#help-27
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Let me clarify what I'm asking for:
I want you to draw the vectors AB, BC and CD, which you have already drawn on this image.
I just don't want you to draw DA (which you have also drawn)
Good! So,
Based on this image, what do you think AB + BC + CD looks like?
How do you normally add up vectors?
a triangle
mmm
with their components
Out of curiousity, what is the vector AB + BC?
AC
AD
Good!
So, based on what you said,
AB + BC + CD = AD
Right, so - what do you think we can do with this information?
hm
it means that its a resultant because the arrow of AD is touching the arrow of CD
Sure (I mean resultant means total anyway, so AD is the resultant vector because it is the total of the other three vectors).
I guess what I mean to say is, how does this relate to our question?
Like, what are we trying to find?
we need to find AB + BC + CD to find AD
we get the resultant components of AD
then it says the distance
so we have to do sqrtx^2 + y^2
then u have the distance
yeah
Is AD the vector from Diane to Adam?
yeah it said to find the distance from Diana to Adam
Right. So does it matter whether we have AD or DA?
yeah because if it was DA it wouldnt be a resultant vector
because its arrow touches the origin point of AB
I mean
Yeah, DA isn't a resultant vector
But the question is asking us to find the distance from Diana to Adam, so whether we have vector AD or DA, does it matter which vector we use?
nah it wont cause the distance would remain the same
Perfect.
Just to let you know; AD is the vector from Adam and Diana, while DA is the vector from Diana to Adam.
wait i got a question what if it didnt say one of the components but it said a norm
yeah
The question does ask for the norm from Diana to Adam, but as you said, the distance doesn't depend on the direction.
If it only had a norm, then you'd need a direction too.
Since a vector has two things; distance and direction.
Using those two, it is possible to convert it back into component form (similar to what we did yesterday).
No problem :)
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Hi can i have a small hint on this pls
only one i can think of is (xn) = 0
can you write out the condition with the epsilon and N in math symbols?
So we want a for all N?
Hmm alright, lemme think abt this
also just so you know there are more that meet the condition than just the 0 sequence
And they’re not constant sequences?
(1, 0, 0, ...)
not quite
Oh wait yea
Hmm so it’s the tail of the sequence we look at here
But it has to be independent
yep, good
Of epsilon
N
what must the tail look like?
hm so my thought is, after n>=N the tail must be 0s
yea that’s right
needs proof but that is what you should try to prove
well more precisely
the sequences that meet the condition are the ones that are eventually all 0s
yep
im so confused how id even prove that? is the q asking to prove it or just state examples?
tbf proving could be an exercise in itself
i like to think about sequences in terms of the words frequently and eventually. not “eventually all 0s” means there are frequently terms that aren’t 0
where frequently means they exist no matter how far out you go
but we want eventually all 0s to satisfy our condition
yea but we want to show all the other sequences don’t satisfy
this is ez to show
write out the quantifiers
hint: ||when writing out quantifiers, each variable can depend only on the variables before it; for instance, the regular definition is for all epsilon>0, there exists N; the N can depend on epsilon because it comes after for all epsilon quantifier||
Ah so we want in our case, once N is fixed, ie there exists an N in N such that for all eps >0 and all n >=N we have that |xn| < eps
yeah exactly
That forces xn to be 0 then surely
so what does it mean if |a|<epsilon for all epsilon>0
yeah, see if you can prove that
hint: ||proof by contradiction||
@pastel rose Has your question been resolved?
the logic is right, it's just that the wording makes it a bit weird
like you're not using the fact that x_n converges, you're using the modified assumption you began with
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We are learning vectors but I was pulled out of class right at the end. So all I got for the end was how example 11 started. Now I don’t know what im supposed to do next.
I just need someone to help me understand what im supposed to do on question that ask me to “write each vector in trigonometric form”
i'm not sure how your class expects "trigonometric form" to be written but the calculations would consist of finding the magnitude and angle as shown in example 11
I never got to see how example 11 ended since I left class early. And here is what she gave us for the forms I guess.
I don’t fully understand what all that mumbo jumbo means😭
ok so once you have $\norm{\vb p}$ and $\theta$ you can write it in the form $\norm{\vb p}\langle \cos\theta,\sin\theta\rangle$ and that is the trigonometric form
cloud ☁
So for example 11 I’d just do this then?
well i would probably just leave it in the second to last form
since the last one is just back in component form again
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I have a quadratics test and I dont understand how to graph from standard form
One of the main questions im struggling with is about time in the air and height
the equation is phrased like h= 2t² - 9t + 18 where h is height in the air and t is time
Im very lost and unsure how to answer it, i googled it and it left me more confused
this is another example question
@wild phoenix Has your question been resolved?
-b/2a is the x coordinate of the line of symmetry. You can plug in additional points or solve for the roots and plot them
2t^2 being positive means it opens up
so -28/-4?
thats the x coordinate yeah
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why does this equal 0
$e^{-6x} = \frac{1}{e^{6x}}$
Coolempire93
interesting go on
Plugging in infinity ||yields infinity in the denominator||, and since cos is ||bounded -1 to 1||, we have ||a constant over infinity|| ||-> 0||
i understood the denominator part but why does -1 to 1 and constant over infinity make it 0?
why is it 0 because cos is bounded to a range between -1 to 1
Here's a question
$\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}\frac{c}{x} = ?$
Coolempire93
i dont know how to solve that lol
what happens to a fraction as its denom grows without bound?
that's essentially what that limit is about
Think about some real examples of fractions
if you have a pizza and you’re sharing with people
but even if it is a 1/inf, it is still between -1 and 1 right?
what happens to the size of pizza as the amount of people increase
how many slices do we have?
pizza stays constant?
hopefully
wait would the pizza eventually run out?
I mean if you take the pizza analogy
poof
the more people there are, the more slices there are
(The point is ||the numerator is at minimum -1, so -1/infinity = 0, and at maximum 1/infinity = 0 so it's bounded by squeeze theorem (sandwich theorem)||)
Open that up once they finish explaining
got it
more slices there are ? so like pizza going from lets say like 2 slices to 8 slices for example?
yes
okay understood so far
yes
so what happens when eventually you slice an infinite number of slices
the slices could reach to absolutely nothing but it will never reach it 🥀
yes, true, but as the number of slices grows without bound, the area of each slice tends to 0
and that is the key
i see, so that is why if 1/2 eventually goes to 1/inf, 1/inf "limits" to 0?
the limit of 1/x as x tends to inf is 0, yes
but notice that
it doesn't matter what the numerator was
if you had 1000 pizzas, slicing all the way to infinity will still have the area of each slice tend to 0
so even if sin was in place of cos, it would still be 0?
(They're both bounded by constants)
if it was infinite then we'd have an indeterminate form
that will be a headache for another day
Hahaha
inf/inf doesnt equal 1?
💀
oh nonononononono.
Infinities have different sizes as you'll see later
limits is the first topic that forces you to acknowledge that our intuition regarding infinity is not as good as you think
A simple example
so thats why the cos bounding part was importatn
and no, you cannot treat infinity like a number and cancel them off
Both $x^2$ and $x$ grow to infinity as x approaches infinity, but $$\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}\frac{x}{x^2} = \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}\frac{1}{x} = 0$$
Coolempire93
Although sometimes it may seem like it, like here XD
im gonna throw up
||Which I mean x and x are the same infinity so same infinity squared but||

No problem! I would say since you're working on all these limit problems though
It would be good for you to try and get an intuitive understanding like we worked on here
Let me get you a link
To read
got it
also, you may want to note the seven indeterminate forms
In this chapter we introduce the concept of limits. We will discuss the interpretation/meaning of a limit, how to evaluate limits, the definition and evaluation of one-sided limits, evaluation of infinite limits, evaluation of limits at infinity, continuity and the Intermediate Value Theorem. We will also give a brief introduction to a precise ...
if you get these, your limit is indeterminate and you need to manipulate your expression
The actual introduction to limits is quite complicated (because it's rigorous) so I would start with the Computing Limits section if what you see in the first parts aren't included in your textbook
Yep, just like that 0/0 problem you asked about before
(even 1^inf btw!)
but 1^inf is a bit of a specialty amongst the indeterminate forms because it's a bit nuanced
so another day perhaps
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Oh I guess as a last note if you have free time and want to do something blackpenredpen has great limit videos (on indeterminate forms as well as his 'evaluating 100 of these' in preparation for tests) and great calculus videos in general 🙂
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how do you approach b
i think for a you use cross ratio formula right
for b do you just plug in a point in T(z) = ...
then see if it maps to upper half?
you don't need to use cross ratios
you find your T, and you should know that boundary is mapped to boundary
so check some points on your boundary to identify whether it's mapped to a line or a circle
oh i mean to find T, you use cross ratio right
ok suppose $T(z) = \dfrac{4z}{6-z}$
toast
could u explain this with this T^
ye
yes
so, you are looking at where your boundary is mapped to (that is, your im(z) = 0 line)
it can only be a circle or a line
would you know how to do that
hmm
so like
in the question
it maps points from the real axis to the real axis
right, so your new boundary is also the real axis
how do you check which region it actually is?
plug a point then?
yes exactly
so this is where you plug in i for exampel
:)
so we just use a random point from the upper half plane and plug into T
not sure tbh
well, the boundary points are not in the region anyway, but if it was >= 0 instead, it is important to know
i learned this mobius transformation stuff approxmaitely 3 hours ago and my final is at 10 am
😭
right, well, we are trying to find where the region is
ye
we have alreayd identified it maps the real line to the real line, but if we plugged in a boundary point, what would we get back
a point on the boundary?
exactly
ahh
but we already know where the boundaries are, so it's superfluous
if your transformation is correct, yeah
got it
His transformation is correct
so in this question
this is mapping a circle -> line?
and i guess to see what line specically we use boundary points of |z| = 1
yes
Though when it’s a region not a circle you still need to use an extra point. Like f(z)=4z/(6-z) you found that f maps x-axis to x-axis, but the image might be either upper or lower plane. Do decide which you still need to try one point, z=i for example
so here we can plug in like -i, i, -1
oh rlly
oh mb i thought i explained that
Yeah. Möbius map maps a circle to what circle you need three points, maps what region to what region you need four
you could yeah
so we get -0.5, -0,5 +- i0.5 so x = -0.5?
Oh he said that
yh seems right
although
this makes me want to ask, how did you deduce it was a line?
right, but that is not enough to deduce, since if i shrunk the circle down to say |z| = 1/2, it would no longer be a line
ah
the point is that this pole is on your circle so there is a point at infinity
To see what f(z) maps unit circle to, it’s the same as finding {z: |f^-1(z)|=1}, which is solving |z+1|/|z|=|1+1/z|=1
oh
so that makes a bit of sense
if a pole exists on the boundary
then it must map to a line
in general, you need 3 points to determine
2 points is not enough because it could just be a circle passing through those 2 points
the 3rd point determines if they are all colinear or whether it really is a circle
cuz there would be a point at inifity?
yes
A line can be viewed as a circle whose one point is infinity
here it maps to a line and we plug in different points on the circle to find that line
could there be an example where it just maps to differrent real values?
would the line be a slope in that case
I think given three distinct points as input and three distinct points as their image it can always determine a möbius transformation
ah
Three distinct points, needless to say.
and
my understadning is that
these 3 points should always form something linear
(if we are mapping to a line)
so probably something went wrong
with the mapping
It’s simply that three distinct points determine a circle (line is viewed as a circle too)
ah that makes so much sense now
i was wondering why we needed 3 instead of 2, but here we just treat a. line as a special circle with points agt inifnity
so if we are suppsoe to map to a line (i.e a pole on the boundary), ,and we dont get collinear points then somethign went wrong
but if we do get collinear points, then we can determine what line the transformation maps to
Yes. And infinity is very real to us actually, the complex plane adding this infinity is just a sphere S^2
got it :) thank you so much this makes alot more sense now haha
i guess this is why these thigns are called generalized circles
Yeah
alright 😭 thats prbs all i need to know for mobius transformations on the exam
good luck!
Rock the exam
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Use Cauchy’s estimate
I mean f(z) has Taylor series on the whole plane, and use Cauchy’s estimate to estimate f^(n)(0)
Yes
M_R in the picture is the maximal |f(w)| for w in the closed ball, radius R, center z_0
closed disk I meant
so we let |z| = R
oh waittt
so they gave us the poklynomial of degree one
that means f^(n)(z_0) where n >= 2 = 0
or i guess
Yeah you need to show that
that is what we are trying to show
z_0=0
why do we use z_0 = 0 versus any other point?
f(z)<=4+5|z|^(3/2)
If the condition is f(z)<=4+5|z-z_0|^(3/2) certainly we would consider z_0
ohh
bc its centered at 0
$|f^{n}(0)| \leq \dfrac{n!}{R^n}\bigg(R + 5R^{3/2}\bigg)$
toast
Yeah
yepp and when n >= 2 and we take the limit as R -> infinity
we get that the derivative <= 0
=0
Yeah
kk that makes alot of sense tysm
Np
Yeah
Correct
kk
i see
louisvilles theorem is like if a function is entire and bounded then it is constant
Yeah
ahh
I mean if the statement is false, 1/g will be bounded
so this is kind of liek a proof by contradiction
Yeah
so assume that for all z |f(z) - i| >= 1
then the function g(z) = 1/|f(z) - i| is bounded by 1
so g(z) <= 1
then
Though I would drop | | in g
note that g(z) is entire
oh ok
bc g(z) is entire and bounded, then we can represent g by some constant alpha by louivilles
h(z) entire doesn’t imply z|-> |h(z)| entire
oh ok
ur right
but then this implies f(z) = 1/alpha + i
but we assume f(z) is nonconstant
so a contradiction
Exactly
It’s just that cos(Z) has no singularity, and 1/z does have, 0
So when integral around 0, one will be 0, another one will be 2πi
I don’t think it does. It looks like that form only to make sure it contains a closed curve around 0
got it
tysm
.sovled
.solved
No problem
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Hiii
@wheat moss Has your question been resolved?
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Some angle's sides are going through the circumference. We need to find and prove which arc is bigger
!xy
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as i assume there are two cases. We need to prove that arc CD is bigger than arc AB
arc closer to the vertex should be bigger
we need to prove it
so none of sides is tangential?
hmm..
angles with vertex outside the circle measure = 1/2[ bigger arc - smaller arc]
@wicked thorn Has your question been resolved?
@wicked thorn Has your question been resolved?
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Some angle's sides are going through the circumference. We need to find and prove which arc is bigger
!xy
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
wait shit use the arc length formula
why?
to prove
that one arc is bigger than another?
ye
arc length = $\theta \pi r$
Green
this sounds weird and understated
no pi there
by 180*
in degrees
mb
we must prove that arc AB is bigger than arc CD geometrically
this would apply if MA = MC(vertex is M)?
are you sure you have that the right way around
cause i think you may have meant CD>AB
bigger arcs subtend larger angles at centre, if that's what you want?
what can be wrong?
.
ok
it's just that, some angle is near one circumference
forming two secants
and four arcs
AB and CD are one of them
<@&268886789983436800> troll
Don't troll in the help channels.
maybe draw lines AO and BO or something
and see where they intersect the circle
rn that's the only thing that is coming to mind
i feel like you can do that with central and peripheral angle
draw lines CO and OD, thats the central angle at O, and the angle above points A and B is the peripheral angle that also includes the CD arc
but then with that proof you can only prove CD arc > AB arc, not the other way around, since the central angle is two times bigger than the peripheral
so it's arc length would also be 2 times bigger
@wicked thorn Has your question been resolved?
The way my book does it is
Let's name the intersection point outside the circle K just so I have something to call it
- Construct AD. measure of CAD is half of measure of arc CD
- Since K-A-C is a straight line, angle KAD = 180 - measure of angle CAD
- Measure of ADB is half of measure of arc AB
- Therefore since mADB + mKAD + mAKD = 180 because AKD is a triangle, 180 = arc AB/2 + 180 - arc CD/2 + mAKD
and
mAKD = arc CD/2 - arc AB/2 - Because the measure of an angle cannot be negative, arc CD has a larger measure than arc AB 👏
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Hello, I am trying to solve this equation:
Solve for s?
Given also, a(s)=k/s²
Solving for t where s(t)=0
physics problem i assume?
I tried and i got only as far as a differential that was y²*y"=k
In this case, k=gravitational constant*mass of the body, but that's irrelevant
Are there supposed to be two integrals but only one constant of integration?
Yes, youre integrating acceleration first to find velocity then space
This might be known
but why a(s(x))?
Because acceleration is a function of space
The closer you are to the body the more you accelerate
That solves half the problems but there should be a dxdx after the integral regardless
I see,thanks
Well dxdt
my smol brain is too smok to comprehend this
Is it? Shouldn't it be dxdx
But yeah it should come out to something of this sort
Yeah but the bound is in terms of t
lessee here though
So your result will be in t
Then how do I solve that given the initial value of s(0), s'(0) and s"(0)
its definite, so it should be dxdy, no? (Anyways i feel its a bit pointless to argue about this anywyas)
Right but now I'm noticing we have s(t) = ... s(x)
I'm wondering what's a placeholder and what's not
XD
This is essentially "given non uniform acceleration, how long will it take for a body to a accelerate from a given distance to an object, to reach such object"
Yep
In which case easiest way is to differentiate using FToC and get your differential equatio
why do I feel like you can make a differential equation from this?
As you can see above it is a differential
Because that's the standard way to do it 👍
Might i ask, has this problem given to you / read it as is from a book / etc... or its something of your own?
Although with acceleration as a function fo s is different
Good question
!xy
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I couldn't find any info on this problem so I tried seeing if a solution could be found
where is it from though
mostly because DEs for gravity are remarkably well known and documented
or did you ask yourself this question?
Very true
I tried looking and someone even recommended me something but it was less than understandable
And really easy compared to this integral
I mean, I still wanna see how the differential can be solved, on its own it seems intriguing enough
I suppose you were looking at Newtons equation, correct?
An earlier incorrect version of this problem was built upon the laws of motion
And of course gravity isn't constant so it was wrong
s'(t) = -int[0,t]a(s(x))dx
s''(t) = -a(s(x)) = k/s^2(x)
Yeah that reaches me to where you were
y^2 * y'' = k and it's a 2nd order nonlinear
Which we can just backsolve by integration
If we are talking about 2 bodies
Yrying to calculate the position of celestial bodies newton found that there is technically two ways to treat the problem.
You could think about it in terms of cartesian (XY) or polar coordinates
iirc cartesian is practically unsolvable as is, polar coordinates work under the assumption that bodies without extreme mass follow elliptic orbits, which have the nice property of keeping Angular Momentum as a constant
Calculating a free fall as a very eccentric orbit feels rather wrong
Conceptually
But I guess it is technically correct
Isn't that the definition of free fall 🤔
Well, it does not seem to be an orbit of any sort to me
If youre trying to calculate free fall for objects not** at extreme altitude, just assume g is a constant
I mean I guess if you define orbit as stable free fall
And not just directly equate them
What if the fall goes from extreme altitudes to smaller ones
So you have both cases
Then it would only make sense to indeed have a formula which works universally
Just for clarity, g drops to 90% at about 400km up.
Anyways, yeah, the DE is somewhat "simple" even then.
Lets say that our model is attempting to show the time it takes for an object to reach ground, we have to know a few things from there
y as the altitude
t as time
We need y(0), aka the initial value of altitude, and y'(0), the initial velocity
From here it depends on how many assumptions you wanna make
Can we treat gravity scaling linearly with respect to distance to ground?
Is air drag a thing?
Etc...
for the simplest case, y'(0) can be assumed to be 0, or at least I intended it to be
That makes things nice
Air drag, of course, is a terrible thing that should never be considered
Joking of course but yeah, simplest case still applies
Knowing that we have 2 variables here, in reality we have 2 differential equations here
Which we usually call a system
\begin{align*}
y^2 \cdot y'' &= k \
\int y^2 \cdot y' dy &= \int kdt \
y^2y' - \int 2y^2 dy &= kt + y'(0) \
y^2 y' - \frac{2}{3}y^3 &= kt + y'(0)
\end{align*}
Coolempire93
oh you seem to know more than me
I'll leave it to you then
dy/dt is just = v aka velocity.
Since position changes purely with velocity
Now the relatively hard part, dv/dt = f(y,v)
Aka, velocity is setup as a differential equation based on height (y) and current velocity (v)
Ohh that makes sense
If we assume no air drag, velocity basically doesnt play a part
We just end up with dv/dt = f(y)
Heres the relatively hard part, what is f
For most practical purposes, we just assume that f(y) = g
Aka, acceleration (rate of change of velocity) is equal to some constant, but you change it to be whatever
On the most technical sense, yes, k/y^2 is the most accuratr
Yeah
You end up with two equations you have solve, and each depend on the other
$$\frac{dy}{dt} = v$$
$$\frac{dv}{dt} = ky^{-2}$$
I guess not considering the first formula might have hindered any attempts to solve it
This is also why both y and y' are needed as initial conditions
Also, consider, yes, this system can be simplified into a single equation
Since dy/dt = v
dv/dt = d²y/dt²
In another words:
$$\ddot y = ky^{-2}$$
Its a relatively simple DE, you just have to know how to solve em.
I for the life of me could not find a solution, i even asked a whole mathematician but i think it was not their specific area of study
Multiply both sides by y dot i think
@desert grove Has your question been resolved?
Do you have any link or guide on the how?
If you hardly get DE's getting it on your own would be basically impossible, and it requires some tricky substitutions
https://www.quora.com/How-can-I-solve-the-differential-equation-yy-2-k
Heres an implicit
Thanks!
lord
Is it hard?
Rk4 aint that bad tbh
Not necessarily
Keeping in mind I learned it in a class, so I had to do it by hand
And build a calculator to do it myself in desmos
Runge Kutta is a family of numerical methods that allow you to find approximations to DEs of all kinds
And they are arguably the most stable
Oh, so it's an approximation
Yep, really precise and elaborated one, but yeaj
If youre somewhat worried about the precision, the error on RK4 is 4th order, aka, if you double your numerical precision, you get an answer "16 times closer"
That is quite amazing
As to my knowledge, is the standard for most physics models nowadays, some people prefer higher order Runge Kutta (RK8 or some other types of RK4) for models that are supposed to stretch a lot of time with a lot of elements.
But in your case, even RK1 (Also known as Eulers method) could be enough with a time step small enough
haaaa
I can't believe I had to do euler's method, euler's improved method (RK2) and RK4 all by hand
And then code calculators in desmos for all of them
Its a pretty useful technique
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how do u do this
do what? the derivative?
yeah
do you know the chain rule?
yes
so, how does that work here?
you take the derivative of the outer function, then multiple by the derivative of the inner function
what would the outer/inner functions be?
is outer e^sin and inner (cos(x^2) ?
yeah, but it would also be easier to have outer as e^x and inner as sin(cos(x^2))
here, you will have to apply the chain rule 3 times in a row
when you take the derivative of the inner expression
how would that work? I only ever dealt with 2
well when you apply the chain rule once, what do you get?
g(x) = e^x, h(x) = sin(cos(x^2)), f(x) = g(h(x))
so f'(x) = ???
g'(h(x)) * h'(x) right @arctic delta
so what would that be?
you can keep h'(x) unsimplified
that is where applying the chain rule more times comes in
what would g'(h(x)) be?
is g'(h(x) the same as f'(g(x)) ?
I think just e^x
isn't that just e^sin(cos(x^2)) ?
okay, then you need to figure out what the derivative of sin(cos(x^2)) is right
and multiply by that
how would you do that?
-sin(x^2)(2x) so -2xSin(x^2)
yeah, so all together, what is f'(x)?
you just gotta multiply all of this and simplify
was this correct for the sin(cos(x^2)) part?
well that last part should be d/dx(cos(x^2)) but yeah the first part is correct
so it was supposed to be cos(cos(x^2)) ?
yes
wait do u substitute the cos(cos(x^2) and -2xsin(x^2) into the x in e^x ?
its easier to see if you work it out on paper
yeah im doing that
you originally had this times h'(x)
so you substitute h'(x) in to what you found
this
you're essentially just successively multiplying by the derivatives of the inner functions
That's correct
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prove if 1/1+x^2 is injective, surjective orbijective over (0, 1].
what have you tried so far?
I have been proving it with f(a)=f(b) from my understanding
which one do you want to focus on first, injective?
yes.
okay, so you start from f(a) = f(b) and then what did you do after that
set it up as aformal proof
f(x_1) = 1/(1+x^2_1) = f(x_2)=....
but other thoughts were to use monoticity to prove it?
okay let's go ahead with your first thought
so we have
[\frac1{1+a^2} = f(a) = f(b) = \frac1{1+b^2}]
fishERIC_information
uh basically yes
that's our assumption, what's the thing we have to prove at the end, if this function is injective?
sorry that wasn't a yes or no question, I mean what's our goal at the end?
the function is injective if we can demonstrate what?
maps one to one
f(a) = f(b) implies what?
yeah exactly
we want to show that a=b
if we know that 1/(1+a^2) = 1/(1+b^2), then what's something we can do to both sides of the equation that will get us closer to that?
set them equal?
the denominator
(1+a^2)=(1+b^2)
1+a^2> 0 | 1+b^2 > 0
a^2 = b^2?
a = b, a = -b
that's what we want to prove though, we don't know yet that it's injective
so we can't say it's because it's injective
we have to give another reason why a = -b is not possible
this is where i got stuck. Im not sure if I need to go and find a value that disproves this or if i can do it generally
well let's look at the original question
there's still a piece of information that we haven't used yet
we said "over (0, 1]"
so that means a and b are both in (0, 1], right?
yes
can we use that somehow to help us
domain restriction then monoticity?
all positive numbers
is there a proper way to formulate that explanation mathematically?
let's summarize what we did
f(a) = 1/1+a^2 = f(b) = 1/1+b^2
1 + a^2 > 0 | 1 + b^2 > 0 -> Take reciprocals
1+a^2=1+b^2
a^2 = b^2
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square root both sides a = b
or a = -b but how do you explain domain restriction mathematically
I can explain it using words
yea, and that works because a > 0 and b > 0
so, since a^2 = b^2, we know that a^2 - b^2 = 0, or (a+b)(a-b) = 0
because the domain restriction 0 to 1 only includes positive numbers, it is not possible to have a=-b
so from that we know that a+b = 0 or a-b = 0
we can rule out a+b = 0 because a, b > 0, so a+b > 0
therefore, the only possibility is that a-b = 0
which means that a = b
does that make sense?
this way avoids talking about square roots or domain restrictions and keeps everything in terms of simple operations
yes
awesome
so now let's talk about surjectivity
do you think this function is surjective?
probably?
why?
Wait. Also the formulation I got not injective for the first one? On a earlier attempt.
Oh my correction.
Looking at another problem.
Find the range and then compare with codomain?
or no?
Plug in 0 and 1 into the function?
Ive gotten
yeah, so it's not going to be surjective
you can prove that by picking a value that's not in the range and then proving that it's not in the range
then lastly bijection?
because its not surjective but is injecetive its not bijection?
Well a function is bijective if and only if it is both injective and surjective.
So yeah, its not bijective
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is there any difference between x^1/2 and sqrt(x)? (over complex numbers)
that is the definition of sqrt(x)
i heard z^1/2 is multivalued, while sqrt(z) implies the principal root
so it's single valued
well that is a notational difference
not a mathematical one
it depends who you ask basically
different people and books may adopt different conventions on that
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why is this equal to 0
do you mean that like "what the hell is going on" or "i think it should be something else and not 0"
i just entered 0 into the answer and it was correct (i remembered from lesson), but i forgot why the answer was 0
0 * anything becomes 0
so any limit going towards 0 is 0?
poor explanation
Mb lol
not even close
anyway, have you heard of the squeeze theorem?
this is a tool that can help you here
heard of it but dont really understand concept
it’s because
[ -|x| \leq x \sin \left(\frac 1x\right) \leq |x|]
soup_norm
in some other languages it is called the two policemen theorem
with the suggested imagery being that if two cops are dragging a drunkard between themselves and they both are going to the police station
then the drunkard will also end up there
here the drunkard is the "middle" function and the cops are the "squeezing" functions
not a terribly good bit of imagery but at least it is iconic
you can intuitively see why from this graph
are the squeezers able to touch the drunkard?
Yes
i see
So the limit at 0 is forced to be 0
ill go watch a video on the squeeze theorem and come back later, do u guys have videos?
looks like the organic chemistry tutor has one on that
got it, ill check that out
the squeeze theorem is a consequence of the fact that limits preserve weak inequalities
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as many times as they like
This is another version of that bounding idea we discussed last time 👌
This one's at the end of that computing limits article, but yeah a video is best
Not another version, it's actually what we applied I should say
In that case it was -1/inf <= limit <= 1/inf, since both sides converge to 0 our limit was 0
Hopefully now that you've learned it fully what we did then makes more sense
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in 18 b we showed that p(x) = 1/2(x^2-x). Then I want to use the sub x- floor(x) = u. I was thinking that then you can isolate for x and plug that in. In this solution what they did is they used the fact that it is has a period of 1 and then they used r as the upper bound. Which method is correct?
This is for part c
P is periodic not because f itself is, but integral of f on [k, k+1] is 0, cancelled.
I think you need to expand the actual expression of f on [k, k+1] and integrate
Without the [] I meant
On [k, k+1) you can remove it
im not following. How can we expand f? f is jsut x - floor(x) - 1/2
Floor can be expanded further in [k,k+1)
?. Isn't floor just n <=x < n+1. and then floor(x) = n
How can there be an expansion then?
What do you mean by which method is correct? You showed only one method
the way I see it is that we found that P(x) = 1/2(x^2-x). For any x we have x- floor(x) = u. Then we have x = floor(x) +u and sub that in for x and we have 1/2((floor(x)-u)^2 - (floor(x)-u))
Then I see that we have shown that P(x) has a period 1. Then x-floor(x) = u is in one of these periods. Meaning if we use r as the upper bound we will have 1/2(r^2-r)
and then plug in for r
You have to use the fact that P(x-floor(x))=P(x) because P has a period of 1.
x-floor(x) is in [0,1], and for any r in [0,1], you have proved that P(r)=1/2(r^2-r).
So P(x-floor(x))=1/2((x-floor(x))^2-(x-floor(x)))
So
P(x)=1/2((x-floor(x))^2-(x-floor(x)))
ok so then my issue was that I did not treat x as a general x but as a specific one
thx for the help
It doesn't really matter how you "treat x". anyways does it make sense why
P(x)=1/2((x-floor(x))^2-(x-floor(x)))?
yes we know that P(x) is periodic and r will be in one of these periods and then we sub in for r
Ok, so do you have any questions?
so your saying that you could still treat x as x= floor(x) +r
is my reasoning right then that we cannot sub in for x because it is a general x?
You could, but that won't get you anywhere without using the fact that P(r)=P(x)
You can sub in but it's unnecessarily complicated
isn't the whole objective to have floor(x) in the expression and by using that subsition we would have floor (x)
The objective is to find P(x) when x is not in [0,1]
You know for x in [0,1], P(x)=1/2(x^2-x)
And you also know P is 1-periodic
but that doesn't change the fact. Say x not in [0,1] x = floor (x) + r. sub in for x
What does that do?
You can't say P(x)=1/2((floor(x)+r)^2-(floor(x)+r))
But you can say P(r)=1/2(r^2-r)
express in terms of floor(x)
why?
Because floor(x)+r isn't in [0,1]
You need a quantity in [0,1] to substitute
oh
everythign is clear that would only work if x was an integer
I see now. R is in these intervals. floor(x)+r is not. Meaning we cannot use it to express every P(x)
Yes
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this
thats for gradient of tangent
if u flip it over
ull get -1/ (3p^2-4p+3)
so if u get any value of p
u ccld make it
so that the gradient of the normal/M is basically
infintely small no?
how are there 4 pi electrons guys
No, the function of M(p) (the gradient of the normal line) has a minimum value, a p where M is minimized occurs if you take the derivative of M and equate it to 0.
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oma gawd
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hey
why do we need to consider the force at point B
if i imagine applying that force to the ship (pulling it) at point B, there is no rotation effect about P
very small torque but it exists
so that force would
pull it anti clockwise?
you can say pull but clockwise
mostly pulling it away from the hinge and slightly dragging it clockwise
and you know this from the diagram?
yeah
just resolve the force along and perpendicular to the line of action (black line marked in the diagram)
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Hello, I need help figuring out if what I am trying to do is possible to do or not:
I have a rotation matrix
[0: cos(z)cos(y)-sin(z)sin(x)sin(y), 1: -sin(z)cos(x), 2: cos(z)sin(y)+sin(z)sin(x)cos(y) ]
[3: sin(z)cos(y)+cos(z)sin(x)sin(y), 4: cos(z)cos(x), 5: sin(z)sin(y)-cos(z)sin(x)cos(y) ]
[6: -cos(x)sin(y), 7: sin(x), 8: cos(x)cos(y) ]
which I need to extract the values x, y and z from.
Right now I am doing this as
x = atan2(m[7], sqrt(m[6] * m[6] + m[8] * m[8]))
y = atan2(m[6], m[8])
z = atan2(m[1], m[4])
, which works correctly when x is not approaching π/2 or -π/2.
When this happens, the floating point values of m[6], m[8], m[1], m[4] become too small and big errors start to occur (such as sign changes etc).
In this condition, the rotation matrix contains
[0: cos(z)cos(y)-sin(z)sin(y), 1: 0, 2: cos(z)sin(y)+sin(z)cos(y) ]
[3: sin(z)cos(y)+cos(z)sin(y), 4: 0, 5: sin(z)sin(y)-cos(z)cos(y) ]
[6: 0, 7: 1, 8: 0 ]
which is what my question is about: *is there a way to figure out y and z in this situation?
holy this channel makes me feel dumb
Would be helpful to send images of the matrices cuz it doesn't render very well on mobile
ok, give me a min
Why not use quaternions
why so difficult for x
you have sinx as an individual entry
and then cosxcosy
and coszcosx
you mean using quaterions instead of rotation matrices? I need to use the rotaiton matrix since it's the input I need to process,
if you mean that I can compute the quaternion representation, I'd have to look into it
I am not a mathematician, I am a computer scientist and I am trying to solve things the best I can 😅
(I tried it like this after reading this https://msl.cs.uiuc.edu/planning/node103.html)
Yeah it's worth looking into it because you don't encounter gimbal lock issues iirc
they are also numerically more stable, faster and compact
so what you are saying is that I should go from rotation matrix (my input) to quaternion to euler angles (what I need to compute)?
all of those entries are some trig identity
eg top left is cos(y+z)
so you can convert to those
yes
I did not know trigonometric identities were a thing
, I will read more about them from https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_trigonometric_identities thanks
I'm surprised people learn rotation matrices before trigonometric identities
well, I think I have solved it thanks, now I am computing atan2(sin(z)cos(y)+cos(z)sin(y)),(cos(z)cos(y)-sin(z)sin(y)), which is equal to
atan2(sin(z + y), cos(z + y))
this is sufficient given that in this situation there is already a gimbal lock situation, in which rotations by y and z are "summed" so to speak
Really? That's completely nonsense imo
well idk if this is normal but in my CS courses I only encountered rotation matrices in relatively niche courses
anyhow, thanks everyone for the help, I learnt something new with this one 😄
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