#help-27
1 messages · Page 386 of 1
np its ok, i just thought that it might be worth it to mention this since imo its easy to confuse injectivity with being well defined if one isnt careful
Why are you so helpful
@ionic harness Has your question been resolved?
\begin{proof}[Proof of \textbf{80}]
Suppose $A \subsetneq S$ has $\phi : A \to S$ a bijection and suppose $S$ is of finite cardinality.
Then $|S| = |A| + |S \setminus A| = |S| + |S \setminus A|$ yields that $|S \setminus A| = 0$, i.e., $A \not\subsetneq S$ which is a contradiction. This doesn't feel rigorous but if true proves $S$ is infinite.
Now suppose $S$ is infinite. Associate each element of $S$ with a number (justification as to why we can do this?). Then $f(x) = 2x$ is one-to-one and onto a subset of $S$ (since the odd-numbered elements don't get mapped to). Therefore we can construct a bijection between $S$ and a subset of $S$ if $S$ is infinite.
\end{proof}
Coolempire2026
I think my brain is mush already
So maybe I shouldn't have added this last one
But here we are
This was the last one
If anybody can omment on my comments within the proof
Then I'll be done
As far as i know that works because you assume S is finite which means you can use that kind of argument with the sizes
it doesn't work with infinite cardinality
for the second direction you have implicitly assumed that |S|=|\mathbb{N}| which isnt necessarily true if S is infinite, eg \mathbb{R} is infinite but |\mathbb{R}| neq |\mathbb{N}|
I knew that I was doing it as I did it and still did it 🤔
idk why I didn't think about why I couldn't do it
yea i do things like that sometimes when i try to prove something but cant really prove the general case
i think its easier if you try the contrapositive
Maybe it's because they didn't formalize it with N_k in this book but I have no clue why I can use that kind of argument
Good point
That sounds much better
if you can work on an equivalent statement but for finite set then why not
you have more tools there so it might be better
if you want to do the second direction directly, one idea might be to ||choose a countable sequence of elements {a_n} from S||, ||and then delete a_1 from S to get A||; ||you can then define a bijection from S to A by mapping each a_i to a_i+1||, ||and anything not in {a_n} to itself||
I didn't check that this actually works but I think it will
Can anybody give me a hint as to what it says under the spiler
Since I can't read it without unspoiling th whole thing
let me split the spoiler into several segments
if infinity is P and bijection is Q
then you've proved not P ⇒ not Q right
which is equivalent to proving Q ⇒ P right?
i always forget
always
i hate it
so whats the contrapositive of "S is infinite if there exists a proper subset A of S such that there is a bijection between A and S"
If you can prove that assuming there is not bijection between a proper subset and the set
that the set is finite
yea then you are done
I've seen this used as a definition of infinite
Yes isn't this dedekind's definition?
Is there a different formal definition of infinite they want you to use?
Or was his the real one and this was the fake one
Idk the name
You know that's a good question let me read back
so @ionic harness, prove that contrapositive which is what katharine said here (and in the message below it). As a hint, ||consider an injective function f:A->S (why does such a function exist to begin with) and prove that it cant be surjective||
Yeah their definition of finite and infinite are realy informal and lacking imo
I much prefer the book that we used way back when
This is about as far as I got but stopped trying to think of why I can grab an injective one
Other than saying it's trivial
wdym by trivial?
Thusly, they should have listed N as an infinite set, surely?
it doesnt matter if there is more than one injective map
what matters is that there exists at least one so that you can continue the argument
Just start numbering the elements one by one, or the identity function for that matter, are injective, so I can construct an injective one
It turns out this is the definition of a Dedekind-infinite set: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dedekind-infinite_set
In mathematics, a set A is Dedekind-infinite (named after the German mathematician Richard Dedekind) if some proper subset B of A is equinumerous to A. Explicitly, this means that there exists a bijective function from A onto some proper subset B of A. A set is Dedekind-finite if it is not Dedekind-infinite (i.e., no such bijection exists). Prop...
Directly after
Yep that's what I thought
.
yea, thats what is called the inclusion map. It basically embeds the subset A into S by mapping each element of A into itself but viewed as an element of S after being mapped
which is also the identity map of A if you restrict the original map f:A->S to g:A->A
oh crap that's actually a good way to approach it
So it suffices to then show that you CAN get a subset of S that's also (regular-def.) infinite [this is starting to feel incorrect tbh tho]
so now you know that there is at least one injective map A->S
now you want to show that this map cant be a bijection
in other words that it isnt surjective
A set is said to be infinite if it is in-finite fr
a vector is any element of any vector space
rereading this, it doesnt look right if i understood what you wrote correctly. numbering the elements of A is a map A->{1,2,..,n} where n=|A|, but thats not a map A->S. Tho you can always find an injective map A->S which is the map that i described to you in an earlier message
That was meant to then be mapped to elements of S
I see, yea that works too. Ie, starting with a permutation of A and then injecting that into S in the obvious way (by mapping each element to itself)
tho thats unnecessary since any permutation of elements of A is just A since a set is unordered, so you might as well map A into S directly by mapping each element of A into itself 
not trying to be nitpicky, but just clarifying things (i hope i am doing this job)
Anyways, now that you know that there exists an injection A->S, prove that it cant be surjective and you are done (why is it sufficient to do this?)
And sorry if i bothered you with anything, i didnt mean to do that
No I'm just very thinking
yea take your time, and if you are confused about anything i said tell me
real
Oh
Am I dumb
Was the first half enough?
I proved that $p \wedge q$ is a contradiction
Coolempire2026
i.e. $\not (p \wedge q)$ is true
Coolempire2026
So $\neg p \vee \neg q$ is true
Coolempire2026
Meaning that $(\neg p \vee q) \wedge (\neg q \vee p)$ is true
Coolempire2026
Assuming excluded middle
wth is going on
Finite and infinite obviously have excluded middle by definition
And a function is either bijection or not bijection
The reason I noticed is because in writing this I found I was just rehashing the first half
\begin{proof}[Revised proof of \textbf{80}]
Suppose $A \subsetneq S$ has $\phi : A \to S$ a bijection and suppose $S$ is of finite cardinality.
Since $S$ is finite, its subset must also be finite, and we can write $S \approx \NN_k$ and $A \approx \NN_\ell$, where $k < \ell$ since $A \subsetneq S$.
Then $|S| = k = |A| + |S \setminus A| = l + (k-\ell) = k + (k-\ell)$ yields that $k = \ell$ which is a contradiction.
Therefore, $S$ cannot be finite when such a bijection exists, and vice versa.
\end{proof}
Coolempire2026
Someone tell me I've gone crazy
It looks like you proved only one implication
It does look like that
But if I just switch the order of the first sentence, it looks like I proved the other
The problem is there
Well take p:true and q:false for exemple
But then how does the proof even demonstrate one direction
Because if I rewrite like this
$\neg p \vee \neg q \equiv p \implies \neg q$
Coolempire2026
I could also rewrite
You proved that if S is finite, then there is no strict subset in bijection with S
$\neg p \vee \neg q \equiv \neg q \vee \neg p \equiv q \implies \neg p$
Coolempire2026
Then now if you take S infinite, you just have to find a strict subset in bijection with S
Yeah, but that seems harder to prove it this way
We tried this one but it was difficult
Easy for N-sized sets but not quite for anything else
It’s doable (if you accept the axiom of dependent choice, which I think most sane people do)
What's that
In your case, it just means that every infinite set contains a N-sized subset
How does that help 👀
I'm learning here how much easier it is to work with naturals than reals 😂
Every idean I have only works with the idea of successors and predecessors
Or maybe it's just fields in general
As long as I can do f(x) = 2x everything starts working 😂
So annoying a set not endowed with multiplication
Starlord
Mmm
They both contain subsets of the same size?
I can map the subsets to each other
I end up mapping every element to every element I assume
I have to think
Oh S is also a subset
That’s a good start, but you should choose these subsets in a specific way
No sorry that’s a typo
It’s just a set
Let’s say you name A a N-sized subset of $S \textbackslash {x}$.
\What N-sized subset of S could you choose so that you can then build a bijection between S and $S\textbackslash {x}$ ?
Starlord
$A$ itself, if it doesn't contain x
Coolempire2026
Sorry I won't be back for long so I will write the solution I had in mind in spoilers.
||Let A be a proper subset of S and let f:A->S be an injective map, then f is not surjective. Indeed, if |S|=n and |A|=k then k<n and if f is surjective then for each y in S, there exists x in A such that f(x)=y.||
||choose any k distinct elements y_1,..,y_k of S, then there exists elements x_1,..,x_k in A such that f(x_i)=y_i for i=1,2,...,k.||
||Now there is an element s in S with s≠y_i for i=1,2,...,k since |S|=n>k and there exists an element a in A such that f(a)=s since f is surjective by assumption, but then f(a)=f(x_m) for some m in {1,2,...,k} since A has k elements, ie A={x_1,..,x_k} which contradicts the fact that f is injective. Hence an injective map A->S can not be surjective||
||You might want to prove that what I proved above is sufficient to conclude that there is no bijection A->S||
I split the solution into multiple spoilers so that you can get hints without directly getting the whole solution
He proved that if there is a bijection A->S then S is infinite
Which is the exact same
Yep
There is something weird since I was following with him earlier
And I remember that he proved something else 
That's why I typed that direction
lmao
What we’re trying to do is building a bijection between S and S \ {x}. So the subset A’ of S that would be adapted to A should allow us to prolong a bijection between A’ and A to one between S and S \ {x}. What should A’ be ?
@red grove check this, I was proving the second direction
O
Which I did
Only in the N-sized case
That's what he proved
Thats why it was missing
But I did prove it for any infinite set
A' should be A\{x} can't be right
Almost there, wrong sense
But you’re still missing the other implication
That's why he was trying to prove it after that, because he knew that his argument didn't work for all infinite set but just for countable ones
Yeah because I only proved this direction which he needed
A'= A union {x}?
Anyways I gtg now
You're telling me a set with N elements and a set with N+1 elements are in bijection
If you check this later and have any questions about it ping me and I will answer when I can @ionic harness
But S \ (A U {x}) = (S \ {x}) \A
You may not need to check it if you already proved this direction
And of course you are forced to check it either way 
N is not a finite number, countable means N-sized
Coolempire2026
Yeah
I was wondering why you chose a capital n for a number
That makes this a lot less trivial 😂
I didn’t know the latex shortcut for this one 😅
\bN for you
Okay I suppose this all makes sense so far
Glad to be doing combinatorics where I don't have to see infinite anything
Right and the rest are in bijection trivially
So we have a bijection from S \ {x} to S
Yep
Yeah
Man only doing the * and ** questions from a textbook really sends me running for my money
This is a reduced version of a more general proof, which might be why it seems weird
The actual property is that for any infinite set S, if D is an at most countable subset of S, and if S \ D is still infinite, then S and S \ D are in bijection
In this case, you apply it to D = {x}, as you only need one example of a strict subset in bijection with S
Well you have a valid proof for both implications now, so I don’t think so
In any case, I must go to sleep, bye 👋
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AGAIN…
Task 27. (0–1 point)
Complete the sentence. Choose the correct answer from the given options.
The number of all three-digit odd natural numbers whose decimal representation contains the digit 0 exactly once is:
A. 45 B. 50 C. 54 D. 81
So it’s like 101,103,105,107,109
Five times in one 100
9*5 =45
And now this
And every number ending with 0 is divisible by 2…
So it can’t be 110,120,130 right?
Isn’t it just 45
I can’t think of nothing else…
,w 990/2
yeah i got 45 too
This is so easy..
ah?
ah...
well- I dont think your process was right
but you did hit the 25%. good for you
it is correct
How is
"Isn't it just 45
I cant think of something else
990 is divisable by 2"
the process to solve this question?
they have this
"So it’s like 101,103,105,107,109
Five times in one 100
9*5 =45"
yeah
It can’t be at the beginning nor the end.
Np.
Yea cause there are 9 different hundreds that begin with other number
TRUE!
100,200,300…. - 9 times
you solved it in a more sufficent way than I did
How’d you do that ?
goodjob boo 🤩
ah- for the first digit,
there are 9 possibilities
for the second digit, there is 1 possibility (results from how a number cant start with 0 and also in this case the number cant end with 0 bc as you said it'll be even) so we need the 0 to be in the middle.
for the third digit, there are 5 possibilities (the 5 ODD numbers between 1 and 10)
i think combinations is a better word to phrase this situation
instead of possibilities
Mhm
No ty
you may close the channel, karen 🤨
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I slept early last night so here we go again
!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
You probably want to use distance/velocity here.
and totally drop the /60.
You can find the answer in hours and then translate for ease of the algebraic expression
thats why the 60 is there
distance should be the invariant not speed
(x+14)(t-0.07)=(x-2)(t+0.013)
Is this wrong?
careful 4.2 minutes is 0.07 hours not 0.7
Ohh wait
actually keeping the /60 is cleaner but this is fine too i guess
What I do next?
are we to assume D=xt?
i think thats the only way to get anywhere
wait it might not even do it
@remote copper Has your question been resolved?
we need something more?
you have to use this
@remote copper Has your question been resolved?
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Suppose $(M, g)$ is a connected Riemannian manifold, $S \subseteq M$ is a connected embedded submanifold, and $\widetilde{g}$ is the induced Riemannian metric on $S$. Prove that if $(M, g)$ is complete and $S$ is properly embedded, then $(S, \widetilde{g})$ is complete.
higher!
the fact that $S$ is properly embedded means that $S$ is closed in $M$, so if we think of $M$ as a metric space so that $(M, d_g)$ is complete, we have that $(S, d_g|_S)$ is complete
higher!
but this is where I'm confused: $d_g|S$ is the restriction of the distance function (read: metric, but I'm calling it a distance function to avoid conflating it with the Riemannian metric g) $d_g$ on $M$, while $d{\widetilde{g}}$ is the distance function induced by the induced metric on $S$
higher!
these aren't the same things, right?
to be clear, given points p and q in M, d_g(p, q) is given to be the infimum of all piecewise smooth curves from p to q
let me elaborate on why this is concerning to me 
the annulus, properly embedded in R^2
when I show that d_g|_S is complete, I'm saying that the ambient distance function on S, given in red, forms a complete metric space
but I need to show that the blue distance function on S is complete, correct?
if I'm misunderstanding something, then do let me know 
but if I'm not, then I'm hopelessly lost
S being complete in the ambient metric doesn't seem to do anything for me when I'm concerned about the intrinsic metric
Pure, I shall summon you to make all my problems go away 
I'm about 93% sure I'm misunderstanding
higher! i'm outside at the moment.. not sure if i'll have time to make a proper reply 
ah, sorry 
no worries
ignore me then 
if it matters, I've proven that $d_{\widetilde{g}}(p, q) \geq d_g(p, q)$ for $p, q \in S$ already
higher!
If I understand correctly, you're not misunderstanding anything. Near the limit point x, the red and blue distances are comparable (bi-Lipschitz). So once the sequence is sufficiently close to x, cutting across the hole doesn’t matter anymore as all points lie in a small neighbourhood where intrinsic and ambient distances differ by at most a constant factor
Pure, I don't know what that means 
bi-Lipschitz?
this? 
is it obvious that red and blue are such though? 
oh, Pure #2 is here
i think all you need to show is that the map $\id : (S, d_{\widetilde g}) \to (S, d_M\rvert_S)$ is uniformly continuous
It is as Coriol Anus said via Hopf–Rinow
in simple terms, locally your submanifold S looks like a flat Euclidean plane sitting inside M, and the metric tensors g and g~ vary continuously
the hole doesn't matter locally
at some point all the points in the cauchy sequence will lie in the same chart
hmm, can I just argue that the identity is Lipschitz because of this inequality?
with constant 1, that is
so it's unif cont?
yes
yes
I see
blud what is VIVII
you two are literally isomorphic
6 7
blud answered me anyway


okie dokie, this problem is solved 
thank you @arctic field and @vagrant skiff for the help 
and thank you @uncut crow for the moral support 
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i just dont get these type of questions at all even tho i know what all of these words mean in theory, can someone help
hmm, what do you find particularly confusing? 
in the actual exam i wrote everything basically inverse except the 5th question..
I’d need to hear your reasoning for these problems then
I’m not sure where you’re lost
if you know all the definitions and a few basic properties, it shouldn’t be too bad 
e.g for question i), what incentivized you to respond the way you did?
if you’re just guessing, then that would be a problem 
sorry i dont really remember my reasoning at the time but is the 1st one about how col space changes with matrix manipulation and row space doesnt?
damn ok.. 😭 i definitly knew that
^^
nott really
an elementary matrix is any matrix you get by performing one row operation to the identity matrix
left multiplying a matrix by an elementary matrix corresponds to doing a row operation
and row operations don’t change the row space of a matrix :p
on the other hand, they have no obligation to preserve the column space 
i just remmeber it as col(R)=/ col(A) so i guess i got confused.. dumb mistake
I don’t know what R is there 
its the reduced row echolen form of the A matrix
i dont think it is an offical like term it is just what we use while solving questions
ah, then sure
but then you got it backwards 
col space can change, row space cannot 
in any case, the rest of the problems are quickly solvable using some basic tools you’ve seen in linear algebra
can i get help on the 3rd one also? why is it non invertible
do you remember how the determinant changes under row operations?
specifically, under the operation of swapping two rows?
it is multiplied with -1 right
yup
what does this tell you about det A?
remember: A consists of all 7s, so swapping two rows still leaves you with A
oh det(-A)=det(A)?
mm, not det(-A)
-det(A)..?
-A is a different matrix, with entries all -7
yes!
okkk that makes a lot of sense
smart 
thanks a lot for the help!!
but my suggestions for ii) and v) are the same: use the rank nullity theorem; for iv), note that a nontrivial null space means the matrix is non-invertible (hm, you can use the rank-nullity thm here too :p)
okay, good night, and good luck!! 
tyty goodnight 
have you seen invertible matrix theorem?
the one with det orr?
oh this im not sure
i think it was after this exam
it’s a list of equivalent statements for when a matrix is invertible
but it’s really useful for situations lik these
for example with question 3 you could see that the matrix is not row equivalent to the n x n identity matrix (which is listed as b in the theorem) and deduce that it’s not invertible
since it’s not invertible the determinant is 0
it might be overwhelming but if you learn it you won’t have to memorize much
I think David lays book on linear algebra does a great explanation
i know some of the properties but i get confused on this type of questions easily
i will try to learn it fully..
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Do you know how displacement on chained pullies work?
using constraints.
T = mg
2T= Kx_o (x_o is initial displacement due to m block)
=> 2mg = Kx_o
and constraint equation will be x_o = 3x
I don't generally consider gravity in the mix, it'll cancel out anyways
If the middle pulley moves by $x_2$ upon $m$ being disturbed, with string tension $T$, we have that $kx_2 = 2T$. Similarly, if the left pulley moves by $x_1$, you have that $2T = kx_1 + kx_1$. And the total displacemenet $x$ of $m$ would be $2x_1 + 2x_2$
jewels!
You get T = (k/6)x which would be the magnitude of the restoring force on m
@normal bolt Has your question been resolved?
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How do I start
since you know the answer is with e, try to get something that looks like the definition of e as a limit
If ican get 1^(infinity) form then getting e is possible
Btw how is that term outside the function written ? Is it (1/x^x)²
I'd start by taking that logarithm of the whole thing
I think it would be x^(1/x²)
That would turn it into a sum which is easier to manage
No?
It is 1/x^(x^2)
Its (1/x)^(x^2)
yea
mb
;/
I thought it had the negative next to the 2
Are these two the same
No
Let that whole expression be equal to some L, take log on both sides and see if u can simplify it
No
The right expression is 1/x^(2x)
Yes
Yea they are the same
Notice the other expression is also raised to x
Insert an e^ln in there
$\lim f = \lim e^{\ln f} = \exp \lim \ln f$
jewels!
How do I simplify this 😔💔
I applied the first formula my teacher gave me
Okay but what happened to the (x + 1)^x
I brought x^x inside and divided it with each term inside the {brackets}
So that would leave you with ((x+1)/x^x)^x
Well the question was this so I gave each term in the {brackets one x each bcz there were x terms total in there
I still think you might be better off doing this
[ \exp \lim_{x \to \infty} -x + \prod_{k=1}^{x-1} \left ( x + \frac 1{2^{k}}\right ) ]
gingerbread house
It's fine, I think she's expected to use the squeeze theorem now
yeah that probably works better
I expected some type of Riemann sum but that's probably not happening
Ouuu i have to leave now but If i don't get it till tomorrow I'll ask again
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help me here. the correct answer is B. I have no idea how.
What is the defining property of an isotope?
why are we doing chemistry? 😭
look
its negatively charged
an isotope means same number of protons
so look
B has the same number of protons
the isotope of an element has same number of protons but different number of neutrons. Thus, they have same atomic number (Z) but different mass number (A). in your figure it looks like the white balls in the nucleus are representing protons, and the darker ones are representing neutrons.
there are three protons, this implies the atom must have 3 electrons to be neutral. however it has 4 electrons which means it is negatively charged with relative charge of -1, to get the ion, thats a different isotope and the opposite charge, we need to have the same number of protons but different number of neutrons and 2 electrons less (+1 charge)
and the total charge on it is +1
the diagram shows a -1 charge
hence its oppositely charged and also an isotope
how
how do u say this much for ts
😭
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I know this is not a maths problem but a physics one but it's just 12th grade level so it shouldn't be that hard. the problem is question 5 where they ask for both the value of r and L but we don't have the value of E and I can't find a way to get their value without needing E. we can use the graph shown in the picture and we have R = 90 ohm
Someone translate that
Which question is it
5)a
some expressions are messed up but you can refer to the original pic
Ok
@deft flower Has your question been resolved?
You cannot work out E without L and vice versa
$\begin{cases}
R+r = 200L \
E = 12L
\end{cases}$
so we're missing infos in the exercise?
-# You have to enclose it by the dollar sign or [ ... ] now for some reasons
I don't speak French, but from what I can gather, it is implied that E is given as E
r is given as r
Just some arbitrary values
It's pretty common in physics problems
a handsome russian dude
Thanks
In fact I haven't seen numbers in my physics problems for quite some time now, it's all just arbitrary values and physical constants 🥀
Better get used to it if you're planning to attend uni
yeah ofc but here they're asking for the value
ig it's just missing info since there's too few data and too many unknowns
well thanks tho !
.close
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Prove that (2n)!/(n!) is divisible by 2^n
oof
what have you tried?
Tbh idk if I'm right or idk where to begin
hm
But I have some sort of idea
Id think if it will real work
Did you mean (2n)!
?
Yes
i think cancelling should give you some space
The question was given cancelled only I shortened it to this
dude stop
Yea exactly like this
if you count how many even numbers are in this list
n/2
match the terms like this
--------------
1 2 3...```
You have n even terms from 1 to 2n
then you should be able to prove that this series is divisible by $2^{\frac{n}{2}}$
[n/4] are divisible by 4
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
Is this a part of binomial theorem?
oh my god
The chapter
I don't think so
Hmm
bruh
It's more like PnC ig
Looks really familiar
idk where's the other $2^{\frac{n}{2}}$ go
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
i believe theres a funny proof using some sort of grouping
really?
this will get you the answer quite quick
i just cant prove it
Sire let's backout
Wait guys calm down
the question says to prove $\binom{2n}{n}$ is divisible by $2^n$?
There comes Ann
Ann
friendly reminder if you cant solve the question on your own first then you shouldnt be the one helping lolol
Say her after long time
any "use this method" / "use anything BUT this method" kind of prescriptions?
if not then i have something that can cook
go on
i dont think thats the same as (2n)!/n!
this isnt true, see 4C2
GET THE PAN
my bad yes
basically
thought one thing, wrote another; (2n)!/n! in fact is what i was looking for.
i can think of two different methods to do it.
$\prod_{i=n+1}^{2n} (i)$ is divisible by $2^n$
oh my god please just look at this
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
Again
i think that only get you to $\left \lfloor \frac{n}{2} \right \rfloor$ even terms
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
GIF of n/2 no. are divisible by 2
GIF of n/4 no. are divisible by 4
..............
....... And so on
you have 2n terms in total, not n terms
Hi
agree
so n even terms, each divided by their half
cancelling only gives you n terms
the question asks $\frac{2n!}{n!}$
NOT $\frac{(2n)!}$
and thats enough innit. n factors, each of them 2, times some other uncancelled shit.
Look at garlic's way of partitioning please
i am going to ask you to kindly back off, youre being more harm than help @rain summit
point point
aight so where is OP actually
Are you still there @blazing bolt? 😂
oh sniped
Sorry for the disturbance
You can choose whoever to walk you through the solution among the helpers still here, I think it's better if only one helper took care of this from now on
Yes
Oh
Well, I'll like to with Ann
Well if Ann is fine with that, I'll leave you to it
okay right so
there are two ways:
- the algebraic, fraction-cancellation way (rehash of what garlic did)
- the more abstract way involving permutations and combinations
which one do you want
ok
let me think about how to formulate this most cleanly
aight hold on do i actually cook with this
cause unfortunately i might not
Take ur time
or less so than i thought i would
Hard question
i mean i can do #1 in the meantime
Well I have also begun to learn abstract maths out of JEE
or give a demonstration of it or something
It's an olympiad question
Ig from Spain and 19_9year
ok so this is gonna be kinda weird and way less elegant than i thought
lets say we have a set of 2n balls, n red and n blue, labelled 1 through n within each color\
so every number from 1 to n is represented on one red ball and one blue ball
Wow i see u thought out of the box
now what i want to say is that (2n)!/n! is the number of ways to place n balls from that entire collection out in a row
but then i have to somehow argue that we can partition these arrangements into subsets of size 2^n (which means some kind of n systematic binary choices that i was hoping to encode in ball colors)
and you wanna say that you can basically just look at the ball numbers and leave the color of each ball up to a binary choice
but if you got both balls of the same number in the row already it doesnt work
and im trying to figure out how to resolve this issue on the fly
Yes
Ok so
Number one colour even and one odd
dont quite see how that helps us yet
Typing it out 1 min
Pull 2 as a factor from each even
oh what no
ok you're doing the fraction thing
that is a workable approach but does nothing to help my combinatorial conundrum
Hmm..
@tender wharf see this message, we're interested on the second point rn
Then we'll have [n/4] even integers left
Ic
lets forget the fraction thing since you wanted the other approach
maybe i can re-explain the algebraic way
so you at least walk away w something
cause rn you're getting confused on that
on the numerator, sort the even factors separately from the odds. so you have (1 * 3 * 5 * ... * (2n-1)) * (2 * 4 * 6 * ... * (2n))
and the odd stuff. just dont touch that anymore
and then with 2 * 4 * 6 * ... * (2n), cancel that out factor-by-factor with the n! a.k.a. 1 * 2 * 3 * ... * n that's on the bottom
Had the same idea and stuck there
get left with 2 * 2 * 2 * ... * 2
with n factors of 2 there
and that's your 2^n laid bare
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So it's solved?
Well the helpee was content with method 1 of showing divisibility by 2^n
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can anyone give me the proof why it is subspace...
I don't want a short answer like ' If v is a span then it is also a subspace'
i am asking you to prove this
- closed under scalar multiplication
and - closed under addition
Is this a test?
does anyone know wheres 9lana
no
he was teaching me maths
okay, cool
Let's start with closure under addition
Span is by definition the set of linear combinations of those vectors
So it’s closed
Under both addition and scalars
i know this..
i just want you to prove this to me
U should try
This is also a proof btw
i meant like this
Let v and w be two linear combinations
Is v+w a linear combination?
Try and show this urself
Then we can also introduce a scalar a
I am currently studying, but to satisfy this orally, a subspace of a vector space must satisfy three properties, it contains a "zero" vector meaning 0's inside the bracket notation, it is closed under vector addition and it is closed closed under scalar multiplication.
Someone here can represent my reasoning mathematically
and prove it.
Ok bye bye off I go!
An alternative proof is just to observe that the span of some collection of vectors W in a vector space V
Is the smallest subspace of V that contains W
while proving closed under scalar multiplication..
do i multiply first vector with n and 2nd one with n and add it?
What is n?
any real number
Well write it out here
What is an arbitrary linear combination for starters
Of ur given vectors
[1,-4] and [0,2]
You want to introduce an arbitrary linear combination of those vectors
The "n" in ℝⁿ just tells you how many dimensions the space has. When he wrote ℝ² - that means each vector has 2 components indicating that its a flat plane. (x,y)
??
Are u using ai
No?
We never said anything about R^n
? asking or saying?
Saying
He used that in his proofs. You asked what "n" meant and I assumed you asked that because you saw that next to ℝ.
No
To substitute the 2
If you meant in this, though, he'd clarified this to mean "any real number" - so "R^n" is nonsensical
ok
I just want to know what are the steps to prove that the v is a subspace closed under scalar multiplication..using the actual values
Okay
if i am clear,please understand this...
You’re clear
But I think I’m not being clear
Okay so to show closed under scalar multiplication
Do u know what that means, in general?
multiplying with any scalar to both and add the results?
yes..i forgot
Okay
Let’s revise
Let V be a subset of some vector space
To show it’s closed under scalar multiplication
We show that for any vector v and scalar k in V, that kv is also in V
Makes sense?
to prove only one vector out of those two that are in the question?
Forgot the question for a moment
I want to be on the same page on u regarding this first
If it doesn’t make sense then so
won’t the question
e.g. please
Let V = {0} contain only the zero vector of say R^2
To show its closed under scalar multiplication
I let k be an arbitrary scalar
And v an arbitrary vector in V
I want to show that kv is also in V
Okay but v must be of the form v = 0
So kv = 0, for any k
Hence kv is in V
This shows what we wanted
?
Set of vectors
Which in my example ?
1,2,3 ....n
Hm, what makes u say that?
you should have taken R^2 vectors
?
idk
Okay let’s do this line by line
Does this make sense?
no
Why not? Something in particular?
why only 0
isn't R^2 has two components?
Ah I see the confusion
I specified that 0 was the zero vector in R^2
0 is shorthand notation for (0,0)
ohk
Okay awesome
Does this fist like make sense now?
yes
Read onwards from here
ok got it
Great
what if there are two vectors like in the que
Does the general definition of closed under scalar multiplication make sense before we continue?
yes
Okay so for the question
The key addition here is that V is the Span of two concrete vectors in R^2
So a vector in V in the question
Is a linear combination of (1,-4) and (0,2)
Do u know what that means?
multiplying scaler with both and adding them
Mhm
Could you “mathematically/symbolically” write out an arbitrary vector in V
We’ll use it
,?
two vectors?
This is in words
No?
You’ve said urself that you want to prove this concretely with the values
So write out v concretely
I’m not the one that wanted this
is it a linear combinations of thise two?
Yes
We’re kinda on this step
it also has to be in the span?
V is instead Span of two vectors
Yes
we want to show kv is a linear combination of (1,-4) and (0,2)
ok
That’s why it’s good to write out v symbolically
Since we know v is already a linear combination
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Closed under wizard hehe
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There’s more solutions (answer) to this question how do I find em
<@&286206848099549185>
It's this
Write in general solutions form
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what does linearly dependent mean? And how to solve this?
concise but unhelpful answer:
a set of vectors is linearly dependent if there exists a linear combination of them with not all weights 0 which nonetheless adds up to the 0 vector
more targeted counter-question: have you done any linear algebra before yes/no
if two vectors are linearly dependent, one can be expressed as a multiple of the other
to be a little handwavey. you should know the definitions of linearly independent/dependent already
yes
right so then
yeah linear (in)dep is like the first concept you should learn in linalg
unless all you did was matrixfucking
which part of this explanatiob did you struggle to understand?
For example
(3 4 5) and (6 8 10) are linearly independent because 2×(3 4 5)=(6 8 10)
here's another example:
how do I use it in vectors?
for some visual intuition:
a and b are linearly independent
b and c are linearly dependent
I mean how do I use it in my original problem
let u = (1,1); v = (-1,1) and w = (0,1). these vectors satisfy u + v - 2w = 0, therefore they are dependent.
in your original problem it is most convenient to use the specifics of when two vectors are linearly (in)dependent
If the 2 vectors are linearly dependent, then for some k,
x²=-2k(x-1) and b=3akx²
namely the criterion FOR TWO VECTORS ONLY can be stated as follows:
- if either of your vectors is the zero vector, then the pair is dependent automatically.
- otherwise, if one of your vectors is a scalar multiple of the other, then the pair is dependent.
- otherwise, the pair is independent.
okay and similarly a and d are dependent too right?
so step 0 is to check if there exist any x's that make V_1 = 0 or V_2 = 0
there aren't
ok so you move on then
in fact V1 and V2 are never 0 for any x are they
so make $\vec{V}_1 = k\vec{V}_2$ and figure out what values of $x$ make $k$ exist
Ann
ok
3ax^2 =kb(x-1)
and then the D of this quadratic should be greater than 0 right?
Thats not certain because we dont know if there are real values of x
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how do i take approach to it
combinatorics
but more specifically a route is a sequence of instructions for which way to go
and it will consist of m-1 ↓ and n-1 →
m-1 means the person has crossed 1 lines out of total m lines?
no, m-1 means m-1
formula?
maybe a concrete example would help?
draw a layout with 5 NS streets and 3 EW streets.
see how many steps in each direction take you from corner to corner
3 and 5 respectively
mark them please
as a concept consider the picture below. notice that under these constraints, the red, yellow, and blue routes are all shortest paths
consider being in the position of the traveling man. at any step in your journey you can travel North or East if you want to take the shortest path
this is the wrong orientation but the idea is here
but it depends in which direction person goes
depends on which corner the person is standing
if i fix one corner to solve question
then according to this picture i go east or north
yeah, and according to your question you go east or south instead
yes
imagine writing out your route as a series of moves of either east or south
you'll always have to make some number of east moves and some number of south moves
but you can do them in any order since the grid means the destination will be reached regardless
so how many ways can you write such a route (as a string of easts and souths)
person has to move at least one time east and one time south. like this he covers total of m streets and n streets but when the path is created by moving so m and n repeats so is it : (mC2 nC2)/m!n!
we can actually say exactly how many times the man must move east or south
we must cover (m - 1) North-to-South streets to reach the destination, there are m streets and we already occupy the first
similar logic for the other direction, we must make (n - 1) south moves

awesome explanation
@normal bolt Has your question been resolved?
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when doing gaussian elimination do you have to start by making the first row begin with a pivot
or is it not necessary
It's not necessary
But it's usually done. Just like you wouldn't write -a + b
You'd probably want to write b - a, even though it's the same
When performing gaussian elimination, you really want there to be a pivot in the first row for convenience. But you don't technically need it
@drifting tartan Has your question been resolved?
oh i see thanks
im doing a linalg course at uni and the first step is to do this
so do you reckon id lose marks if i didnt since its not necessary
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When i wanna a 5 cm rising on 100 cm it's easy because when i rise by 5 cm on 100 cm distance the rise gonna be 5 cm but what if i wanna get a 5 cm rise on just 60 cm instead of 100 ? how to calculate that
what exactly do you mean
let's say we have a wooden board that's 100 cm in length -> when we rise the other end by 5 cm we get a 5 cm rise because it's 100 cm but how to figure out how much cm i need rise to the the same 5 cm rise ( angle ) but just on a 60 cm long board ?
yes that's me mostly 😂
so, this angle? just use trig
do you want percentage increase?
Superfast diagram wow
(final - intial) / intial * 100%
yes but i wanna have it in cm rise at the end of the board not in angle measurement if that's possible
you want the angle in centimeters?
^??
yes the elevation
but you yourself said you want the elevation to be 5cm
so there's nothing to calculate
i want to know the elevation in cm of the 60 cm board to be the same like 100 cm board and 5 cm elevation
do you mean that you want the 60cm and 100cm board to be the same ANGLE off the ground?
i want to get the same elevation on the 60 cm board so the rise how to be different then 5cm not ? like higher number
this?
basis is 5cm elevation now how to use the same elevation and calculate how much i need to rise at the end of the board of different board lengths without any angle just elevation in cm
yes without angle just same elevation
i apologize for asking this, but is English your native language?
not native but i use it for like 15 years with friends over internet
the thing is
this you can do easily by scaling the side lengths
you're making approximately zero sense right now
but op says no angles...
?






