#help-27
1 messages · Page 365 of 1
Well
Like remember that f(x,y) = P(x,y) + R(x,y)
Basically if f(x,y) - P(x,y) = R(x,y)
Then lim (x,y)->(a,b) R(x,y)/||(x-a,y-b)||=0
Because it feels like impossible to continue
There's too many terms
And I don't think I have enough space in my page to expand all that
Also feels like brute forcing the answer
ok so there is something that you can do to simplify things quickly
the denominator is (x-1)^2+(y+2)^2
so if you can get multiples of this expression in the numerator for example then you can simplify right?
Yes
say you get something like $\frac{4(y+2)^2+4(x-1)^2-3}{(x-1)^2+(y+2)^2}$ then that would simplify to $4-\frac 3{(x-1)^2+(y+2)^2}$
ali yassine
so now the goal is to do things like this
(x-1)^2 / ||(x-1,y+2)|| -> 0
Yes I can prove it
Things we can use for simplifying
ohhh i see
also remember that the denominator is not exactly this
Also (y+2)^2 / ||(x-1,y+2)|| -> 0
its actually ||(x-1,y+2)||^2
your statements are true
but with this they are false
Wait
No
yes they are
if you convert to polar coordinates via the substitutions x-1=rcosθ and y+2=rsinθ then the limit will become a limit when r->0
Ah it's not 0, it's 1?
it doesnt exist
when you do this, the value of the new limit will depend on θ
so it doesnt exist
do you know about this thing with polar coordinates?
if no then i recommend that you pick it up because it is sometimes useful
so lets get back to the beginning and try to evaluate the original limit using this idea
you dont have to overthink and try to get things that may be useful in the process
just begin and you can figure out what to do along the way
Ok
Sorry
Can we start from scratch then?
no need to say sorry you didnt do anything wrong. I am just telling you this because it may save you some time and not mess things up for you
Shit got messy
yes thats what we will do
remember that you want this
alright then lets do this
since you want this
notice that there is already a term 4(x-1)^2 in the numerator
so its probably better to not touch that for now right?
Ye
ok so keep this term as it is for now
now subsitute P_3 instead of f
and simplify things
from there we will proceed
I'm trying
you did it correctly here btw
but now you shouldnt expand this
np take your time
yes
thats right, nice!
ok so now is the tricky part
now we want to play around with the terms in order to factorize things nicely
so first notice the 4y^2+16y that you have
we want everything that has y to somehow have the form of k(y+2)^2 and everything with x to have the form n(x-1)^2 where k and n are some constants right?
because then we can somehow simplify things with the denominator
so can you make 4y^2+16y into this form somehow?
its missing a constant term there
which constant is it missing?
yes
+4
ah mb, when i wrote that i didnt want you to answer right after it. I was just trying to show you the picture better
4Y^2 + 16y + 16 = 4(y+2)^2
right
add + 16
exactly
And subtract -16
nice
What's your point?
the point is that now we have 4(y+2)^2+4(x-1)^2 for now
there are other terms too
but we can separate the fractions
and then simplify
you can even write things in a nicer way
but first lets do this
then we will continue
alright, now the fraction on the left simplifies to?
4
(also small note that the denominator of the right fraction is ||(x-1,y+2)||^2 and ik you meant to write that but just so you dont find it weird if you return to this later)
Mb
lets try to factorize in a nice way
(x-1)^2 = x^2 -2x + 1
9(x-1)^2 = 9x^2 -18x + 9
so here let me tell you the idea
since there is (x-1)^2+(y+2)^2 in the denominator
we know that it becomes something nice if we convert to polar coordinates with the right substitutions right?
Sure
exactly so we would like to use that if it makes things easier
but if we convert to polar coordinates rn the numerator will be a mess
so its better to write the numerator in a nicer way where using polar coordinates gives a nice form without tedious calculations
so if we want to convert to polar coordinates here what would be the most natural substitution?
Yes
Care to elaborate on that
i think you will know what i mean soon
think about this, if you have (x-1)^2+(y+2)^2 and you want to convert to polar coordinates
what would be the substitution
after you know the answer to this question you will know what i meant by this
X-1 = rcostheta -> 0
Y-1 = rsintheta -> 0
be careful
As r -> 0 for some theta
this is not correct
Y+2
exactly
ok nice
so we want to substitute x-1=rcosθ (and y+2=rsinθ) at the end of the day
so what i really meant by "write the numerator in a nicer way" is to have something of the form k(x-1)^n for some k and n or something like that since then converting to polar coordinates would become much easier
(x-1)^2 = x^2 -2x + 1
9(x-1)^2 = 9x^2 -18x + 9
hmmm but then what will you do with this?
if you dont know how to proceed then maybe start by trying to put similar things together
Idk. I'm stuck
for example -3x^3 and 3 have the same coefficients (up to a sign) . also 9x^2 and -9x have this similarity too
so maybe if you factorize each of these alone a common factor between them will appear?
so try to factorize each of -3x^2+3 and 9x^2-9x then see what you get
you meant -x not -2x right
ok can these expressions be factorized more?
or is this it?
remember here it is -3x^3+3 not -3x^2+3
Wdym
i mean that this should be -3(x^3-1) not -3(x^2-1)
because the numerator has -3x^3 and doesnt have -3x^2
Ok one second
Well
right, so what is the next step?
Well
Isnt it overkill to use difference of cubes
Like clearly you want me to factorize (a-b) in the numerator
Correct?
right, but you most probably should show this step in the exam
personally i dont mind if you skip it and just take the common factor and simplify everything in one step as long as you do that correctly and you know what you are doing
Ok
also i wouldnt call it overkill because its essentially what you are doing even if you dont explicitly show the step
im confused about $4 + \lim_{(x, y) \to (1, -2)} \frac{-3(x^3 - 1) + 9x(x - 1)}{\abs{\abs{(x - 1, y + 2)}}^2}$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
It's the norm
|X| = Sqrt{x^2}
Same in R2
but why $(x - 1, y + 2)$?
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
and the denominator consists of addition of 2 squares which is hard to work with
$\lVert (x-a,y-b)\rVert=\sqrt{(x-a)^2+(y-b)^2}$ so $\lVert (x-1,y+2)\rVert ^2=(x-1)^2+(y+2)^2$
ali yassine
so where did you reach?
.
(x^3-1) = (x-1)(x^2 + x + 1)
right
True
But it doesn't get me that far
it does
How so?
expand -3(...) + 9x and simplify it again
-3(x-1)^2
yes -> so the lim is -3(x-1)^2 / [ (x-1)^2 + (y+2)^2 ]
sorry idk how to write plain latex lol
no
this is the form that you want for all of these questions regarding taylor polynomials
right
because you can use a variable change u = x-1 ; v = y+2
no
and the limit instead of converging in the ugly (1,-2) that you can do nothing with
-3(x-1)^3
Mb
it converges in (0,0)
remember that you had a factor of (x-1)
right but even then there is no immediate way to see if the limit exists or no
No spoilers
you would need something like polar coordinates
which would do everything with one hit
yess
in polar coordinates the denominator is trivial
so now is the time for what i told you earlier @spring oasis
so you can solve it
so now you have $\lim_{(x,y)\to (1,-2)}\frac{-3(x-1)^3}{(x-1)^2+(y+2)^2}$
ali yassine
we agreed that the substitution we would do is x-1=rcosθ and y+2=rsinθ right?
in that case the limit will become a limit in 1 variable which is r
we want to know where r goes
if you let (x,y)->(1,-2) in this pair of equations and hold θ as a constant, where would r go?
@spring oasis
ohhhh great job!
one last question
what if the value of the last limit depended on θ?
Then it dne
i will give you a limit to compute using polar coordinates
because there is a trap that i want you to be aware of and avoid if you encounter it later on
$\lim_{(x,y)\to (0,0)}\frac{x^2}y$
ali yassine
evaluate this limit using polar coordinates (if it exists)
Wait a second let me try path y = x and x = y
Wat about y = x^2
Aha!
Does not exist
Path y = x^2 gives 1
Path y = x gives 0
you cheated!
so from here if you let r->0, the expression should go to 0 right?
so the limit should exist and be 0
but it clearly doesnt exist
you just gave 2 paths with different limits
I mean if sin is 0 for some theta like 2pi we are fucked
hahaha great job!
so there is no problem in the polar coordinate way
its not wrong or something like that
but you should be careful
and thats the trap i was talking about
so the limit does depend on theta if you change to polar coordinates
Yeah I guess
nice job 
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Thanks for the help
np, you did the whole work!
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Send your problem
Things seem to have worked out?
Sorry for the tag lance
This doesn't seem like a math problem 
Brother did you really open a channel to ask that
The moderators tag made this so crowded
I agree
Xd
Neither of these are problems
...are you doing a test
Well given the amount of context you've given us
There is very little we can say
Bruh you've given us stage 1
Nothing else
And asked what happens in stage 5
We aren't clairvoyant
Also stop deleting your messages, it makes it very very annoying to try to help you
How did bot not auto close this channel
.close Original message deleted, OP seems to have disappeared
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i need help with d) this is genuinly impossible
idk if im allowed to help but the domain is between the 2nd and 3rd quadrants
its asking for
$sin \theta = \frac[-1][2]$
shitt
aight basically
$\sin \theta = \frac{-1}{2}$
🌙 ЅκψΑиdΝιɡħτ
ty lol

ur base angle is going to be pi/6
cause
sin pi/6 = 1/2
and its asking for -1/2
which means its in the 3rd quadrant
so u add pi to pi/6
therefore ur answer is 7pi/6
i dont understand what u mean
theta is suppsoed to be terminal arm and beta is supposed to be my corresponding angle
but in this situation it switches around
@mighty crypt Has your question been resolved?
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Number seems wrong
Check please
dont do long division
!xy
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
Stop it
?
Stop
what 😭
u just showed me a video of u trying to do long division im not sure what u want help with
i mean your calculation is correct
you are trying to divide 0.27 by 0.8 then
so u should be dividing 2.7/8
u need to move ur decimal point 1 place back
I think i got it now
ok
just go to ur profile
i saw this hard problem online and i would like to know the answer ((x^{3}+y^{3}+z^{3}=k)): Find integers (x,y,z) for any integer (k). For (k=33) and (k=42),
eido
really i did not know that
i recommend u look at andrew sutherland and andrew bookers works
i saw it on yt shorts
!occupied
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its famous, unsolvable for decades
!redir
This channel is only for on-topic discussion. Please take casual conversation to #discussion or #chill.
sorry
ok ty
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Can someone give example
,rccw
This is very chem.
yeah apologies but chem server doesn’t have much people to get instant help
and I kinda need to know as well
So water will always make some H+ ions and OH- ions, which is why neutral pH is 7.
If you add acid to water there are more H+ ions and correspondingly fewer OH- ions, the reaction reaches a new equilibrium
It's not the best example, but it's the one I thought of in the moment.
Consider N2(g) + 3H2(g) <--- ---> 2NH3(g)
at t= 0 it has some initial concentration and when you make disturbance in it or say add reactant it will try to achieve equilibrium (moles, concentration etc with time becomes constant) by shifting that moles from left to right
Okay but don’t I have to write two reactions
We force the concentration of CO2 in the water as high as we can, which drives the reaction forward.
Then when you open the can the concentration of CO2 is significantly less, so CO2 bubbles out
(which is the reaction going in reverse)
I’ll take both for convenience
is t in Celsius
Can’t be kelvin
It depends what the author of question gives
It sometimes give celcius or K
celsius*
0 K can’t be happening right?
It may happen
Oh so the reaction goes forward as we add some concentration to the reactants
What about vice versa
Let’s say we add to the products
AND
The place where there are more moles
Like in the left side it’s 4
On the right it’s two
SO
Will the reaction go in the direction where there are less moles
Yes to achieve equilibrium state
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Renato
you should be able to figure out what to compare a) to, using the limit comparison test
like, $\frac{x^3 + 5}{x^4 + 4}$ is similar enough to $\frac{x^3}{x^4 + 4}$
south
I didn't want to give it away but yes
what am I supposed to do with LCT for improper integral
And how do I know if it even applies here
we are skipping steps here
@fossil locust
I should just give you the entire document then: https://websites.umich.edu/~mconger/dhsp/lct.pdf
so basically I need to find a lower bound
this
yeah, direct comparison also works
but. . . how do I even know if comparison test even applies here, what are the previous conditions that need to happen in order to apply
you can use 1/(2x) as a lower bound, given that you have something like "for all x >= 10"
is x in the inverval [1, infty+)?
can I receieve more handholding? @fossil locust idk if you guys are rushing through this or being handwavy
supose x > 0, then this whole $$\frac{x^3 + 5}{x^4 + 4} \geq \frac{x^3}{x^4 + 4}$$
Renato
so it is true that $\frac{1}{2x} \le \frac{x^3 + 5}{x^4 + 4}$ for all real $x \ge N$
the second une is g(x)
south
where N is finite: I'd encourage you to try estimating N
by rearranging the inequality
the idea is that it's approximately (x^3)/(x^4) = 1/x
but 1/x is too big
so you can multiply 1/x by some smaller constant
this handwavy
it's the right intuition for these problems
we dont have x^3 / x^4 tho
like, you'd do a similar thing to find the horizontal asymptote of (x^3 + 5)/(x^4 + 4)
i wouldnt say it is too big
rather you should be thinking in somewhat looser terms as far as comparisons go
"looks like 1/x" means bounded above/below (as necessary) by k/x with a constant k which may need to be pinned down
well i mean ok like, "too big" means k<1 in this case
do you remember $\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{x^3 (1 + 5/x^3)}{x^3 (x + 4/x^3)} = \lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{(1 + 0)}{(x + 0)} = \frac{1}{x}$
just saying that it may help to open yourself up to a slight bend in the argumentation road
south
fair enough, whats the correlation though?
You are using the comparison test to determine whether or not the sequences converge
that the integral of (x^3 + 5)/(x^4 + 4) behaves like the integral of 1/x
right
because you're considering the behaviour of the integrals as $x \to \infty$
south
so they have a finite ratio as x to infinity
and you can pull constants out of the integral; that doesn't affect convergence or divergence
so we got by simple intuition that the integral diverges, how to show it formally
looks like a harmonic series that obv diverges or a pseries with p = 1
I think the approach is to use the integral test to approximate those as summations
then use the limit comparison test for summations
both of these have proofs
comparison tests work for me
I just need to find a suitable lower bound and call it a day
surely we can do this more formally but comparison test is the simplest way to go
just this, simplest approach, what would it be
?
help me find a suitable lower bound @fossil locust
if x is in the inteval [1, infty+)
does this work or no
You have lower bounds in the question you were given no?
is this argument true or false $$\frac{x^3 + 5}{x^4 + 4} \geq \frac{x^3}{x^4 + 4}$$ and then $$\frac{x^3 + 5}{x^4 + 4} \geq \frac{x^3}{x^4} \geq \frac{x^3}{x^4 + 4}$$ for $x \in [1, \infty+)$ \\ And finally $$\frac{x^3 + 5}{x^4 + 4} \geq \frac{x^3}{x^4}$$
what do you mean?
I dont think so, no
its a different type of lower bound what I mean, is not the integral bounds but like, a striclty increasing/decreasing sequence that is always lesser than the one we have
Right I see
Renato
lmfao I always mess up with this bounding arguments
where does the 1/2x come from
seems out of the blue
we say $+\infty$ btw and not $\infty+$
Ann
the problem is, this bound SOUTH found 1/2x seems out of the blue
what do you mean by that
ah I think I see what you mean
i mean that "f(x) looks like 1/x" should mean "f(x) ≥ k/x [or ≤ k/x if that's what we need] with some constant k that we'll figure out now"
let me clarify things, so we have that $x \in [1, +\infty)$
having said that, we also have that
$$\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{x^3 (1 + 5/x^3)}{x^3 (x + 4/x^3)} = \lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{1 + 5/x^3}{x + 4/x^3} = \lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{1}{x}$$
so $$\int_1^{+\infty} \frac{x^3 + 5}{x^4 + 4} \ dx \approx \int_1^{+\infty} \frac{1}{x} \ dx$$ and now before direct comparison $$\frac{1}{x} \geq \frac{1}{2x}$$ when $x \in [1, +\infty)$ \\ having said that, since $$\int_1^{+\infty} \frac{1}{2x} \ dx = \frac{1}{2} \int_1^{+\infty} \frac{1}{x} \ dx$$ clearly diverges and using direct comparison: $\frac{x^3 +5}{x^4 + 4} \geq \frac{1}{2x}$ then we have that $$\int_1^{+\infty} \frac{x^3 + 5}{x^4 + 4} \ dx $$ diverges
@pseudo basin @fossil locust something among that lines for the argument?
mmm
something along those lines i guess, sure. but what you've written is nonrigorous
it's an unpleasant mix between formal proof and intuition
which parts are handwavy 😂
sorry this is my first improper integral exercise
i guess the part where I get that x^3(..)/x^4(....) = 1/x
also, we are not expected to be fully rigurous, take for example this arguments from this pdf, theres a lot of handwavyness imo
so i'd say for a formal proof you just dont put any intuition in writing
it's your rough work
sure
mb
Renato
@spring oasis Has your question been resolved?
whats ur q
please how would you do it I need more handhold
we would like to find a smaller integrand, so make the denominator greater and numerator smaller
how do I find that
because the estimation would probably not be valid for all x in [1, +oo)
how so?
and it's no big deal since 1/x diverges in [x0, +oo)
well it might be or not, gotta find that out
then x0=0 but the point is sometimes estimations dont hold for all x, but sometimes for sufficiently large values of x
for example x^2 >= x is not true for all x, for example in (0,1)
so we would then consider the interval [1, +oo)
dude
it is appearant that $\frac{x^3+5}{x^4 + 4} \ge \frac{1}{2x}$ correct?
Renato
because you wanted your work checked
and imo your justification was not good
so do it rigorously
where is it not good
the limit thingy
my point is, why are you splitting the integrals
I see
yeah that part was very handwavy but was proposed by another helper I think
because i am interested in the integral we integrate over where the estimation holds
I see
the other one is just some finite number in the end which doesnt make a difference
This isn’t difficult to show, following universe’s advice here is good
ok, do you mind we start from scratch
yeah in this case x >= 1
we have that advantadge
u just have to find C such that x^4+4 =< Cx^4
might indeed just take 2, and see for which x that inequality holds
what happened to x^3 + 5?
what a moment, I want to prove $\frac{x^3+5}{x^4 + 4} \ge \frac{1}{2x}$ how do you go to $x^4 + 4 \leq Cx^4$
Renato
C is 2? no
C can be greater than 0
u forgot, we wanted to find a C > 0 so that we can estimate the integrand down, so do that
ok show it
no
sqrt(2) =< |x| which implies x =< -sqrt(2) or x >= sqrt(2)
but since x >= 1 we only care about the very latter
Hii
brodie you gonna say something related to q?
what about the numerator now? @faint gorge
think
Bro I need question to solve where is the question I can find to solve my self
ok
. @winged pumice
,, \frac{x^3 + 5}{x^4 + 4} \ge \frac{Cx^3}{x^4 + 4} \implies x^3 + 5 \ge Cx^3
Renato
thats overkill
you can just omit constants, in the numerator
x^3+5 >= x^3 immediately since it's equivalent to 5 >= 0
31
yeah so C1 = 1
and C2 = 2
where C1 is for the numerator and C2 is for the denominator
something like dat
ok sure
I see
I appreciate the help, but this should be pretty much it for the first exercise
@spring oasis Has your question been resolved?
indeed
the second one would use a similar approach
using |sin(x)| =< |x|
-1 <= Sin(x) <= 1
0 <= Sin^2(x) <= ?
Need more hunts
1
For any real x, if -1 <= x <= 1 then 0 <= x^2 <= 1
holds for all x btw
We don't have absolute value in the integrand
Are you saying it converges
so what does my suggestion imply
you are skipping many steps, do it one by one
The problem is we don't have absolute value
that's not a problem
Please elaborate
if |sin(x)| =< |x| but also sin(x) =< |sin(x)| then what do you get by transitivity?
Sin(x) <= |x| doesn't make any sense
plot it on paper
anyway by sin(x) =< |x| you can get sin(x) =< x, given that x >= 0
,w sin(1/2)
yea (you may try to prove it some other time for yourself)
so?
yea okay
ye
2/2-3/2
Use Taylor series
(If you are going to do this Renato)
nah i am having a break from work
I think I’ll ask for help as well
you dont even need the >
?
They are not equal
,w 2x/(x^{3/2})
This is greater equal to the b) integrand
What now?
Ok
2/sqrt(x) >= (integrand)
you should document your work well not just write the end result, thats what i mean
Ok
yes
Sorry I'm in the toilet
consider the integral of 2/sqrt(x) from 0 to 1
It's fucked when x = 0
so take the limit
What limit
instead of fucking x=0
X -> 0
It's infinity, unrefined
1/x as x-> 0
???
Is infinity
Thats a true statement
Whats the question btw
pin
what do you mean??
The limit doesn't exist when x approaches 0
,, \dots \le \lim_{a\to0}\int_a^1 \f{2}{\sqrt{x}} , dx
prove it
,w limit of 2/sqrt(x) as x goes to 0
Why you doing this
you're taking the limit of the whole integral, not of the integrand
he would have known it, if i didnt handhold too much
South took the limit of the integrand earlier
thats why he needs to write the stuff down
read your theorem
use the substitution u=1/x
improper integrals are not just bounds with inf
Wdym
look at your work again
This I don't get it
to show your theorem works still
But how to substitute
by substituting
Why is there $\lim_{a\to0} \int_a^1 2\sqrt{u} , du$??
Is this after substituting
where did you state a substitution? did you check the bounds?
i said to apply the substitution for the theorem
but okay anyway, you need to check the bounds
they dont make sense that way
.close
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Right so ive just learned integrals. This is all what ive understood => integral ( y ) dx . Integral symbol stands for sum of y . dx which is formula of area for rectangles. Lets take for example x =1; were adding an infinitesimal value to 1 making dx as one of the sides. Thus also adding an infitesimal value to y ( dy) making another side of that rectangle dy. Adding every possible x value gives us the area of the whole function. Now here’s my question: why does the area of a derivative give us its original equation? What does the area of a derivative have to do with its original equation?
were you given a proof of one of the fundamental theorems of calculus
What do u mean ?
either this one
or this one
if you really just want to understand the intuition behind why we define the process of integration as the reverse process of taking the derivative, then you might want to recall that a derivative is the slope of the tangent to the curve (our function) defined at all points on the curve if our function is continuous and diffetiable. so its kinda like breaking up the curve into very very tiny points of tangency?
now when you add all these slopes up (integrate it), you get your curve back!
other helpers please correct my language if ive added anything incorrectly
@little sonnet Has your question been resolved?
Thank u this was what i was looking for
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Hello im new here i got my o'levels exam next really need some help in maths
yea just post your question
I need to finish the whole probability chapter can we start from the beginning
yea just post your question
The document appears to be an examination paper for O-Level Mathematics, specifically focusing on probability. It includes sections for recording total marks available and achieved, as well as various probability-related questions and scenarios. The document is associated with a student named Mohammad Sayem Rais.
basically need to finiash the whole thing
can you explain it to me i dont understand anything
it's expected you do some reading and come up with a math question to use help channels
see
they used sum of all probabilities equals 1 to solve for x, then plugged x into 3x + 0.2
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I need some help
Let be pull it up
I am very confused on how they got this number
I have a 3.2 for P
on my question, but the example question (Image) is confusing me, how did they simplify the last step
Multiply both sides by $32$. $32 \cdot \frac{1}{4}=8$.
Civil Service Pigeon
rip
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,, z^{2n} = -1
Ik how to solve z^n = -1
But this one is a bit confusing
I'm trying to write the value of Z_k
,, z_k = e^{\frac{\pi}{2n} + \frac{k\pi}{n}}
use sqrt(-1) = exp(i pi / 4)
Is it correct?
I get exponential of n(k +π)
,, e^{i(n\pi + k\pi)}
yea that looks right
Ramn!
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Am I dumb or did I do it wrong
,rccw
did you draw a rough diagram?
this is a bit of a trick question
do you know section formula?
note that point P doesn't necessarily have to be between point A and B
here the ratio AP/BP>1
it says p is a point on AB
P divides externally
AB refers to a line passing through A and B extending infinitely
it would be different if they said
P lies on segment AB
you can use section formula for external division or find the ratio AB/BP with some simple manipulations and apply the formula for internal division
is it B then?
yes
why doesnt ab refer to just joining the 2 points?
or does produce have anything to do with it
read your question carefully again
it says, "P is a point on AB produced"
which could only mean that P does not lie between A and B but lies somewhere else and AB has been produced to P
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sec = 1/cos x, I want to isolate the cos x but I forgot how.
sec x=$\frac{1}{cos x}$
What do you mean, like cosx = 1/secx?
How'd you isolate cos x?
Gold/Train
Can you show it to me?
left side = right side
1 / left side = 1 / right side
left side = sec x
right side = cos x
1 / sec x = 1 / (1 / cosx) = cos x
Proof of 1/sec x = cos x?
I do.
Well yeah, since I don't really know where it comes from. Is it part of trig identities or?
ye...
$$\sec x = \frac 1{\cos x}$$
$$(\sec x)^{-1} = \left(\frac 1{\cos x} \right)^{-1}$$
$$\frac 1{\sec x} = \cos x.$$
This is also sort of the definition for multiplicative inverses.
xD
THERE we go
no single clue why would you do this tbh
Write the definition of cos(x) and sec(x)
Is $$\frac 1{\sec x} = (\cos x)$$ a trig idenity?
Gold/Train
Cos (x) is the ratio of the length of the adjacent side over the hypotenuse.
sec(x) = hyp / adj
That gives 1 / sec(x)
but sec x = hyp / adj
i want you to do
1 / (hyp/adj)
without using the word secx
do you remember how to operate with fractions?
1 / (hyp / adj) = 1 * adj / hyp = adj / hyp = cos(x)
nice
What I did was a trig verification right, Ark?
what you did was using the definition of sec x and cosx to verify that 1/secx = cosx
So Trig verification, right?
you can call like that if you want
Ok, can you help me with my Chaos theory problem?
Chaos? i am not a physicist xD
It's not physics, It's math Lol
if it's non related, is better you close this channel which solved your doubt
and open a new one
just send
Well, it is actually so my bad.
What's the equation you have written on your username?
Greens Theorem
That's why you're green? Who made that theorem?
that's why he is green
Greens

What does it state?
Its the precessor to stokes theorem
Okay, George Green
Basically, the integral over a closed curve in a field is equal to the integral over the whole region of the curl of said field one dimension above
Sooo, it relates a 2d curve to a surface in 3d
Stokes Theorem is the generalized form of that for any n-1 and nth dimension manifold(s)
for most multivariable calculus courses, it just feels like a neat trick, meanwhile, its arguably one of the most important identities in calculus, lmao
Here is my first problem.
okay imma just ask, if you were struggling with the inverse multiplicative relation between cos and sec
Why the hell are you doing this
Dw.
Bro, why does everyone keep dissapearing everytime I'm putting those Chaos Theory problems??????
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Exercise 62
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
They didn't even show themselves lmfao
Anyways, this is the answer that they gave, I got the derivative but why is it >= 0
Why is it not just equal to 0
It is sometimes equal to 0
Oh well they haven't exactly explained what's happening here
I thought the method was to find the derivative and set it equal to 0
You understand that cos(2x) varies from 0 to 1, right?
The derivative is sometimes zero but that doesn't necessarily make that point an extrema
Have you seen the graph of x³
The derivative is 0 at x, but the point is very much not an extrema
Yes
Sorry, -1 to 1
Ahh oke haha
To be an extrema, you need the first derivative to be zero and the second to be non zero
If not, you get weird stuff happening
Why non 0
Essentially cuz you want the graph to sort of turn around at that point
If not you can get inflection points
And if it doesnt then there is no extrema?
Ah ok
Because it will only be increasing or decreasing, right?

