#help-27
1 messages · Page 411 of 1
Then what’s the “change in position”
But what about the change in position
what about it?
Like you’re going from a to where
Velocity = some change in position / time it took for that change to happen
Okay what’s the some change in position here
From where to where
I guess if it helps you conceptualize this, no, you don't need another point to get the derivative. The derivative of a function is only dependent on the point you are taking the derivative at and the function itself
Okay
So if it’s that point itself and you’re not going to another point then.. there’s no change in position/ time you got there ?
nope, that's why it's instantaneous
So then how are you supposed to calculate velocity
Because velocity is some change in distance / time
What you described just gives us the point itself
as i said earlier, that’s average velocity
that’s the difference
So this is average velocity? **Without the limit **
And the limit makes it instantaneous velocity ?
Yes as it now turns it into a derivative
the limit is just a part of the definition of the derivative
If you were to measure position over time, you wouldn't need to measure velocity - you can directly calculate it by plotting your position over time as a function f(t) and then taking the derivative at every t to get a function f'(t), which describes the derivative at every point t
So I shouldn’t think of derivative as being some change / time it took for that change to happen right
Hello
Hi
What y’all up too
Well, what we're describing doesn't seem to be working for you conceptually so I guess not
you should think of a derivative as how much the original function wants to change at that point i guess could be a way
not how i think of it but i don’t think it’s a mischaracterization of the idea either it’s probably a fine way to go about it
Im trying to think of it’s a partial moving then you snap a picture at some point
Particle**
maybe you just need to think of it more abstractly
the derivative of a function f(x) at the point a is the function's slope at the point a
The problem is I wanna actually understand what’s going on or else I won’t know what I’m doing
Also understand that a derivative provides you with a tangent line, the slope of that tangent line is what is important
Ngl this makes me more confused
I like to think of a derivative as just a linear approximation whose error is less than any linear term
But essentially that’s what the difference quotient is
If you’re gonna subtract two points you’re gonna get a straight tangent line as the second point keeps getting closer and closer
you gotta just reckon with the existence of infinities and their usefulness but also their weirdness
the derivative is the limit of the difference quotient as x->a
Yeah I think so
https://youtu.be/_cr46G2K5Fo?si=-LMK2J6cGSpxG8_g
fun video on the subject
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to explore the thought a bit more
consider that the difference quotient Q is a function of x
Difference quotient = average velocity right
Do you have an intuition of what a limit is?
Yes
I guess..
It approaches some value but never hits it? But apparently I was wrong or smt
a limit isn't necessarily separate from the value at the point, it's just most often used that way
like
Limit just means that the value is a "good approximation"
Wher by that I mean whatever error bounds you give me, I can give you some wiggle room where the value stays within the error bounds. (Ignoring that exact point)
if f(x) = x, then $lim_{x \to 0} f(x) = 0$ and $f(0) = 0$
Mr. BananaHead
What’s the point of the limit if it’s just 0
Undefined?
technically DNE
See that’s the thing what I mean is it’s supposed to approach 0 but not be 0
No?
Have you done limit of a sequence?
Probably
the function f(x)=1/x is undefined at the point 0
I forgot
but the limit as x->0+ is infinity
it’s helpful for explaining the behavior of a graph
plot 1/x and see how it looks
from the positive direction
fair enough
If you want to stay stuff like limit is infinity you are not working in the reals
I dont get it; so when we talk about limits, are we just gonna plug that value? Whats the point of it’s existence then if we won’t approximate it
You end up just plugging 0 anyway tho so that’s also confusing
helpful tool to let us explain how graphs behave when inputting values directly doesn’t work
I think this would be a better example. The function $\frac{(x+1)(x-1)}{(x-1)}$, the function is discontinuous at x=1, but the limit of the function still exists at x=1
Mr. BananaHead
Like you’ll end up factoring and just plugging 0
but now we can divide by deltaT
before plugging in
can’t divide by 0
it’s a way that helps us avoid things like that
But the point is you plugged in nonetheless, like it’s the same as me just taking the difference quotient rewriting it then plugging 0
Why even bother writing a limit
because a limit is different from the value of a function
there are subtle differences
In both cases we plug in 0
no
take the previous example, 1/0 is undefined
How come
you are plugging in a point arbitrarily close to 0
Yesssss that’s what I used to think !
But apparently not because when we took this we just plugged 0
for to or $\trianglet$?
Mr. BananaHead
Compile Error! Click the
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(You may edit your message to recompile.)
oops
For t
Mr. BananaHead
I can't write the triangle in latex sorry
Sorry I meant Δt
This is full of moden tollens it’s not even funny
idk much abt latex so might be wrong
by taking the limit, it removes dependence on that additional point
Yea I’m confused on the velocity still ngl
What’s the difference between velocity , average velocity and instantaneous velocity ?
maybe it would be best to not think about it in terms of literal physics. you seem to be having a difficult time with that
My class is pretty much applications
if you have some derivative function f'(x), given some point c, the instantaneous rate of change at that point is f'(c)
That’s why I’m stuck on understanding the physics
the general derivative function f'(x) describes that instantaneous rate of change at any point x
the average rate of change is just the difference quotient between two points
I see
And the limit as h approaches 0 negates the average velocity and just measures it in that very moment ?
yes
the difference quotient Q at a particular point a is a function of x just like any other function. Then,
$f'(a) = \lim_{x \to a} Q(x)$
Is there any way of doing that to begin with without the limit
Mr. BananaHead
no
by definition, the derivative is a type of limit
I’m tryna wrap my head around how the limit gets rid of that second point and just measures it at that instance
maybe the easiest way would be to see when it fails. A function $f(x)$ is only differentiable at a point $a$ when it is approximately linear at that point
Mr. BananaHead
look at $|x|$ at $x=0$
Mr. BananaHead
Wdym by when it fails
Hmm...
Okay
have you looked at a graph of |x|?
yup
so at 0, the graph is never approximately linear, no matter how close you are to 0
so, the derivative does not exist at that point
then, you can see that when you do have a function that is approximately linear, the derivative tells you the slope of that function as you zoom in o the point
What do we mean by approximately linear
graph y=x^2 in desmos and start zooming in on the function anywhere
Yk a ball? how you can zoom in a bunchhhhh and it looks like a straight line?
That’s approximately linear
how the earth looks flat from our perspective because we are that zoomed in
Ohhh
if you zoom in the graph of |x| it is ALWAYS a sharp corner at the origin
never smooth so it’s not differentiable
because when a function is approximately linear, the derivative at that point tells you what the slope is at that point
if it isn't approximately linear, there is no slope
You mean slope of the tangent line ?
yes, but the slope of the function at that point is the same as the slope of the tangent line
the tangent line is just a good way to visualize it
I see
but the slope there is intrinsic to the function you are looking at - the tangent line is just a result
that's also why the derivative at a point is by definition a limit
because the limit of the function around that point takes the form of a line, even though the function isn't linear
@ocean quest can I tell you what I’m still stuck on
sure
Is velocity some distance / some time?
velocity tells you how much future distance you will cover for some future time t
Now we’re talking about future tense ? Aw bruh
The point of velocity is to tell us how fast something is going right
displacement/time not distance
But they’re saying there’s no displacement at that instant position
i mean if you are talking about instantaneous velocity then the displacement is very small so for such small time interval we can say distance= displacement
Could you please describe that small displacement
you know different between average and instantaneous velocity?
avg velocity v = ∆s/∆t
instantaneous velocity , v = lim ∆t-0 ∆s/∆t
we've been going in circles on this for hours
what was the original doubt
at this point, you either need an in-person tutor, you you should consider not pursuing anything further in mathematics
damn
?
Average velocity is the difference quotient
Instantaneous is its limit as h approaches 0
yeah so now what you don't understand?
they basically don't understand what a limit is
What does it mean when h approaches 0
Does it ever reach 0 or no
Oh
No i mean obviously denominator cannot be 0
So why do people plug in 0? All they they is rewrite the same fraction, then plug in 0
limit basically means discussing a function in neighbourhood of a value like lim x - 2 means discussion f(x) at numbers very close to 2
∆t tends to 0 means you are taking the time interval to be infinitely small so small that it becomes a instant
like t = 0 to t = 2 sec you can find average velocity
but what if i want to find velocity at 2 second exactly ?
so in that case i'll take the ∆t to be so small that it can be treated as t = 2
I would say watch an introductory video on limits then try to understand again you will get it
If it just keeps getting infinitely small, between point a and some other points, isn’t that just technically still the average velocity
not when infinity is involved
i mean if you are considering ∆t to be infinitely small so obviously in that small interval particle will also have negligible displacement so it will not remain " average "
So basically the whole point is that the two points get so ridiculously small that they might as well he considered the same point ?
yes
But when you plug 0 into the difference quotient, how do you know that that is a limit versus you just plugging the 0 point ?
difference quotient is ( f(x+h) -f(x))/h right ?
how you gonna put h= 0 here ? Its gonna be undefined
i didn't get what you wanted to ask
But when you take the limit , all you do is rewrite it then plug 0
You’re rewriting the fraction itself
So you’re basically keeping it the same then plugging 0
Or is that not what happens?
Like if you consider any function
2t for example and you plug it in
No ? like think of instantaneous in terms of english not physics instantaneous means " at instant"
So we have to find velocity at 2 second
If I take t1= 2.00 sec and t2= 2.0000000000000001 second don't you think now this time interval is infinitely small and can be treated as an instant ?
that's what limits is used for to discuss the fxn very close to a number
Here’s what I mean take f(t) = 2t
The difference quotient is
2(t+h) - 2t / h
Now what’s the difference between me just plugging in 0 now and treat it as if I’m evaluating this at 0
And between me canceling out an h by just rewriting this and now all of a sudden it’s a limit
You need to understand that something being equal to another thing and something's limit being equal to another thing are completely different
if you evaluate that at zero it’s undefined
and that’s no much of a useful outcome
careful on the wording here: $$\lim_{h \to 0} \frac{2(t+h)-2t}{h}$$ and $$\lim_{h \to 0} \left(2 + \frac{2t-2t}{h}\right)$$ are both limits. so i would say that, when the limit is rewritten, then you can substitute $h=0$ to solve. but rewriting doesn't magically make anything a limit
حسیب ♥
I don’t think you guys are understanding my point
okay, then what would your point be?
perhaps this?
Maybe
But it’s more of the part where you factor out an h and cancel it out with the one in the denominator
Before factoring can you plug zero for h? No right
So how come it works when you factor out an h which is just rewriting the same fraction
because $h \neq 0$ and $\lim_{h \to 0} h = 0$
Mr. BananaHead
because limits are inherently a different operation
f(a) does not always equal lim x->a {f(x)}
it's a property that we take for granted in numbers, tbh. we can cancel $\frac{3a}{a} = 3$ or $\frac{x^2}{x}$, and when we do that, there is an inherent condition that the denominator is not zero
حسیب ♥
for a limit, since we are approaching $h$, then $h$ never actually equals zero, so we can get away with said cancellation
حسیب ♥
geometrically, the functions $y = \frac{3x}{x}$ and $y=3$ might look the same, but $\frac{3x}{x}$ has a hole at $x=0:$ it is undefined at $x=0,$ but the values around it point to a "phantom value" that should be there
حسیب ♥
in fact, this is what we're doing when we take a limit: finding the value that we expect to appear, if we follow the graph of a smooth function
(if the function isn't a "nice, smooth" line, then this idea fails, hence the limit doesn't exist at jumps or cusps)
here is f(x) = (3x)/x, so that you can see the hole that i'm talking about
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can someone please help explain why σ can be written as a product of disjoint cycles? thanks
if you want to be rigorous you can define g ~ h <=> g = σ^k h for some integer k and prove that ~ is an equivalence
Follows from the fact that conjugacy is an equivlance class
you can write it like that because you can just compute the cycles
start with some random element a_1 and compute the cycle of a_1
then take some random element which is not in that cycle and compute the cycle of that one
and so on
lets say that sigma is the permutation 1743256 which means sigma(1)=1, sigma(2)=7 and so on
the cycle of 1 is just (1)
the cycle of 2 is (2765) because sigma(2)=7, sigma(7)=6, sigma(6)=5 and sigma(5)=2
does this mean
(1234567)
(1743256)
and then the cycle of 3 is (34) because sigma(3)=4 and sigma(4)=3
yes
mhm
and then
and now we can simply write sigma=(1)(2765)(34)
do we stop at cycle of 3 and know that its okay because it covers every element in the domain?
i.e. we have every number from 1-7 generated by 1,2, and 3 cycles
yes we covered every element so we can stop
try computing the cycles for 382174569
and some other random permutations you come up with
(13)(286413)(328641)?
wait no
9 is missing
(13)(286413)(328641)(413286)(57)(9)
like this? it seems overly complicated
no
sigma(1)=3, so the first cycle starts with (13
sigma(3)=2 so it continues with (132
sigma(2)=8 so (1328
sigma(8)=6 so (13286
sigma(6)=4 so (132864
and finally sigma(4)=1 so now we can close the cycle (132864)
and now take an element which is not in that cycle
so 5,7 or 9
and then start new
do not take an element which is already in a cycle
you will not get disjoint cycles like that
OHH
so i keep applying sigma until i get something in the bracket then i stop before that happens?
(132864)(57)(9)?
yes
<@&268886789983436800>
@round badge don't hijack other people's help channels
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i first made it 0 <= a <= b <= c <= d <= 6
then lecture notes say that such a question is simply C of 6 boxes and 4 stars that'll represent each possible value/box
seems that this kind of stars and bars came from a different place/philosophy than say, find solutions of x+y+z = 10, where the boxes will be 3 variables and stars will be 10 single units where their amount would represent the value of a variable/box
id know that the second example is about partitions, but i cant intuitively grasp the basis of the first's stars and bars
they say the first example is also how we count number of possible dice combinations, but then when we deal with probability n^r would be used instead of stars and bars???
@dense rampart Has your question been resolved?
then lecture notes say that such a question is simply C of 6 boxes and 4 stars that'll represent each possible value/box
The lecture says exactly this? This's kinda a weird way to think about the problem
not exactly but it shows that a ball at p2 represents a=2
wait no what
This is the exact notes and the blanks are to be filled in by ourselves when watching lecture recording
I saw top left and understood how to do the q from there
yeah so, basically it says choose 4 numbers from 1 to 9, then there is exactly 1 way to arrange them in ascending order
And that would be a,b,c and d respectively
I never thought it that way
ig you should, since that's pretty easy to understand
my first thought was "if a is 1 theres a lot of choices and a can at max be 6 where theres very few(1) options
now that i saw it yeah it is but
Hi
maybe ive just came off of the x+y+z = 10 thing
Someone can help me?
this channel is occupied 😭
😭
Its not about a mathmtical problem
Ahhh
My bad
well maybe you can think if it like this
ig
yup was exactly typing this out lol
you can do stars and bars here now
Honestly tho I have never done such problem this way
x1=a−0
x2=b−a
x3=c−b
x4=d−c
x5=10−d
if you add it all up it gives x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 + x5 = 10
the first way is much more straightforward and should be the one used here i feel
when we are able to transform a problem from < into <=, should i not always do it?
when seeing <= i can usually star and bars
but < it means quite a lot of things
it depends tho
but ig it can somehow be deduce to -1 both side of an equation or smth
0 <= a <= b <= c <= d <= 6 how did you get the upper bound 6
shouldn't it be 5
i think you didn't change < 10 to <= 9
i think i meant 0 < a <= ... then
its hard to keep track of all these methods
combinatorics demands too much of my common senses
yeah, that's why I didn't draw an arrow in the 0th gap in the drawing above
When I do combinatorics I would just draw example like what I did above and reasoning 
Use algebra is boring
i think i lack the reasoning needed to draw ur examples
you did stars and bars but you started from a different perspective of the problem
i was thinking of one more thing but its basically the logic for 9 C 4 lol
new question and i made this method, is this the straightforward way?
if my ans is correct, then this is also the no of ways to choose 4 numbers from 1-25, but i dont see how 😭 especially when 4 and 25 correspond to the og question so nicely
the answer is correct yeah
isnt the answer 24 C 4
i learnt to do these types of questions by adding a "slack variable"
basically w + x +y + z + a = 25
where a is the slack variable
and then you do k-1 C n-1 so that's 25-1 c 5-1
24 c 4
the a is to ensure x + y +z +w stays below 25
but adding a slack variable allows us to remove the inequality
so we can apply stars and bars
yeah same here
oh wait that's not =< yeah lol
@dense rampart Has your question been resolved?
oh then if i turn <21 into <=20 then we'd have the same conclusion
but interesting
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!status
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nah i understad all of part a and b, juts dont get part c
what'd you get the general expression as?
@tardy carbon
you might have not got the most general expression resulting in some confusion
cause you can guess x=3cost
but there's another term
unless you already have that term, then it's straightforward
oh alright you've done everything correctly then
yeah its juts part c im not really getting
do you want a hint or should I give a more straightforward answer
first you can understand how there will be a difference in levels right?
cause the term oscillates
uh would u mind giving just like the answer and how u got it - but like explaining your thought process pleas
okay, so essentially since we're talking 7 days later
yes
the e^-t term just becomes really small
cause e^-7 is negligible
so you can ignore that term
yes okay
essentially you're just left with x=3cost
now in a day the max level can be 3
and the min be -3
so difference is 6
not necessarily in a day btw
but like the difference from now on will mostly be around 6
but at the same time i thought liek when we look at tending to infinity then we can make the exponential negative as itll go to 0 but 7 days seems quite short no?
np!
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how would you solve e^2x = -c * e^x
this was a question in my test kinda
i just did ln and just brought the 2x and x down
thats wrong?
You could divide both sides by e^x, you could log both sides, you could bring everything to one side and factor
log both sides works, but you have to be careful on the RHS because x isn't the exponent of the whole thing
So you have to split it first
Using log rules with product
Then you can bring x down
guess ill study stuff like that for wednesday
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hey can you use power rule to differentiate e^x?
e^x is not a polynomial
unless you want to get rlly creative and differentiate the series expansion termwise, then reindex
the derivative of e^x is just e^x
u dont need the power rule or anything
how is it not a polynomial
the answer is no -- $e^x$ does not fit the pattern of $x^n$
schrödinger's kitten
the general form for any exponential function derivative b^x is ln(b)*b^x
exponential function not polynomial
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Need solution by normal algebraic techniques
,rotate
Consider LHS
You have lim of e^1/x - 1/ e^1/x+1
from 0(negative)
In this case as e^1/x approaches 0, it becomes e^-inf = 0
So, LHS limit is equal to 0-1/0+1
= -1
Consider RHS
Do u mean to solve it by left hand limit as limit x approaches 0 from left 1over x equals negative inf
yep you can graph it to see
Dividing by e^1/x, we have 1-1/e^1/x / 1+1/e^1/x
Now, as it approaches 1/x in positive side, it approahces infinity so its 1
Got marked wrong I my test I tried to do it
Weird the checker is
You cant substitute x for 1/x
Behavior is clearly different because it approaches 0
1/x becomes infinity while x becomes 0
You just take LHS, RHS and the answers are -1, +1
Ah alr ty
Can you show what you did?
You can
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what have you tried?
!status
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2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
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6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
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rn im tryna find the integral
im using the u-sub technique
x^2+9
i got
-1/(4(x^2+9)^2
not sure how to use bot sorry lol
now i believe we have to get the limit of that
dw
yes
Are you sure about that
yes, so what happens as x-->\infty
uh i think so
(checked with wolfram alpha it's right)
ur good
it goes to 0 i believe
that'd be right
okay
yeah but are you sure about the value of 324
1/400
👍
Tyyyy
np
ima keep trhis open incase i have another problem
if thats okay
speaking of
i ran into another problem
i think you're supposed to open another channel, but i don't think it's a big deal
what substitution can you try?
if i had smth like x^-1, what would its derivative be?
lnx?
wait derivcative
mb
Put t = x^-4
i was getting there 😔
I won't interrupt from now carry on .sorry
no lol dw
appreciate you brother 😭 🙏
okay so
ohhhhhh
wait i see wym
cuz its negative so
yes yes
okay so what does the integral become?
integral or derivative 🤔
👍
ye
okay
now we do the sum
uuhhh
okay so
the limit of
-4e^(1/infinity^4)
i believe its
just e
i think
wait
it might be infinity
wait no
it might be 1
wait wait
it might be infinity
divide by -4
?
no it is 1 👍
o
remember you have e^u/(-4)
so the first term is -1/4
❌
have you been writing it down?
e/4-1/4
Correct
✅
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✅ Original question: #help-27 message
well not the original question
i have a diff one
😭
i got this one
sorry for asking for help so much
i used the
uv-inegral duv
method
i got
ping me if someone comes 😭 🙏
thats the integral
im having trouble finding the limit of infinity though
there should be a - in front of the second term as well
didnt it cancel out
i dont think so
yes the second integral becomes positive, but the integral of e^-5x is e^-5x/(-5)
so what's your final answer?
plug in the bounds and take the limit
yes
but im ngl
idk how to do the infinity one
bc like
the limit of e^-5x as it goes to inifnity is infinity no?
i meant 1
but then its multiplied by x
which is infinity as x does to infinity
well remember that exponentials grow much faster than polynomials
right
if you'd like, you could apply L'Hopital to x/e^5x
yes
okay so thats
1/(-e^5x/5)
which is
-5/e^5x
and since it goes to 1
its just -5 for that term?
yes
treat e^5x as the function you're differentiating, not 1/e^5x
wait how is it positive
e^-5x=1/e^5x
but you still have 1/(5e^5x)
yes
1/5
❌
yes so what does 1/(5e^5x) go to then?
yes indeed
so how about 1/(25e^(5x))
so itd be 0-0 for the plugging infinity in
also 0?
yes go ahead and simplify it
okay
and remember it's 0- (whatever you get here)
did you forget an exponent there
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For 11 I want to use the first fundamental theorem of calculus in conjunction with proof by contradiction. I say that assume we have $\sum_{k=0}^n c_kx^k = \int_c^x \frac{1}{t}dt$
BigBen
Then say $\sum_{k=0}^n kc_kx^{k-1} = \frac{1}{x}$
BigBen
And then you can see that we want one only one term and for that term to have x in the denominator so we set n=0. Then we have the derivative equal to 0 and we have a contradiction.
But something about the last part doesn't feel right
My proof feels like I'm saying look you can't right our sum as 1/x but the way I try to justify it doesn't seem rigorous.
you just need to show that 1/x is not a polynomial in x
That's what I was trying to do with the above though
one way is to consider degrees
that's the part you omitted
anyway, suppose 1/x = ∑_i b_i x^i is a polynomial, then see what happens at 0...
You mean set the upper bound to 0. If so why? It isn't going to equal 1
You mean just set x=0? After you multiply both sides by x
But why?
you want to show 1/x is not equal to f'(x) for any polynomial f right
but the derivative of a polynomial is also a polynomial
so it suffices to show that 1/x is not a polynomial
Ok I see that. But I don't see how we actually show it isnt a polynomial. We just showed that at x=0 the polynomial cannot equal 1
Ok
take a limit as x → 0
Ok so 1/x is undefined and the polynomial will be 0
to be fair i think the question has sort of worded the situation poorly
but what plante is showing is that on the domain of real numbers \ 0 there is no polynomial function that agrees with x ↦ 1/x
like, x²/x is also undefined at x = 0, but elsewhere it perfectly agrees with x which is a polynomial function
Isn't that why we say undefined?
I don't know what you mean by "1/x is undefined and the polynomial will be 0"
1/x is undefined at 0 but we are investigating the limit as x → 0 which does not require definition at x = 0
I also don't understand what you mean by "the polynomial will be 0"
Ok I meant limit doesn't not exist
I was to solve x smaller than 0 question by substituting 1over x as minus y
please open a different help channel and forward your reply and mention there
And then shifting the e^-y down n 1over infinity as zero and minus 1 as answer
It will be some constant
yes so they can't possibly be the same function
Ok so your saying if it was the same function the limits give the same results
How could I use the ideas from the chapter though?
of course the same function will have the same limits
I think it's a silly problem, do you a priori know the fact that the integral of 1/x is given by log |x| + a locally constant function?
Yes
you can also prove that it cannot be a polynomial...
that log |x| cannot be a polynomial


Well he hasn't formally discussed logarithms yet. That is in the next chapter

how do you know int 1/x dx = log|x| without knowing what a logarithm is
I suppose you can define log as that but like
then you have to prove int 1/x dx cannot be a polynomial which is the same thing
Well I learned it in school but the way the author is presenting stuff he hasn't touched upon it
Also in what ways was the proof I was suggesting lacking?
You argued that if f'(x) = 1/x for some polynomial f then 1/x would have to be a polynomial also
but you need to prove your assertion that 1/x is not a polynomial
I think this is a silly problem, I can't really see what concept they are testing for by posing it
but sometimes you get silly problems
But we didn't assert that we just assumed that a polynomial is equal to integral 1/t
the real problem is that you are handwaving as if you know there is a “canonical form” for each rational function, and that if two rational functions have different canonical forms then they are different functions
Is the limit the only way to resolve this?
So what are we discussing here
i mentioned degrees earlier, that idea also works
you would also need to show some nonsense about being able to equate rational functions with actual functions
you can also say that one is unbounded on (0, 1] and the other is bounded
there are like a million ways to see it as gmz said
i mean it is tricky and sort of an annoying business
but a lot of the times it's surprisingly hard to show two things can't be the same, because there might be lots of different representations of your things you need to “search through”
e.g. when are two spaces the same when i can deform them in lots of different ways? when are two higher-dimensional shapes the same? when are two number systems the same?
Ok but for here we're saying that if the 1/x is of a polynomial type then it needs to share properties if general functions. Such as the limit of a polynomial is either 0 or 1
be precise! the limit of a polynomial for any point on its domain is a finite constant, could be 1.34 or -0.91 etc
but yeah that's our argument here
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can someone expalin me how this is the same as that
is this only for matrices or is it in general
That's called associativity
hm okay but wait
Lots of operations are associative, like addition, multiplication and all that
Matrix multiplication and addition are associative operations
yeah i just realized yeah
no wait matrix multiplication isnt associative tho?
like A * B isnt the same as B * A right?
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yo
how do you solve this
have you learnt how to invert a matrix yet?
yes
The matrix multiplicated with the inverse matrix is the unit matrix
exactly
how else could i solve
you're on to something here
you have 2 matrices being multiplied
and you're getting the identity as a result
hm
following from the definition you just gave, what does this tell us about the matrices you're multiplying?
that the m of the first matrix is the same as the m of the one were multipliying it with
well if 2 matrices are being multiplied and you're getting the identity matrix, then they have to be inverses of each other
yea
yea
so the a b c d matrix is just the inverse of the matrix you're multiplying it with
okay
but how do i get that
oh so have you not learnt how to invert a matrix then?
there's a standard way of inverting matrices that you can do quite quickly
if you have yet to study this, I suggest you do that problem by solving for a, b, c, d simultaneously
we havent done that
i thi k ill just ask my freind
oh god
i got an exam about matrices and a bit of calculus
Yeah so your approach here is good then
You can solve it simultaneously, and also apply a few tricks to get their faster
Like equation 1 can be written as 2(a + c) + c = 1, and from equation 3, a + c = 0, so you end up with c = 1
You can do something similar for the other 2 equations, and the rest shouldn't be too hard from there
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Idk if we can considerate this like maths but do someone understand this kind of thin
@dim ridge Has your question been resolved?
Any <@&286206848099549185>
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i tried resolving up and sideways for the top stone
r(up):
s = 40
u = 20sin(a)
v = ?
a = 9.8
t = ?
r(sideways):
s = ?
u = 20cos(a)
v = ?
a = 0
t = ?
then sideways for the window stone
r(sideways):
s = ?
u = 12
v = ?
a = 0
t = ?
You wanna find the time when they collide yeah?
yeah
then i did
v = 12
v = 20cos(a)
a = 53.13 deg
which looks wrong
then
40 = 20sin(53.13) * t + 4.9t^2
and this gives t = 1.658s, not 2.5
You equated both velocities?
The moment they collide doesn't imply they'll have same velocities
hmmmm
Its the vertical distance that's gonna be equal
so i should get 2 equations in S?
Yes
Well i might be signing off so ill give you the hint to find the angle alpha too
For that see that equating the horizontal distances also give you a hint
,w arccos(3/5) in degrees
your angle is correct
they arent, however you arrive at same result after equating horizontal distances travelled
so its a coincidence that i get the correct alpha after equating the v's?
yh
for vertical motion?
yeah i guess
substitute the values
stone is thrown horizontally so what would be your initial velocity
in vertical direction
this is the mark scheme but i don't really understand this
yeah
but then when i get S = equations for both
I get
s = -4.9t^2
40 = 20sin(53.13) * t + 4.9t^2
Now the stones collide when they have similar vertical distance from the ground too
yes
vertically?
Yes
S = y
u = 20sin(a)
v = ?
a = 9.8
t = ?
y = 20sin(a) * t + 4.9t^2
yeah but the stones dont collide at the bottom of the tower?
We dont know that
yeah so it could be S <= 85
We aren't making these equations with collision in mind
These are independent equations
Its gonne be less than <= 45 thats for sure
okay so 85 = 20sin(a) * t + 4.9t^2
No no
Second equation of motion
It's S - s
Where your small s is the original height
and what is the big S
Its the variable
Hmm
Lemme make it according to the solution key
So they picked their x-y axis origin according to the second where y-axis points downward
Since the difference between the heights of both of them is 40 = 85-45
They got that equation
So now you can make your equations according to that x-y axis system
hmm
Wanna take over enz?
umm im bad at math
Ah
but i think i know that
Feel free to do so i have to skidaddle
@hard sable Has your question been resolved?
You're right. By calculating the difference 85-45=40, you set the object as the Y=0 mark. This works because the physical gap remains the same regardless of where you start counting. Using Y=0 for one and Y=40 for the other just makes the math cleaner than using 85 and 45.
probably
did it right
i just explained
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I understand that its not a vector space because 5 + d != 0 so the zero vector doesnt exist, but im not really sure how to write that?
How do I explain that better in a way that I can write on my exam if that makes sense
if W were a vector space then the 0 vector would have to be in W
by equating this to 0 you get a system of equations
if it yields no solutions then that means that the 0 vector isnt in W
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Graph the curve 𝑦=𝑥/1+𝑥 over the interval [0,5]. Then, find the area of the region bounded by the curve, the x-axis, and the line 𝑥=4.
when the questions says this, i found the definite integral from 0 to 5
- for "bounded by the curve"
- the x-axis, what does it mean by that?
- line at x=4, sure is that from then 0 to 4?
Well they want you to integrate indeed

