#help-27
1 messages · Page 388 of 1
infinity
you just said your sequence is always positive
a number, please
0
good
wait thatt was a fluke
do you see why that fits the definition of a lower bound
am i gonna have to guess these bounds
uhm
no
you can often analytically find them
in this case, since a_n > 0 (positive) for all n, 0 is a lower bound
does that make sense
you do 10 I'll do 11
what
!noans
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So if the sequence is strictly decreasing, and it's bonded below, what does the monotone convergence theorem tell us?
How do I determine that it is bounded below?
Oh, I'm sorry I thought that you already did that part. Is there a natural number n that yield anything negative? How about 0?
Well I tried putting n = 10 and n = 11 in the sequence, my calculator shows extremeley small values for it
it is
Isnt this test for series?
The question is about sequene
wdym
this is the ratio test for convergence of series right
For every natural number n, each term is a positive rational number
well can I apply it on questions about sequences?
yeah
I mean I know it is 0 but I have to prove it
ye
unless ur lecturer didnt teach you this
If you can show that 0 is the greatest lower bound (you've already shown that it's decreasing), then by the MCT the sequence converges to 0
yea how to show that 0 is the greatest lower bound
thats the question
every term in the sequence is positive
positive number divided by another positive number
eh, ghost ping
alright
so can i write that its gonna be zero cuz smallest non negative number is 0?
yeah, basically the logic is that 0 is smaller than every positive number, so it has to be a lower bound
so any negative number is not the greatest lower bound
(ping)
alright
ty!
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It's obvious that 0 is a lower bound—this is enough to show that the sequence converges, but if you want to show that 0 is the greatest lower bound (you need this if you want to claim the sequence converges to 0), your professor might want to see some work there
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Hi! I need help with the task below.
The function $f$ is given by
$f(x)=x+a, 0\leq x \leq2$ and $a>0$
(a): Find $a$ such that the area under the graph of $f$ is 3.
Thanks in advance!
dream
you didn't take the integral
ohhh
the integral of x+a from 0 to 2 is not x+a
so its $\int (x+a)=\frac{1}{2}x^2+ax$
dream
and now i can find the area
yes
$a=\frac{1}{2}$
dream
dream you doing math on new year eve
ye same
bahaha
lol
i just have one more task to finish
ic
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you just restated the provided information
and affirmed the conclusion
you need to prove why the conclusion is true
given the information they provided
haywik I just learned this stuff I can help you 100%
so hwo do i do that?
ah pls.
so u construct AC and BD first right?
and then u gotta prove that triangles ADC and triangle DBA are congruent
how do i prove it?
AD congruent to AD
the two angles are congruent
and DC and BA are congruent
so then......
it's what congruency
do u understand
so basically u write construct AC and BD first
and then write because AB = CD, angle DAB = angle CDA, and AD = AD
afk sorry, ty for help.
therefore triangel ADB is congruent to DAC
so then AC = BD because of CPCTC
congruent part of congruent triangles are congruent
yeah np
@iron chasm Has your question been resolved?
k so here im at
try making triangles
triangles?
connecting to bd and ac
or like
bd is a line
and ac is a line
i think theyve already done that
you state ADB \cong DAC w/out proof, you should be a bit more explicit about why ADB \cong DAC
mb
isnt that said when the angles are mentioned?
maybe i shouldn’t be doing math when im walking 😂
dedication.
like
sure, but you know that they're congruent by SAS congruence
just to be clear you should state that
like
try using coordinates?
ADB being congruent to DAC is a result of AD = AD, DC = BA, and <DAB = <CDA
so ADB is congruent to DAC by SAS congruence
you should just state its by SAS
yh but how do we prove AC = BD?
we are told DAB = CDA tho
these three facts are all things that the problem gives you
from this you can deduce that ADB is congruent to DAC by SAS Congruence
this is correct
i am just pointing out that you should be more explicit
and state that its by SAS Congruence
instead of just saying it outright
but how is that proof if your just reating the question?
so reword it basicly.
seems very mathey, i shall try it
so like this?
so like
uhh
not quite
you know that ADB is congruent to DAC
which means that they're the same shape
and so their sides are all the same
right yeah
so
because ADB and DAC are congruent
we know their corresponding sides are the same length
so AC = DB follows
k, so this is 2/4 marks.
idk what else to do then
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Let PQR be right angled isosceles triangle, right angled at P(2,1) If the equation of the line QR is 2x + y = 3 then the equation representing the pair of lines PQ and PR is
I got 3x²-3y²+8xy-20x-10y+25=0
But the answer provided by my teacher says 3x²-3y²-8xy-20x-10y+25=0 is right
I suppose thts wrong?
How did you approach this
Found the eqn of two lines
@deep abyss Has your question been resolved?
Cant show my work but the eqns were $$3y+x=5$$ $$y=3x-5$$
ch3rry
<@&286206848099549185> 
Yo
hm
hm
I mean i got the same answer as you idk
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have a question about order, for the exercise we want to show A1 U A2 U A3 is no different from A2 U A1 U A3, where K = {1,2,3}. But what if K, the index set, has no order? Does this still make sense
oh yeah it would
I think i’m confused about something else one second
ok nvm let me try doing this again
i’ll prob be back
Yes
The logical definition of union might help
$a \in \bigcup_{i \in I} A_i \to \exists i \in I \text{ such that } a \in A_i$
Xavier 🌺
thanks that does help me understand it more
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Hello. Im trying to prove what i wrote in the top-most part of the page. Is this a good approach? If what I wrote is right then i think im pretty close to arriving at a contradiction
that epsilon part seems faulty tbh
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i dont understand what im supposed to do for part c
let g(x) = f(x) + ln(k).
you want to find the mean value of g(x) over [0,3].
which is very easy to do if you know that g is just f shifted up by a constant
yess i agree
oh so am i just integrating lnk over [0,3] and then once ive found that, i just add it to part b?
not even this.
no, you just add ln(k) to part b.
or you could do the redundant route of redundancy and integrate the constant ln(k) over [0,3] then divide that by 3 and add the result to part b
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,tex
Hi there. Suppose we have the sequence
$a_n = \frac{2^n}{\sqrt{n} \ n!} $ . I have proven that it is convergent, but not at which number. How would we go about proving the number it converges to? I missed the lecture on this kinda stuff oops
fijokazż
do you have a guess what the answer might be?
prolly 0
right
you could use the epsilon-delta defn, but that will be very painful
no need epsilon delta
ye our prof told us we dont need to do that
oh, if the mod of that limit is less than 1 the limit is 0
you can infact prove that
the mod?
absolute value
ExpertEsquieESQUIE
i dont see how that proves it
@harsh sierra in an introductory real analysis class wouldn't this be too much though ( assuming this is for an RA class)
ive proven 2^n/sqrt(n) <= n!
for large n
i just dont see why we just infer that the limit is 0
we cant just from that
this implies $\frac{2^n}{n!} \leq 1$ and dividing by $\sqrt{n}$ gives $$0 \leq \frac{2^n}{\sqrt{n} n!} \leq \frac{1}{\sqrt{n}}$$
ExpertEsquieESQUIE
ohhhh
i was thinking abt that
yeah thats def better for me
thank you!!
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hello. supposing we have already proven that if b_2n and b_(2n-1) dont converge to the same number implies b_n doesnt converge, is this proof of b_n not converging fine?
why does n!>3^n matter
so that they dont converge to 0
write that
yes thats fine
i would still reword this because of that first sentence you wrote
what would be best to write?
you see what’s wrong with it right
ive proven that if they cant converge to the same number then our original sequence doesnt converge at all
unless you mean to switch the ending with the start
you should first argue that for all but finitely many n, n!/3^n > 1 and -n!/3^n < -1 then say so they can’t converge to the same number. this would make more sense
yeah i see ur point
the problem is it doesn’t follow from one being positive and the other being negative
take 1/n and -1/n for example
they both converge to 0
despite one being positive and the other being negative
yes thats what i noticed after i wrote half the sentence
thats why its worded kinda wrong
thank you
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Can someone help me with this graph
Is it like this
right so like yakubros said you have to change the direction (2- means left of 2 and 2+ means right of 2)
to get the limit at -2 you need a graph that looks something like this, where theres an open circle and then a point below it
so that isnt a function
those two lines overlap to the left of -2
Idk how to make it continuous tho
how to make what continuous
thats not continuous?
Cause it has to from both sides equal it tho
right
Not continuous that’s what I meant sorry
again, it'll look like this
Idk how to make it both sides equal
(replace a with -2)
It has to be filled in tho cause it’s one of the criteria
Yes. I know
but the (-2,4) must not be filled in
Doesn’t a line go there but I don’t understand how cause of this one
,w graph -1/x in interval [-3,0]
Oh from the top
This
Is that right or no
yes that good
but see if you can make it go slower so that it reaches infinity at 2
if that makes sense
yeah exactly
so thats 4 of those
now all you need is
,,\lim_{x\to 2^+} F(x)=\infty
oh wait im sorry
no thats going the wrong way
that limit goes to positive infinity
we want negative infinity
you can flip the arrow upside down to get -infinity
How will it approach 0
this thing
so you only flip the right half
Doesn’t that make it have a cusp
as long as the limit still works
okay perfect
and then all you need is that first thing
,,\lim_{x\to2^+}=\infty
bored amogi
can you fill in the rest of the function to get that
I mean I understand it I’m not really good with drawing tho
Dw u got this ᕙ( : ˘ ∧ ˘ : )ᕗ
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Yk to take the limit of this, why am I getting different results when taking it separately vs when I just combine the fractions
Lim as n tends to inf
Combining it gives me 1
But I’m confused on how to work it out without combining
Since if I divide by the highest power, I’d be tending towards 0 in the denominator for the first fraction
is answer 3?
I just did it and got 1
The first term is 2n-2+O(1/n)
The second term is -(2n-3+O(1/n))
Nah I checked on desmos and it’s 1
I get 1 asw by combining
oh yea i see
Doing it separately gives 3
my mistake
If you take limits on each term you will get infinity-infinity
Yea is that from this?
What’s O?
Oh u divided by n^2
O(1/n) means there are 1/n terms (or smaller terms) I don't care about as n->infinity e.g. 3/n+2/n^2
it should be 1/(n+1) my bad
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If effectiveness and C_r are known, how do I get the value of NTU
doesn't look like you can get it out of there cleanly ngl
also this is tiny and hard to read
$\ep = 1 - \exp\sqb{\frac{1}{C_r} NTU^{0.22} \curly{\exp\sqb{-C_r NTU^{0.78}}-1}}$
Ann
is that what your formula says?
Yeah
yeah i would not expect a neat algebraic solution here sorry
what do you need it for
So iteration?
As in what the question is?
yes
i'd like to know the context and the original question & goal
and like what tools you've got at your disposal here
It's a heat exchanger question so I was abit tentative on sending it
I've got all the other theory understood but idk how to get NTU from this basically
I'll send it still
Here
hmmm
well ok a cursory glance of the relevant wikipedia page confirms your formula really is that
but also i would have no idea how you're expected to solve it
except with like desmos or some shit
or a graphing calculator
NTU is between 0 and 1
But I say iteration but I don't even remember how to do that
I'll research thanks tho
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yeah if you're allowed a graphing calculator then a numerical solver would work
I've got a classwiz fx90 I believe
I'm not that savvy on this stuff so idk if it's capable
from looking up the user's manual online, it seems that the "equation" app includes a numerical equation solver
Yeah I just found out to boutta try it out
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can someone please give me a hint on what to do here?
apparently this is supposed to be done "global" but the only thing i can think of is it break it up and do it "local", as in the split the two sums into two smaller sums, but i don't think that's the correct approach
i did this problem with induction
let the statement be P(n,m). since P(n,n) is obviously true then we only need to show that P(n,m) implies P(n+1,m)
Copter
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“An empty union makes sense and is empty, however an empty intersection does not make sense”
not sure if i’m understanding this right but why wouldn’t the empty intersection be empty
eh itd be weird because the intersection is the set of all items that are in all the sets in the intersection
by empty union are they referring to the union of empty sets
but that would be literally everything, because everything is in all those sets
(since theres none of them)
so you would have no upper bound on what youre actually considering
like when you remove items from a intersection (of N sets) you expect the resulting set to get (potentially) bigger, but never smaller
setting the empty intersection to empty is completely at odds with that.
and of course theres no set of all sets or other such nonsense, so
what they say empty intersection are they referring to the intersection of empty sets
i do not think so
oh
I think they are referring to an intersetion of N sets where N happens to be zero
like in
I should better not be the empty set
hence why they say non-empty family of sets.
oh ok I see

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Can somebody give the correct statement of Archimedean property of R.
In my book they have mentioned
If x ∈R , then there exists n ∈N such that , x≤n
While in online platforms they have used strict inequality.
Which one is correct
both versions imply the other
if s is in R \ N, they mean exactly the same thing, if x is in N, it just means you have to choose n+1 instead of n if the inequality is strict
In corollary 2.4.6
Here we have ≤ inequalities in both n-1 and n
Is this correct
Also they have proved that one of these is strict inequality
,rccw
there isn’t really a “the correct statement”
Then. .
they are equivalent and like… not in a tricky way
it’s pretty much the same whether you use > or >=
Then this is causing problems
I can think of another proof without using the well ordering principle
I don't think that's the issue
hm the statement of the corollary is true, but they probably meant for the second inequality to be strict
How come
Yes
How can y possibly satisfy both inequalities
By the statement they have used for Archimedean property
Cuz the one they proved implies the one they stated
$n_y$ you mean?
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
I think the equality should be only with n y
x < y implies x <= y
You mean the statement that says: $E_y$ has a least element, which we denote by $n_y$?
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
But isn't there a possibility that y can be equal to x...
In second one
You mean the other way?
yes oops
No . .the Archimedean property statement in the book defines the set Ey , such that ny≤y
So x < y implies x <= y
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Another proof: Choose $n_y = \left \lfloor y \right \rfloor + 1$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
Then we can ensure that $n_y - 1 \leq y \leq n_y$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
this is just hiding the well-ordering principle
Ig so
floor and ceil are defined with the same ideas that are used in the given proof
But you see if we have proved for x<y we can't say x≤y
we can tho
if we are trying to prove x <= y and we prove x < y, that’s fine
x <= y follows
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here is the equations I did 2x+5+3y-35=180=>2x+3y=210(eq1) 3x+10+2y-10=180=> 3x+2y=180(eq2) 2x+3y=210=> 6x+9y=630(eq3) 3x+2y=180=>6x+4y=360(eq4) eq3-eq4= 5y=270 y=54 but there is no 54 in it
you solution seems correct; the options might be typed incorrectly
so i am correct should I report it?
yes
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Hi
do you have a question
hi 🤩
yajat
slayla
@dapper token Has your question been resolved?
sleigh
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Let $G$ and $H$ be finite groups and $\theta : G \rightarrow H$ a random morphism. Show that for every $g \in G$, $o(g^{\theta})$ is a divisor for $o(g)$ as well as $|H|$. Also show that if $gcd(o(g),|H|)=1$, that $g^{\theta} = 1$.
Nico
The hint says that I need to look at the restriction $\theta |_{\langle g \rangle }$
Nico
what's the image of the restriction
It's something isomorphic to ${\langle g \rangle }$, right?
Nico
(Yeah or everything is just equal to 1)
No it's isomorphic to ${\langle g \rangle } / Ker(\theta)$
Nico
Oh right, but $o(g^{\theta}) = |g^{\theta}| = o(g)/Ker(\theta)$, no?
Wups
$o(g^{\theta}) = |g^{\theta}| = o(g)/|Ker(\theta)|$
Nico
Oh oops
Yeah I meant ker(theta|_{<g>})
And I'm guessing that o(g^theta) is a divisor for |H|, since im(theta|_{<g>}) is a subgroup of H?
Yea
the last part should be easy
Yeah
Bc I literally have a lemma that says that if gcd(|G|,|H|) = 1, that theta must be trivial
Just replace G by <g>, and if gcd(|G|,|H|) = 1 and o(g) is a divisor for |G|, then also gcd(o(g),|H|) = 1
sure
o(g^theta) | o(g) and o(g^theta) | |H| implies o(g^theta) | gcd(o(g), |H|) so if gcd(o(g),|H|) = 1 then o(g^theta) = 1 meaning g^theta = 1_H

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C is the circle x² + y² + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0. AB is a variable chord subtending a right-angle at the origin O. OP is perpendicular to AB. Prove that P traces a circle.
All i know is that we need to homogenize the eqn wrt line AB
but idk if i should go on to introduce 4new variables for coordinates of A and B
Given in ques.
Oh tht point is P btw
Where the math folks at
<@&286206848099549185>
The image isn't exactly correct, maybe trying to draw it properly might help you.
O is the origin.
Thts the given image...
What you have to show is that the locus of P also follows an equation of a circle
For the general equation of the circle, do you know what would be the centre of it in the R^2 plane?
(-g,-f)
Nice
Now as the chord subtends 90 degrees at O, we have some relation between the position of A and B
Not every chord will subtend a right angle
my bad
Welp could u clear the msgs then ?
I've deleted mine
Okay, use the normal form of a line.
If the angle made by OP with positive x-axis is alpha, then the equation of AB would be xcos alpha + y sin alpha = p
where p is the length of OP
Sure then
Tbh idt this is a good idea
I'll try the computation for myself, if anyone has any nice geometric solution they might help you. I'll get back after I complete the computation.
Okie
hmm..
Idk where we r going w these but its gon be long aff
finding equation of chord and then substitute in circle's equation
The line also needs to be a chord of the circle, hence you must check for real solutions in the case of intersections. Make it a quandratic equation over a single variable and make sure the discriminant is positive. Not equal to zero, we're not solving for a tangent here.
..
That is preciesly what I'm doing rn but yeah it's a bit of computation. If you have an alternative way please check\
let's see
Whot
Please do not ping individual helpers unprompted.
oh
.close
that's not the factoid I was looking for but yeah
Its called !15m
Please only use the <@&286206848099549185> ping once if your question has not been answered for 15 minutes. Please do not ping or DM individual users about your question.
Been more than 15
yeah yeah
Just asking if twice is allowed
If someone has any idea please check
But anywho back to thw ques
Someone was helping you out 2 mins ago?
Dont spam here

get out of here and get your own channel if you need help
P is the midpoint or point of intersection? @deep abyss
Whats P then?
...
It does not give what P is. I read it
Only which does not make OP not perpendicular to AB
No then P could lie anywhere on the perpendicular
Its locus would span the entire plane then
P lies on AB
Yes thats what I was asking
AB is a variable line which always subtends a right angle at the origin. In this case, AB must be a secant of the circle. Then a perpendicular line passing through origin meets AB at P. That line is OP.
Tht was p obvious tho?
I mean they were asking this so I just clarified
It never read meets so I was clarifying
Ok anyways
Makes sense, but there really isn't exactly anything else given so we can assume that without loss of generality.
You want a non analytical way right since you used a computational way
Yeah, I'm currently solving for the equations and stuff so if There's anything else it'll be helpfukl
Wut
Do you know some cyclic quadrilaterals?
The diagram confirms it i think. We arent exactly assuming
As in?
Like properties of cyclic quadrilaterals
Yh
Ok and do you know that the perpendicular from the centre bisects a chord?
And what about the length of the cords? They should be same, you agree
Lenghtbof what chords
Its variable..
The angle is fixed though right?
Angle with?
No
:/
do you know how to do that?
Yh
then homogenize
Not when you call it center
Sure
..
and then apply perpendicular posl condition
sum coefficients of x^2 + y^2 should be = 0
How so
?
basically a homogenous equation in second degree passes through origin
<@&268886789983436800>
Ima go cry now
the homogeneous equation would represent OA and OB
So i dont really get what you're trying to do. Can u idk show me?
mhm.. basically chord subtends 90 degree angle
P is lying on the chord
we homogenize the 2nd degree equation wrt to chord
now if posl are represented by Ax2+2Hxy+By2=0then for then tan(angle b/w them) = 2sqrt(H^2−AB)/(A+B)
theta is 90 so make the denominator zero
.... a+b=0...then...?
..how
Nuh uh
use this
Id rather (h,k)
That's smart
-h/k
right
And we're done damn
lmao
yes
right
Thts gives the locus
right
I feel even more dumb now
Good
Ill keep this channel open tho for maybe another approach altho im sure this is the best one.
going with this ig messy calculation but this would be more direct
I am still stuck with like 5 unkowns so yeah I'm not going to contiunue
nah, you had mentioned it so i tried
Oh what did i mention..
not worth the effort
homogenization
Okay finally got it
P has equation x^2 + y^2 = k^2 for some k
so it's always a circle around the origin?
just for double checking
Have you proved tht?
no I had some mistake there
but yeah after correction I got something liker
x^2 + y^2 + gx + fy + c/2 = 0
After that I tried the method you guys discussed just now
it gives me the exact same expression just way faster
I think my brain is fried but thank you
Same :>
@deep abyss Has your question been resolved?
oh their might be let me check
x^2 + y^2 + gx + fy + c/2 = 0 so i know you have that but anything that you dont understand?
you cannot close other people's channels unless you have the Helpful role or higher
Uhm...
..
I think OP is asking if there is any other methods which can be implemented to solve this except the one people disacussed here
true
Brute force works but I think you'll age like 10 years by the time when you arrive at the answer
Source: me, I tried
😭
Play MC 
There's a way do to this
And you don't have to use coordinate system at all
I'll make a digram hang on
YES This is what i was looking for thank you smart geometer <3
(Similarity conditions, yes)
You're not gonna like it
vec(IP)=PB/BA * vec(OA) + PA/BA * vec(OB)
square both side
Wait, why is this true?
IP^2=PB^2/BA^2 * R^2 + PA^2/BA^2 * R^2 + 2cos(...)R^2*PB*PA/BA^2
Ehh I can show why later
Cosine law: IA^2+IB^2-AB^2=2cos(...)*IA*IB
plug that into the above equation
IP^2= PB^2/BA^2 * R^2 + PA^2/BA^2 * R^2 + PB^2/BA^2 * ( 2R^2-AB^2)/AB^2
uh wait
Then you compute IP^2+OP^2
which would give you constant
Go on ima bk later for explanation 😌
According to this
1/2sqrt(2IP^2+2OP^2-IO^2)=MP
IO^2 is a constant ofc
So is 2IP^2+2OP^2
Thus MP is constant
Done

that is cool
Gimme a min, I'm making a proof for this one
Here we go
Much stronger statement would be: if A,C,B are colinear by that order and O is a random point, OC= xOA+ yOB
then x+y=1
the other way around is also true
@deep abyss Has your question been resolved?
-#
What are you looking for? are two solutions not enough
No sry i hvnt read them yet
@deep abyss Has your question been resolved?
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yo
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if I have a function f(x), that is 4.207267830296800x^{3}-24.082704661729231x^{2}+46.693121021503860x-24.496440720995176, is there anyway to create another function that would maintain a uniform thickness of 0.21 between the two, uniform as in it is perpendicular to the surface. something like a curve offset. the black function is f(x), i got the red function g(x) by doing a horizontal translation 0.21 to the right but is that mathematically correct, it is around what i'm looking for with uniform thickness (the background is just something I want to model with the functions). I also got this green function z(x) by doing f(x) -0.21 sqrt(1+ f'(x)^2)
is there a like a mathematically correct way to get that perfect uniform thickness to f(x) that is simpler than curve offsets, since I need to be able to explain this in my own terms as to how it works
ai is telling me both are wrong, and i should do something like "f(x) - 0.21/sqrt(1+(f'(x)^2))" but that is giving me this purple one
Hint: perpendicular slope means negative reciprocal
i was on that track and i got this but then it ended up looking like the purple one, i think i did smth wrong
oops the integral isnt supposed to be there in the last image
g(x)2 is just the function itself without the integral
@ebon lily Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185> sorry for the ping, i have no idea how to get this perpendicular offset as a function, if i were to just use the horizontal translation is that a valid approximation
can we see the original question or problem you're trying to solve?
@ebon lily Has your question been resolved?
it’s like an investigation, i want to find the volume of an object, and i’m using volume of a solid revolution to do that, for that one polynomial aspect, it has a thickness which i’m finding the volume for. I am assuming uniform volume of 0.21 across the whole segment, so i wanted to establish a parellel curve or offset curve type function that would have uniform thickness of 0.21 from the original f(x), and then i would use the volume of a solid revolution formula to get the volume,
does that make sense
sorry if it’s unclear
in a sense the overall question is just, establishing a function that creates a constant uniform thickness of 0.21 (below) f(x)
uniform thickness as in a parallell curve
Yeah
Solved it
Can't write it as a function
In general
But you can write it parametrically
Let me know if you want the full derivation
@ebon lily
oh shoot tysm
yea thta would be helpful
Do you know parametric relations? This can't be a function in general.
i've heard about it
it's like a set of rules for the x and y coordinates?
Yeah I won't bother with the proof then. I'll just send you the desmos
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$$I = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\ln(\ln(1/x))}{1+x^2} , dx$$
Shikhar
trust me won't work here
Because u would get ln (-ln x)/(1+x^2)
67
Well the function is well defined because between 0 and 1 ln x is better 0 and minus infinity
So I am unsure if
it gives an insane value
Maybe we could do an tan substitution,m
Or sum?
Or an x= e^t to get rid of one ln
?
yes
Yeah good luck
@toxic flower Has your question been resolved?
um.. in integral?
<@&286206848099549185>
assignment
first let u = 1/x
hm..
got this after simplification
$I = \int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{\ln(\ln(u))}{1+u^2} , du$
Shikhar
You can now use the substitution u = e^t
Hint: || it'll allow you to use hyperbolic functions and arrive to known results ||
um.. dont think so
$I = \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{e^t \ln(t)}{1+e^{2t}} , dt$
What'd you get
Shikhar
any nice form?
Yes. Divide the denominator and the numerator by e^t
this is the malmsten integral
$\frac{1}{2} \int_0^\infty \frac{\ln(t)}{\cosh(t)} dt$
Shikhar
dont think any known result would help
I'll try and figure out a solution, I'm 99% sure you need to expand as geometric series
Oh you just get laplace transform of ln nice
$-\gamma\cdot\frac{\pi}{4}-\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{\ln\left(2n+1\right)}{2n+1}\left(-1\right)^{n}$
Roy
I wonder if differentiating the dirichlet beta function could help here
You'd have to appeal to already known values though since they're very nasty to derive
hm.. that'd help ig
lemme try
yeah that'd be fairly easy
yea yea ik about this
ah I didn't know it was called L-function
\begin{align*}
I &= \int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{e^{-x}\ln\left(x\right)}{e^{-2x}+1}dx \
&= \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\left(-1\right)^{n}\int_{0}^{\infty}e^{-\left(2n+1\right)x}\ln\left(x\right)dx \
&\mathcal{L}\left{\ln\left(x\right)\right}\left(s\right)=-\frac{\gamma+\ln\left(s\right)}{s} && \text{Laplace transform of $\ln(x)$}\
I &= \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\left(-1\right)^{n}\mathcal{L}\left{\ln\left(x\right)\right}\left(2n+1\right) \
&= -\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{\gamma+\ln\left(2n+1\right)}{\left(2n+1\right)}\left(-1\right)^{n} \
&= -\gamma\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{\left(-1\right)^{n}}{\left(2n+1\right)}-\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{\ln\left(2n+1\right)}{2n+1}\left(-1\right)^{n} \
&= -\gamma\cdot\frac{\pi}{4}-\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{\ln\left(2n+1\right)}{2n+1}\left(-1\right)^{n}
\end{align*}
Roy
the second term appears to be $L'(1, \chi_4)$
If you want to derive the laplace transform for ln(x) you can differentiate the laplace transform of t^n with respect to n
Shikhar
woa... some nice simplification
derived here #calculus message
$$\frac{\pi}{4} (\gamma + \ln(2\pi)) - \pi \ln \Gamma\left(\frac{3}{4}\right)$$
Shikhar
the log summation simplification
$$\beta\left(s\right)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{\left(-1\right)^{n}}{\left(2n+1\right)^{s}}$$
$$\beta'\left(s\right)=-\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{\left(-1\right)^{n}\ln\left(2n+1\right)}{\left(2n+1\right)^{s}}$$
$$I = -\gamma\cdot\frac{\pi}{4}+\beta'\left(1\right)$$
Roy
yea yea this thing it is
Deriving B'(1) is nasty
Wikipedia has the result ${\displaystyle \beta '(1)={\tfrac {\pi }{4}}(\gamma +2\ln 2+3\ln \pi -4\ln \Gamma ({\tfrac {1}{4}}))={\tfrac {\pi }{4}}(\gamma -\ln 2+2\ln {\tfrac {\pi }{\varpi }})}$
Roy
Soo ☠️
Kummer's Fourier series relates to this
Ah, I don't know what that is
$$-\frac{\pi}{4} \ln(2\pi) + \pi \ln \Gamma\left(\frac{3}{4}\right)$$
Shikhar
hm..
It may have a more original derivation of B'(1)
my prof gave results for some basic l functions
So you're allowed to use the known values without proving them?
dirichlet functions.. that was last chapter
L function were a whole unit
so yes.. can use them


