its just quite random
so we will try to prove that n^2 <= n!
how large does n have to be for it to work?
Just try few small values of n
until you think it will work
i think 5 will work
yeah, sure, so let's try proving that it works for n>=5
i think it actually works from n = 4, but we can do 5 as well
so let's start by the base case. Can you state it and verify that it works?
5^2 = 25 and 5! = 120 and 25 <= 120 is true so the base case where n = 5 is true
im not sure how
Inductive step works by assuming that it works for n, and then proving that it works for n+1
If we can manage to prove that, then we are done
because it working for 5 implies that it also works for 6
and then it working for 6 implies that it works for 7
...
So we need to prove this
So suppose that it works for n
that means n^2 <= n!
and our goal is proving that it works for n+1, that is
(n+1)^2 <= (n+1)!
is this part clear? If not, what specifically is unclear? If yes, try doing some algebra and try to prove it, or at least simplify it a bit
i understand this part its the next part im unsure about
okay so you dont know how to prove that (n+1)^2 <= (n+1)! ?
yea i dont know
In induction, we always try to use the inductive hypothesis somehow, in our case the hypothesis is n^2 <= n!
so we will probably need n^2 and n! to appear somewhere in the inequality
(n+1)^2 <= (n+1)!
Can you try simplifying this so that it has n^2 somewhere and n! somewhere?
what do you mean by n^2 somewhere and n! somewhere?
Just simplify it until you see n^2 and n! somewhere in the inequality
like you can expand (n+1)^2
and you can also rewrite (n+1)! using the recursive defn of factorials
idk how to do that sorry
do you know how to expand (n+1)^2
there is an (a+b)^2 identity ||(a+b)^2 = a^2 + 2ab + b^2||
try using that
or just write it as (n+1) * (n+1) and carry out the multiplication
sorry i got no idea whats going on why does (n + 1) * (n + 1) equal n^2
it doesnt equal n^2
what is it equal to?
Can you expand it
using this identity
n^2 + 2n1 + 1^2
perfect
2n1 is just 2n
because 2n * 1 = 2n
so its n^2 + 2n + 1
what about (n+1)!, can you simplify that somehow?
k! = k * (k-1)!
this is the relevant identity here
n * (n -1)!
sorry i dont understand what any of this means
hm, you should probably practice algebra a bit then
(n+1)! would be (n+1) * n!
that's what we get when we replace k by n+1 in here
k! = k * (k-1)!
(n+1)! = (n+1) * (n+1-1)! = (n+1) * n!
does it make more sense now? It's just algebra with squares and factorials
how did you get (n + 1) * (n + 1-1) wouldnt it be n * (n + 1-1)
not really, because k was replaced by n+1
so k * (k-1)! turns into (n+1) * (n+1 - 1)!
we replace all the k's by n+1
that's how substitution works
oh okay
so we get this
notice that now we have n^2 and n! in the inequality, so we have a little more hope on applying the n^2 <= n! inductive hypothesis
yea
but we'd still need the n! to stand separately, and not in a product with n+1
so we can distribute it
do you know how to expand / multiply out (n+1) * n!
(n+1)/(n+1)?
not quite
do you know how to expand
3 * (x+2)
or rather (x + 2) * 3 (which is the same thing)
3x + 6
so you probably did sth like this in ur head
multiplied x by 3 and then 2 by 3
and then added it up
can you do something similar with
(n+1) * n!
2n! + n!?
nearly
it would be
n * n! + n!
you cant really simplify n * n!, so you gotta keep it as it is
okay
$n^{2}+2n+1\le n\cdot n!+n!$
MathIsAlwaysRight
hence it suffices to prove
2n + 1 <= n * n!
because then you can add it with n^2 <= n!, and you get the above
so our goal now is just proving that
2n + 1 <= n * n!
you can think of it as kind of "canceling", because we already know that n^2 <= n!, so we just need to check whether that inequality holds for the other part as well
for all these questions do i need to learn the identities of all the values like (n+1)^2 = n^2 + 2n1 + 1^2 and that (n+1)! = (n+1) * n!
i dont really understand why we need to go from (n+1)^2 to n^2 + 2n1 + 1^2
that's part of algebra knowledge I'd say
The motivation behind that step is because we're trying to apply the inductive hypothesis n^2 <= n!, so we need n^2 to be somewhere. And simplest way to make n^2 appear is applying that identity
I think that you dont really have trouble with induction, you're quite weak on your algebra though
I think that you should probably revisit algebra
is this for uni / hs / self-training for olympiad or sth else?
for uni im doing computer science
I see
If math is part of that, you will definitely need to revise HS algebra
try khanacadmey
okay thx
it takes some time, but it's worth it
i was also wondering The motivation behind that step is because we're trying to apply the inductive hypothesis n^2 <= n!, so we need n^2 to be somewhere. And simplest way to make n^2 appear is applying that identity why do we need n^2 to appear?
because n^2 is part of the inductive hypothesis n^2 <= n!
the idea in induction questions like this one is usually that you try to get the induction hypothesis on both sides like this (left side has n^2, right side has n!. They make n^2 <= n! together) and then "cancel" them
but also, the motivation is also just algebra
most algebra students would spit out n^2 + 2n + 1 immidiately when they look at (n+1)^2
it's pretty much the only thing you can do with it
well, more like it allows you to cancel the n^2 later
and simplifies the goal to
2n + 1 <= n * n!
which is a pretty major simplification
Now 2n+1 <= 3n (we know that n >= 5..) and 3n <= n! n, because 3 <= n! (again, we know n >= 5 and its pretty obvious that n! will be atl east 3 from there)
so 2n+1 <= 3n <= n! n = n! * n, so it's proved and we're done
where does the 3n come from?
i made it up because it made it simpler for me to prove it
there are many other ways to prove it though
2n+1 is kind of difficult to work with algebraically, because it contains both a linear term and a constant term
so to avoid that difficulty, I decided to replace 1 by n, because n is obviously larger than it
so 2n + 1 <= 2n + n = 3n
now i asked myself, does 3n <= n * n! still hold? Intuitively, yes. That n! still grows very very fast
so that simplification probably didn't impact the validity of the claim
and it made it easier to prove, because now both sides are multiples of n
the left side is 3 * n, the right side is n! * n
and since 3 < n!, we know that it's true
another way to do it would be doing:
near the beginning
in the induction step do i always need to simplify it down like that or can i just leave it at 2n + 1 <= n * n!
you still need to prove that
so you have to prove it somehow
can my proof be like the base case where i just insert n = 5 and solve it that way?
unfortunately not
you need both the base case and the inductive step
is this for a homework or are you studying for an exam or sth?
this is homework
I see, what would happen if you didnt submit it? Or submitted it late? I think it'd be much more beneficial for you to learn algebra at this point
i dont think you can do proofs by induction without understanding algebra
its not graded so i can do it whenever
If I were you, I'd probably try to catch up on algebra
look at khanacademy and try to do as much of the algebra as you can (you can take the course tests to figure out what you know already, and what you struggle with)
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i appreciate your time
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can you help me with linear equations
Asking the actual question right away is more likely to get responses.
Asking "Can I ask...?" or "Does anyone know about...?" doesn't give people enough information to decide whether they can help, and answering can feel like a promise to help with the actual question, which they might find themselves unable to.
what is linear equations
A linear equation is some equation where every term is either constant or some degree 1 term with constant coefficient.
linear equations are things like 7x+3=4 and 17x-1=23+5x
and not things like 8x^2-3x+7=11 or x^x=13
think if its in the form ax + b = 0 where a =/ 0 (can you see why a =/ 0)?
dont restrict a. unless you want to tell me that 7x+3-2x=4x+2+x+1 shouldnt count as a linear equation
@wary dust Has your question been resolved?
naw, its an identity rather than equation
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:𝐂𝐥𝐨𝐬𝐞
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Do you have a non red marked image
Ye
Great show that
What else is given in the problem
Sadly that is it
What are you assuming about the shapes then
Oh wait well
It said that its a rectangle
The left shape is semi circle and the right is a quadrant circle
Amazing context
Real
But we can see thanks to that the radius of the semi circle is half the radius of the quadrant
hint
Youtube live shorts
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can someone tell me if this is the right approach
log(a+b) != log a + log b
no
you can do sinx = t but i dont think it will simplify things here
OHHHshit thats what i did
hm hmm
so what would be the right way to start
and like what alll approaches can i think of
before directly jus diffrentiating
Good handwriting sakura
if it looks complicated you can try a substitution but you need to think what will that result in
like here x^sinx * sinx ^ x is not that hard to differentiate on its own
hmm hmm like the sinx= t one was not very effective
yea i mean i can by parts
yeah if it simplifies one term but turn the other terms to shit then its no good
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you were correct with the log step, but i think in the given equation you should differentiate both the terms differently and use log one only for the first term
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rightt that would have been simpler thanks
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sakura from the hit anime "naruto"?
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Gng i need help
the general trick for this infinite square roots is that the inner square roots are exactly like x
I have a exam today
that's an observation you gotta make for those infinite series
So i make it quadratic?
but i worry that some of these kinds of series don't have a value or smth
they kinda do?
uhhhh not quite
some
no
example
i didn't even remember
Cuz i gort 1+root2
well wait you can do quadratic
yes basically
mb 😭
By using quadratic equation i got that
GOT IT
Its correct
nice
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you’re missing another value though
wait nvm
hate imaginary 😞
RAHHHHHHHHHH
Can any infinite real process have an imaginary result 🤔
if infinite is even
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Hello I have no idea how to continue from this
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how they got to dx/dx
but for y it is dy/dx
multivariate chain rule
(it also kinda looks like the product rule which it is, but that's hard to prove)
dyk abt tree diagrams in chain rule
idk if its a thing, our prof explained it to us like that
um idts
how does the chain rule apply here?
if y isn't implicitly a function of x then i'm not sure what they could possibly mean by d/dx f(x, y)
@gray oriole Has your question been resolved?
can i denote the derivative as f_r?
yes
why not fxr?
i took dx/dr first then i did df/dx so maybe it makes sense to use f_x_r for this
or f_r_x
they have defined f as a function of x and y which themselves are functions of r and θ
so you may think of f as a function of r and θ and it makes sense to differentiate f with respect to r
there is no need to include x in this
also if you included x and you would need to include y as well since f depends on both
it is just not necessary in the notation to keep track of x and y
(the pinned one)
also f_xy means something else; it means
,tex $ frac{partial^2}{partial x partial y} f $
which is a totally different thing
it is just the chain rule
Did hayley not already answer your question
@gray oriole Has your question been resolved?
but x and y are not functions in my case, the definition of chain rule she shared was saying that x and y are functions of another variable t
x and y are functions of r and θ
but it is not mentioned anywhere in the original image i shared
this is just a derivation of the implicit diff formula
well non rigourous maths tends to be hand wavy like that
Technically what they are doing is this
they take an implicit function and just put it equal to f(x,y)
then they do this
You start with a function f: ℝ² -> ℝ
you are given a coordinate change ψ: ℝ² → ℝ² and now consider the composition fψ
ψ is the thing that translates polar coordinates (r, θ) to Cartesian coordinates (x, y)
but the proof above does not talk about polar coordinates
how are the related here?
im just asking how they did this
well it is implicit in the setup
how
it is implicit in terms of y but then we just took that away from it by setting it equal to z
x and y are both independent now arent they
cuz now z = f(x,y)
x and y are considered as functions x(r, θ) and y(r, θ)
then f is a function of r and θ given by f = f(x(r, θ), y(r, θ))
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The work that the mass did from picture 1 to 2 is m * g * H, right?
it should be negative I think?
Why
idk
Anyways, now I want the maximal height H wrt L, mass and F
Conservation of energy must be useful somehow
True
Any ideas?
Ill try wait
Ok well we also know that $$W = \int_0^P \vec F(\vec r) \dd \vec r = \int_0^1 \vec F(\varphi(x)) \dot \varphi(x) \dd x = H \int_0^1 \vec F(Hx) \dd x = H^2 \int_0^H \vec F(u) \dd u$$ and so $$W = H^2 (E_{\text{pot}}(H) - E_{\text{pot}}(0))$$ with $\varphi(x) = Hx$ because its conservative and so it doesnt matter what way we choose
And as path, we can choose the straight line
Since its conservative
And F is constant so we can pull it out
But yeah I feel like this is the way
work is informally lost energy, the mass gained mgH joules, so it did −mgH
W = mgH but also this integral with F
Ok but if I ask "what work did the wind do to the mass" it might be different than the other way around
so if the problem is posed this way
Yeah
So its positive
r = phi, dr = dot phi dx
Now let u = Hx, then du = H dx
Ok wait i think im getting somewhere
How about this
Like when the wind keeps blowing, it will reach a point where like it will be in equillibrium and then it drops down again
Assume that point and try to do stuff maybe?
Equating forces
And i think there would be no centrifugal force that point
ILikeMathematics
Hey guys. I’m trying to learn calc for the first time. Does anyone wanna help me
#1021175428326633542 not here
ILikeMathematics
No idea what this is, im in 10th grade 😭😭😭
That sentence feels wrong ;-;
I mean, is the potential energy in this situation (pendulum) the kinetic energy or the elevation energy
elevation, right?
Potential would just be mgH
Ill be really surprised if this is the answer tho lol
Actually, its apparently not mgH at all
W = F * x and we can look at the distance travelled in x-direction which is by Pythagoras sqrt(L^2 - (L - H)^2)
(because the work in direction travelled upwards and not in x-direction will be 0 because F is perpendicular to that)
but why is it not mgH too
Well it probably is both
Anyways thanks
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(in this case we can set F * x = mgH and solve)
(maybe your method works too, though)
gpt says the same method as me but ig im not aupposed to promote that
oo i see tbh work kind of confuses me sometimes lol
positive doesn't make sense anyway
Force and displacement are in the same direction, so by definition W=FScostheta work done would be positive..
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What
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Help this is what I've done so far but I don't know what the mapping diagram is and how to do it to do the right table of values
@final bronze Has your question been resolved?
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uhh u still want help on this?
no i figured it out but idk if it's gonna stay in my head till tuesday for my test 😅
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what is your ratios? Does Soh Cah Toa ring a bell?
Yeah
what does it mean
I did sohcahtoa but I think I messed up
Sine cos tan
It’s the
Opposite/hypotenuse
Adjacent/hypotenuse
And opposite/adjacent
I think
Wait
correct
Oh yay
so, if we want tan(G) thats Opp/Adj right
Yeah
so which side lengths would that be in the above triangle
32 and 40?
yes, and is 32 or 40 the opposite or adjacent ?
The opposite
hmm, so in a right triangle, the hypotenuse is the longest side right , and we want the opposite and adjacent so should we have 40?
indeed, we want 24 and 32
adjacent is the side that connects the right angle and the point you want that doesnt include the longest side length
OH
yes
So Adjacent is never the longest?
OH
only hypotenuse is the longest
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Ohh
Okay!
Tysm!
I was doing it wrong
TYYYY
np, any other things you needed assistence with?
Nope!
TYSM 😭
The calculator doesn’t need to be in degree form for tan right
Like degree mode
depends
you should have degree and radian, the calculator is normally used in degree for these types of questions
Aha
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How do I solve this without using the divisibility rule?
(The answer is 9) except I had to look up the divisibility rule for 13
observing a pattern we get 10^5+10^4+10^3+10^2+10^1+10^0 leaves zero reminder when devided by 13
so if we write N=10^49+10^48+10^47...+X(10^25)+10^24..+10^0
i think using this we can say the reminder simplifies down to 10^49+(X-1)10^25
why a (X-1)?
because we need consecutive powers of 10
but 10^25 has X as co eff so we add 1 and subtract the one which we added will contribute to series
do yk binomial theorem?
yup
ok
oh that's gonna be a pain
10^49 is just 13-3 whole power 49
so -3^49 now hmm
i mean i think this might be little better
wait
so it is -3 x (3^48) or -3x (3^3)^16 or -3x (27)^16
27 is 26+1 !
wait
well binomial thm is annoying to deal with so i figured comparing multiples would be easier
oh
10^49+(x-1)^25 = (10^25)(10^24+x-1), therefore I only need to look at 10^24+x-1
10^25 gives 10 remainder btw
? wdym
yea but that doesnt matter
I know it's not divisible by 13 anyways so I can discard it
ic
I was thinking about using the little bit of mod I know next
10^24 is 13-3 whole power 24 so 3^24 meaning (3^3)^8 or 27^8 so 1 remainder?
yea but same thing with the binomial thm
I could do it
but it's annoying and has a lot of terms
x cant be 0 because its not an option and x can not be 13 because it is not a digit
also x is 9(i checked with the divisibility criteria)
how did you end up at 11111/13 is an integer?
yes but calcs arent allowed for this exam, so if there's a shortcut ya used that'd be great
?
i consided pairs of 6 successive powers of 10
so 10^0-10^5 would be next 10^6-10^11... so last one would be i think 10^42-10^47
ya just consider 10^48 in this i think you will be done
so add 10^48 to this
taking common , i think 10^23 goes inside
100x 10^21 10^21 is just 1 so uhm
9 would be remainder due to that
bro this is ragebait i quit
theres also a way to do this using 1000 = -1 mod 13
Im not really comfortable with mods all that much(idk inverses etc etc, mod is technically outside the syllabus but i know the very basics)
ah
oki ya wanna hear my solution?
sure
isn't the factorization 1001 = 7 * 11 * 13 famous?
thus 111111 = 1001 * 111 = 3 * 7 * 11 * 13 * 37
using $11111 = 10^5+10^4+10^3+10^2+10^1+10^0$ (Let this number be $\alpha$)
You can whittle the problem down to:
$10^{25}+10^{24}+...+ 10x+1$ is divisible by 13.
Now instead of subtracting $\alpha$, just $10^{\beta}\cdot\alpha$ from it repeatedly(where $\beta + 5 = $ remaining highest power of 10).
At the end of the sequence, you'll be left with 10x+1 is a multiple of 13
and since we know x is a single digit, we get:
$7\cdot13 = 91$, since $9\cdot10+1 = 7\cdot13$
$x = 9$
Supernova
idk is it? i've never heard it
hm i see
it’s a fun factorization to memorize
the product of 3 consecutive primes is 10^3 + 1
Supernova
oh interesting
and its general?
no sadly
,w factorize 100001
My problem with this proof however is that if I didn't know 111111 is divisible by 13, that'd be incredibly hard to find
,calc 11111/13
Result:
854.69230769231
Most of the exams I have don't allow calculators, and im not sure this one does
it’s not?
typo
111111
it's a neat proof but its kinda contingent on me knowing a singular number
you could notice that 111111 = 111 * 1001 for instance
and then 1001 = 10^3 + 1^3 = (10 + 1)(10^2 - 10 + 1)
If I don't know that I have to look for 111111, then I wouldnt even try that far, no?
oh yeah
memorizing the famous factorization is probably the best you could do ig 
or learn modulo so i can do the inverses
😭
lol
modular arithmetic is really handy
ye i know like the very basics, idk the rules for multiplication or division
multiplication is the same
division is the euclidean algorithm and a few theorems
$(p-1)! \equiv -1 \bmod p$
doesnt imply that if im reading that right
Supernova
Bezout’s Lemma. For integers a and b there exist integers c and d such that ac + bd = gcd(a, b).
this is the basis of division in mod
I think i'll learn it in college 😭
this is formed by pairing inverses
i learned this stuff in 6th ngl
it’s technically elementary number theory
I meant to reply to learning mod
The current time for nadat12 is 10:56 PM (PDT) on Sun, 08/03/2026.
aight cya
cya
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How to show that steiners symmetrzation preserves measure? I know it has to be with fubini but fubini isnt useful for the normal basis?
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@gritty saddle Has your question been resolved?
-> adv channels
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how to do (a)
(the determinant is 0)
so that means the equations are linearly dependent
does that conclude a no unique solution?
With a system with n variables and n equations and 0 determinant, no unique solution indeed
When determinant is 0, either there are no solutions or an infinity of them
Hope that helps @gray oriole
NO unique solution when number of equations is same as number of unknowns?
isnt that the other way around
Edited, reread
so how do i figure out which one is (a)
the determinant is 0
hmmmm
is unique solution the same as no solution?
Well the question doesn't ask you that
No
A unique solution = exactly 1 solution
Different from 0 solutions
If you want to know, you probably need to RREF the system
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Let h->0.
Isn't the thickness Rsin(θ+h) - Rsin(θ) = R(sin(θ) cos(h) + sin(h) cos(θ) - sin(θ)) = R(hcos(θ)) = Rhcos(θ)?
@mild sorrel Has your question been resolved?
For small theta cos(theta) = 1 and h = dtheta
So rd(theta)
Theta itself isn't small; it ranges from 0 to pi/2
h is small
Nvm. I've got it. I just need to consider the discs as frustums, not as cylinders.
Yes you're right.
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What's did I do wrong
Result:
80.4
,calc 75-1.8 * 12 - 15 * 1.8
Result:
26.4
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.is asking non math q's not allowed?
-6b when u were getting 2nd equation
Huh
u wrote -7b
there is a formula lowk
In this video, Anmol discusses how we can use the relation between sum and product of roots and the coefficients of the quadratic equation to find the value of the unknown in the given equation.
For more free lessons & practice - https://www.khanacademy.org/math/in-in-grade-10-ncert
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Tysm
I keep getting it wrong
It’s suppose to be -3
Nvm Ik why
Actually nvm
The leading coefficient isn't 1, it's -2
So to get the factored quadratic into (x-root1) * (x - root2) = 0 you divide both sides by -2 first
Wait wha
-2x^2 + ... = 0
When you expand this factored form the coefficient multiplying x^2 is 1. But your quadratic doesn't match that
,rotate
I don’t understand
which part
.
factoring means writing as a product of two or more terms
in this case specifically, it'll be 2 terms
6p^2 = (first term) * (second term)
I still don’t get it
find a way to multiply two terms to get 6p^2
the answer is basically here
I don’t understand why
just like all your other problems, you're expanding (x-root1)(x-root2) to get something like x^2 + x(root1 + root2) + root1 * root2 = 0
so you're matching coefficients. 6p^2 is the only term in the problem that doesn't have an x. so you set it equal to root1 * root2
I still don’t get it
...
well start by expanding (x - p)(x-p) and see what you're not getting in your problem
then slowly change the first (x-p) and second (x-p) to see if you can match what you're given in the problem
The easier the question the more the attention
Wht sre we doing this
!occupied
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I don’t understand why
the intent is to write the equation as (x-root1)(x-root2) = 0
so you can solve for x
Is it Bx it’s x^2
Bc
Why do we find two x’s
product of two numbers = 0 implies one OR both numbers equal 0
2 * 0 = 0, 0 * 3 = 0, and 0 * 0 = 0
Ok
@potent compass Has your question been resolved?
so what have you tried
I tried the quadratic formula and got it wrong
quadratic formula should also give the correct answer
this is simpler though
show
what's the equation here may i ask?
𝓧-5px+6p^2
why do you think this is wrong
do you know how to simplify to get two expressions?
Yes
,tex .cts
riemann
It’s not working
It's faster if you just show your work rather than have me ask for the third time
yea there's not enough information to understand what you mean by "not working"
all you have is an expression and some algebra
I was trying to solve all the dashed lines
Qiestion 15
But I’m going to take a shower
,rotate
you only factored 2 out of x^2, not the rest of the terms
how can i make your factoids work
Wdym
,, (x+\frac{9}{2})^2 = x^2 + 9x + \frac{81}{4}
I don’t understand this
mercy
so $2(x+\frac{9}{2})^2 = 2x^2 + 18x + \frac{81}{2}$
mercy
what do you not understand
(a+b)^2=a^2+2ab+b^2
,, (x+\frac{9}{2})^2 \
= (x)^2 + 2(x)(\frac{9}{2}) + (\frac{9}{2})^2 \
= x^2 + 9x + \frac{81}{4}
mercy
firstly if you add something to an equation you subtract the same otherwise the equation is changed
so in the second line
when you add 81/16 you subtract it
Huh
O Uk r how
*like how
you had ax^2 +bx +c
then you add some t to the equation
ax^2 +bx +c +t -t
it remains same, like adding zero
4 +8-8 = 4
For this do I factor out two
you could do that to simplify things up
hm.. how can i put in different words
split -8x into something
these 2 numbers should multiply to 12 and add up to -8
yes factoring out 2 first is correct
Not jormal factorization
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
completing the square means making a square
a square is just $(a - b)^2 = a^2 - 2ab + b^2$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
here your $a^2$ is $x^2$, $-2ab$ is your $-4x$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
so you can easily figure out that $b$ is $2$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
so you can find what $b^2$ is and split the $3$ accordingly
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
this is basically the same idea
I don’t ur tests d urs
???
Oh
Wait why -4
So 3-4?
I thought u gave up on me
Like this pls
Can someone explain uh the two different completing the square tu me pls
The one with quadratic
And the normal one
hmm?
hm
factoring an expression means you have to keep the expression the same
+4 +4 changes the expression
+4 -4 doesn't change the expression because 4 - 4 = 0
and adding 0 doesn't change the expression
thing + 0 = thing
H ok
Erm what about quadratic
What’s the difference
And Ty for staying w me for this long
Ik Im stressful
Im back
i also explained that here
Ig reimann explained it , same goes with prev question
$\
2x^2 + 9x + 3$ \
$\implies 2x^2 + 9x + \frac{81}{16} + 3 + \frac{81}{16}$\
this was wrong because $\frac{81}{16}$ is added twice.
so should be $+81/16$ and $-81/16$ \
adding correctly
$2x^2 + 9x + 3 = 2x^2 + 9x + \frac{81}{16} + 3 - \frac{81}{16}$
mercy
Tysm
Oh ok
Then I don’t use the positive one
But the negative
Second $\frac81/16$ was not correct
If you take
$\
2x^2 + 9x + \frac{81}{16} + 3 - \frac{81}{16} \$
Then factor $2$ from the first three terms
$\
2(x^2)+2(\frac{9}{2}x)+2(\frac{81}{32}+3 - \frac{81}{16}$ \
$\implies 2(x^2 + \frac{9}{2}x + \frac{81}{32}) + 3 - \frac{81}{16}$ \
However, look inside the bracket
$x^2 + \frac{9}{2}x + \frac{81}{32}$ \
Is not a perfect square
mercy




