#help-27
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1.422B
translation is that
i have that system and i have to find the sum of alfa + beta such that the system is compatible undeterminated
alfa + beta clearly yields me -1 which is inccorect
now
i do think i made a mistake because
the rank between the two matrices shouldnt be equal
if they are equal it means that it is compatible determinated(has finite sets of solutions)
but
so far i know that compatible systems have to have the rank < (number of unknown variables)
in this case there are 3? i think
but i might have lost along the way...
any help or hints will be highly appreciated
what you want is a system of equations which are consistent but have infinite solutions
js checking bcz different terminology
sure no problem
resolving ur matrix shows me $\alpha = -1$ is correct
RadMeerkat62445
never talk about yourself like that
we want infinite solution
yes
not super sure abt that..
x+y+2z=1,2x+2y+z=-1, x+y-z=beta
add the first and last equations
we get 2x+2y+z=1+beta
we want 1+beta = -1
no?
so beta = -2
i mean i have a test coming on wednesdday but from way easier ones but i do harder ones just to be extra prepared
anyway thank you so much for the help
:>
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meinebow
@carmine estuary Has your question been resolved?
clearly it is an ideal , u need to show R != J @carmine estuary
consider the polynomial 1 its in R clearly it is, show that it isnt in J, approach is with a contradiction
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Are you trying to simplify?
Yessir
Wait
Ok so here is what i tried but apparently somethings wrong
Its kinda messy too
I think its correct
You can cancel the n+3 since its 1
1^(n+3) = 1 for starters
Also perhaps you should raise the entire fraction to the exponent
But yeah you got the idea
i totally forgit
I thought the n + 3 in 1^(n + 3) wasnt an exponent :(
Yes
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Can someone explain why they did $\hat{p_c} = \frac{10 + 28}{50 + 53} = 0.369$
King Leo [Ping For Help]
I thought you were the one teaching people
@foggy willow
were
what type of formula are you using fo p value
I'm honestly not sure
I missed the day when this was taught
Context
they are calculating overall proporation with the p^
to find the p value you have to look in the table
Table A?
With the z values?
King Leo [Ping For Help]
$$\hat{p_c} = \hat{p_b} - \hat{p_a}$$
King Leo [Ping For Help]
you got 3.45 over here look up P(Z < 3.45)
mu comes from here
sigma comes from hree
oh yes this is calculating standard error
basically it goes something like this Z = (p1 - p2)/SE
So is there any problem with my method?
I just hate table-a with a passion
and then you use this Z from the normal table
hahah lemme see
i think your method makes sense, but i do not know if it is correct, i would say to try both ways and see if your answers match
Ok i got smth completely different
hmm i see
Can you explain why they did this though
ok on second look this won;t work
Can you explain why
this essentaially becomes 1, probability of X being less than an extremely large number like that one
you do this when you have two samples, it is called pooled proportions
like you need both of them to represent same proportion to calcuate the standard error
so for combined estimate of the proportion you do this, essentially assuming that both groups come from the same population
so you add their successes and divide with total sample to get the combined estimate
But then how will we know the difference in proportions?
you can look into how cdf works in normal distribution to understand this into more
Yeah the difference in proportions is captured in the numerator of the Z-score formula that we do p1 - p2
you can think of p^ to ensure "fair comparsion" when comparing
But thetn why do we add here
we still use we still use the individual sample proportions p1 and p2 to check the difference
Then what are we calculating /p\c for
you can think of it like by the Null Hypothesis we are tryna assume whilca calucating p^ is that they come from same group of population, like this is how you get the best estimate by combining both the groups
its like if H0 were true, we get this accurate estimation from adding (since it means there is essentially no differnece b/w two samples, so we can "combine" them)
(like you can think of this in that way )
for the standard error
Ok, so since proving the null hypothesis is the first priority, we can assume both true proportions are the same?
yup exactly
Thx, just trying to make usre i understand
they were good questions ngl
you seem to really want to understand the topic, its good
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This supposed to be -1
But I’m getting 0
,rccw
Can you elaborate?
Then apply the chain rule.
its sinxcosy+cosxsiny isn't it?
i think thats what i did
I don’t see that?
in like the first step
What was the original question?
You can just use chain rule.
Also, in your original working, you did dy/dx where you should not have. Can you see it?
uh no
i do not
It’s when you took the derivative for sin(x).
I wonder why he posted.
siny * dy/dx?
No, when you took the derivative of sin(x), you’re not supposed to add a dy/dx.
Since, you know, chain rule.
where im so confused
The first block.
do you mean in the first second, third or fourth bracket
oh
deriv of sinx is cosx
i didn't write dy/dx there
Wait a minute, why did you take the derivative of both??
its f(x)g(x) + f(x)g(x)
i thought we take $f'(x)g(x) + f(x)g'(x)$
gamer75431
Gah you know what let’s just go from sin(x+y)=1
ok
heres my next step
$(cosx)(-siny \frac{dy}{dx}) + (-sinx)(cosy\frac{dy}{dx})$
gamer75431
then i did
@granite anvil I don’t want to be rude, but stop, since I think it will be better if I teach you the other way.
This is more confusing than it needs to be.
So, we have sin(x+y)=1.
$-cosxsiny\frac{dy}{dx} - sinxcosy\frac{dy}{dx} = 0$
gamer75431
Now if we take the derivative, by chain rule, we get (x+y)’*cos(x+y)=0, right?
ok
Are you lagging?
Ok.
but where is your first term here
theres no sin or cos in front of the (x+y)'
$(\cos x) (-\sin y \frac{dy}{dx}) + (-\sin x)(\cos y \frac{dy}{dx}) = \frac{\sin(x+y)}{\cos(x-y)} \left( \frac{d}{dx} \left( e^{x^2+y^2} \right) \right)$
pratikitiki
Use this
someone ban this guy
<@&268886789983436800> We have a troll in the house.
no jk
Im literally helping
he is my friend
he is also stuck on the same question lol
we both did the same
question
If you look at your past messages, no.
<@&268886789983436800> can you please unban
what past message?
i did not ban anyone
If you want to observer, observe. If you want to ask questions, ask. There is absolutely no need to intervene here with any other purpose.
Yeah cause im helping
nor mute nor delete messages
Please, continue.
Thanks Hayley
@fiery flare
Comprende amigo 😄
Okay.
We had (x+y)’*cos(x+y)=0, by chain rule, correct?
The derivative of (x+y) with respect to x.
it is a notation for differentiation
It’s Leibniz notation. Usually used as shorthand if you don’t want to write out the whole d/dx thing.
;(
I’ll be right back, someone is calling me.
ok
I’m back.
Did you try this?
$1 + y\frac{dy}{dx}$
gamer75431
i think
Hmm.
You’re on the right track, but that’s not necessarily the case.
Think about the chain rule.
What is the derivative of y^2 with respect to x?
$2y\frac{dy}{dx}$?
gamer75431
oh so its $1+ y'\frac{dy}{dx}$
gamer75431
Again, right idea, but this time I think it’s just an abuse of notation problem.
$\dv{x}[y]=y’$
;(
Yes?
I said that earlier.
yeah sorry i didn't quite understand what you meant
It’s fine.
anyways thanks for the help
wait also
what was wrong with my notation
how should i have written it
You basically have y’*y’. Now, that doesn’t look correct, right?
;(
Since $\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{dy}{df}\cdot\frac{df}{dx}$
;(
i would write $cosy * derivative of argument$
gamer75431
Yes.
so why wouldn't i keep the dy/dx there
You would.
gamer75431
@granite anvil Has your question been resolved?
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The chain rule is used for differentiating when a function is replacing x in your well known functions
lol
Yup wait a min it will only last a few minutes
And then I am closing it
HELPING SOMEONE WHO CLOSED JUST BEFORE
lmaoo
@granite anvil Earlier you were differentiating the function $f(x)=x+y(x)$
Epsilia aka Epe
With respect to x, if you use the chain rule with y even if there is no function inside, you can ... But what is inside y is none other than x, so what you would multiply y'(x) with is $\dv{x}(x)$, which is just ... 1. So it wouldn't really change much
Epsilia aka Epe
What you wrote after $y'$ is $\frac{dy}{dx}$, which is the name of a function, probably varying with respect to x in all generality
Epsilia aka Epe
But it's as if you are differentiating y(y(x)) ...
ohh ok
ill take a look at this later i have to go eat
but thanks
Also I’m confused on how this = -1
Which is the answer
Well you show me this, and this is a function
Are you supposed to show that if you have sin(x+y)=1, then you have -2cos(x-y)/(cos(x)-sin(x)) = -1 ?
No, you show dy/dx=-1.
With y being ?
Just an arbitrary variable.
Then where do these sin and cos come from
I tried to understand what was at the start of the channel but found myself really unsure of what he wanted
Do you know what implicit differentiation is?
Yes
Implicitly differentiating sin(x+y)=1.
So that has been asked by the professor ?
I don’t know who the fuck asked, but yeah, that’s the question.
By differentiating y with respect to x that function, you almost get what you wrote here yeah
But I say almost because in the chain rule, there is no changing in the argument of the function which is the most "outside"
If you differentiate u(v(x)) with respect to x for example
The derivative would look like that :
u'(v(x)) • v'(x)
As you can see, the v(x) hasn't changed inside the u, it's just that you are differentiating u with respect to v(x) before multiplying by v'(x), so you treat v(x) as an other x
And then once you have differentiated u, you apply the derivative you found onto v(x)
That's where the notations need to be clear
Between (u(v(x)))' and u'(v(x))
Here, x+y is inside your sine function
So your x+y part is like a function inside your most "outer" function
@granite anvil which is why x+y would stay as x+y inside even after differentiating. Although you would keep y inside, so if you isolate dy/dx, you would get dy/dx with respect to y and x
Which would mean that you would then need to ... Solve a differential equation
Taking this too far. It's a simple undergrad question that can be completed in 5 lines max.
What would he do about his x+y inside ?
Its the sum identity where sin(x+y) = sinxcosy + sinycosx.
He can then differentiate both using power rule to get sinxcosy + sinycosx as [(sinx)(-sinx)(dy/dx)]+[(cosx)(cosy)] + [(cosx)(cosy)(dy/dx)]+[(-sinx)(siny)]
Equate [(sinx)(-sinx)(dy/dx)]+[(cosx)(cosy)] + [(cosx)(cosy)(dy/dx)]+[(-sinx)(siny)] to 0 which allows him to move the non dy/dx terms to the right.
He will end up with (dy/dy)[(-sinxsiny)+(cosxcosy)] = (-cosxcosy)+(sinxsiny) after factoring out the dy/dx
Then isolate the dy/dx to get: dy/dx = [(-cosxcosy)+(sinxsiny)]/[(-sinxsiny)+(cosxcosy)] = -1
Which gives a final answer of -1.
There, 5 lines.
It's surprising how they cancel out like that in the end
Yeah, it's all a matter of persistence.
They really test out the resilience of the students like that
Thank you for taking your time to write everything though
No worries.
@jaunty musk Has your question been resolved?
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how do you solve x-3=4x?
send x over
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how do i integrate
(sinax + cosax)/(sinax-cosax)
Please don't occupy multiple help channels.
so every time do i have to try to get the derivative of the denominator?
no
then?
how do i find out waht to derivate from the problem?
intuition (that's my best method I know)
the answer is sinax+cosax
@gritty cairn Going slow, whats the derivative of the denominator
what is the flow of this conversation💀
whenever i see fractions in integrals, the first i thing i do is try to see if i the derivative of the denominator is equal to the numerator. If its not, i see if i can make any tweaks to it to make it so
otherwise i try simplifcation
okay bro that was helpful
Lowkey i do the oposite of what you do @radiant dune . I just go back to see if theres a u sub if simplification gives me a bunch of unkindly functions and algebra'
this is probably the better strat
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Hello! 👋 How do I get the first matrix line here, considering that I want to calculate the Deti/detG in the long run? 
@marble otter Has your question been resolved?
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I want to calculate the ak coefficient for the fourier series for |t| between -pi and pi, is this approach correct? If i add the integrals it evaluates to 0
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guys is it ok to ask about chemistry here? but i was jsut wondering if anyone knows how to know if its polar/nonpolar and if what type of IMF
with just looking at the molecule (Not a drawing of it but literally just moelcules) bc our teacher wont let us use periodic table
for example
jsut: Si, Ne, H2O
like that, how can i immediately tell if its polar/nonpolar and its imf
what does imf stand for? i forgot...
intermolecular forces ^^
afaik you have to calculate the dipole moment of the molecule ? not exact but a rough estimate.. if the dipole moment of the molecule is zero then the molecule is non polar and if it is not zero then it is polar
okioki i will search htattt, but do u also know how to differentiate the different imf ?
i swear i dont know how 😔
you should try reading that from your chemistry course textbook i bet that will help you
oop we dont have that we just have ppts but our teacher didnt teach us that part, but ill try searching more
ahh..
im cooked right
not really
hmm
you can try searching i would recommend you a youtube channel for it but the ones i studied from were not in english
okyoky, did u have to draw the lewis structure ?
or can i just learn without learning the structure
kind of..? like there were 2 ways just memorize it or draw lewis structure to calculate it yourself.. either way you should learn drawing lewis structures its kind of helpful
okayokay my chem exam is in a few hours but im gonna clutch this
thank you!
you got this
Good luck
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So let’s say we’re playing roulette.
We’re putting on things that pay 2 to 1.
You’re putting all 8100$ on one spin. Let’s say you have 50% chance to win (in reality it would be around 48)
I’m playing a martingale on steroids.
first spin:100
second:200
third:600
fourth:1800
fifth:5400
(if one of them wins it’s started all over from 100)
Who has more chance of at least doubling their starting money (8100)?
@restive river Has your question been resolved?
nope
@restive river Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
How many rounds do you get to go in this scenario?
If you can keep going, then there are infinite pathways this hypothetical can take
@restive river
hi
8100 is your limit.
So until you run out, you can keep going?
Wait yeah that makes sense, okay gimme a sec to write this out
Until you run out. With the system I described, 5 tries.
100,200,600,1800,5400.
Lmao, the longest and most annoying way for you to double your money would be if you kept winning the 100s, that would have a probability of 4.13x10^-25 chance of occuring.
81 wins in a row with 50% chance of it hitting.
okay let me do that for each win now.
Take into account that it’s not simple “double down” strategy.
So when you win at 100, you profit 100
When you win at 200, you profit (total) 100,
when you win at 600, the clean profit is 300
when you win at 1800, you profited 900
and at 5400 you profit 2700
yes
that must be annoying
the first 2 tries
it pays 2:1 as in you put in 200 and what they give back is your original 200 with 100 added?
if you put in 200, you profit 200. But you already lost your first bet of 100.
200-100, the clean profit is 100.
Ah got it, thats what you meant.
yep
Okay. So winning any bet is 1/2. And winning at any part of the bettign results in a profit of 100 (if you win the 600 bet, you get net 300 back to the pot for the next round of betting).
This means we need to find the expected return on profits for each round of betting by seeing how probable it is to get to that point in betting and how much we can get back.
So, for the first bet, we have a 50% chance of winning and $100 as profit, so we do (0.5**100). The second bet, we have a 25% chance of winning (50%50% because 50% for loosing the first bet and 50% for winning the second bet) thus the estimated profit for that would be (0.25100).
wait wait
what do you mean winning at any part results in 100?
cuz if you win at 5400 it’s 2700 profit for example
No yeah, im just building up to that.
So lets get the expected profits as E(P) = (0.5100) + (0.25200) + (0.125300) + (0.0625600) + (0.03125*1200)
hmm.. The first bet doesn’t affect the second bet so the second bet is 50% too right?
if we said “winning both the first and the second” that would be 25%
simultaniously
No the first does affect the second, because we need to lose the first to get to the second. Second is depended on the first failing.
oh yea
No losing the first and winning the second are both 50% so we multiply to get the chance of winning the second.
yea i see it now
Okay so the expected profit is $212.5
So to double our money from the 8100, we do 8100/212.5 which is 38.1
That means we must win 38.1 games in order to double our money
The probability of winning each game is 0.5
And instead of finding the probability of winning each of those games, lets see where we can lose all 5 of those betting scenarios in a row.
Which will allow us to find the probability of winning at least once on each 5 betting rounds.
So we know we'll get money if we win atleast one of those games, and we can see the probability of winning atleast one game by finding the probability of losing all 5.
we have a 96,875% chance of winning one round right?
so 0,96875^38,1 is our expected chance?
Yes!
Thats good, well done.
thats about 30% wow
That’s crazy actually 😄
Thats good that you found it out in the end. Well done! 😮
Well, it's regular martingale has around 8% chance.
This is a significant improvement.
To double, that is.
Yeah haha
This is the better martingale imo. If you bet big you also win big here
As you’re losing your first few bets you’re actually getting happy not just stressed😂
High risk = high reward yeah.
I wonder if you can increase the bets and get better probabilities
Oh god, doubling $8100 with $1 bets is wild.
that would be
1
2
6
18
54
162
486😭
1458
your house🏡
anyways thanks this was really helpful!
Holy.
Start with 8500. Bets of 100, 400, 1600, 6400. 69.7% chance of doubling.
That's 70%. Wow. That might actually be profitable if you're lucky.
That’s crazy
Can we continue in dm?
Now optimize it using calculus to give you the highest probability of doubling.
Lmao
Sure
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Can someone help me do q10,11 and 12
elaborate on where you're stuck and what you've written
no
why are you doing that when you have a straight path
you are right but you don't know AF and FE yet
Ohhh wait
AE=3a
AF=3b
Cus its an enlargement of 3
✅
ya
Then how do I do q11
I dont understand what they r saying
Ac=3×0A those ones
<@&286206848099549185>
AC is 3 times as long as OA
BD is three times as long as OB
and they represent the vectors of OA as a and OB as b
if two vectors are parallel, then they're a multiple of each other
if v = 7 * w and v,w are vectors
then v and w are parallel
because v is just some multiple of w
they point in the same direction, just with different lengths
@restive river notice AB = AO + OB
you can split any vector
by taking a different path
Yes
Yea
so AB = AO + OB = 1/3 * CA + 1/3 * BD
Ok
so 1/3 * (CA + BD)
from here you may notice that if you go from C to A
and from A to B
and from B to D
that it's the same path as from C to D
so CA + AB + BD = CD
i.e. CA + BD = CD - AB
thereby 1/3 * (CA + BD) = 1/3 * (CD - AB)
but since we started with AB
we now have AB = 1/3 * (CD - AB)
bring the 1/3 * AB to the other side:
4/3 * AB = 1/3 * CD
and multiply with 3 for clarity:
4 * AB = CD
which tells us CD is just a multiple of AB
so they're parallel
😭why is the answer long just to prove it is a paraallel
hm these "pathmaking" proofs usually take a few steps
but you always have different options
we could start with CD too
CD = CA + AO + OB + BD = 3 * AO + AO + OB + 3 * OB
= 4 * AO + 4 * OB
= 4 * (AO + OB)
= 4 * AB
yeah that's faster
Oooo okip
get comfortable with experimenting like above
replace vectors with others
and slowly work your way towards the vector you want
are the steps clear?
Yes
kk
Thank,u very much
np and gl with further progress 🦇
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can someone help me plug this stuff in pls
What is t(44)
-10?
And what is s(-10)
Thus, s(t(44)) = s(-10) = 44
mower can u stop intruding pls
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thx ga31
im still so confused king leo on how to write that
wair no im not
44(-10(44))
?
No, just write the number
Ya just write 44
If $f^{-1}(x)$ is the inverse of $f(x)$, then $f^{-1}(f(x)) = x$.
King Leo [Ping For Help]
ok wait should i close this and open a new channel when i need mroe help
cuz i think ima need more help..
!done
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.reopen
✅
mk so i have
leme show u
bruh whyd it do that
but like im confused
cuz wouldnt it turn into
no im dumb ignore this oml i confused myself
Lol
ok wait i
im confused on finding the inverse tho
i have
g(f(x)) = 1/4(4x-3) +3
can i cancel out the 4s?
idk how to solve this i might js be having a brain fart but idk
Not yet, because you have a ... - 3 in the parentheses
so what can i do
wait
theyre inverse ight i js did the math?
?
i divided the 4
is fhat completely wrong
or am i like ok
IT WAS WRONNGGG i confused myself again
i tried dividing but like
i forgot it was alr.. a fraction
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does this look right
i forgot to add the f(x) in the top thats why its kinda messy
Yep, looks good.
alright
ok im confused now
idk where to go with this
could the x^2 cancel oit the radical
?
It doesnt cancel
Here, you got h(f(16)) = 14 which should tell you something
oh so its not recersable
i mean
OK
ok wait i have another question & ima send my work for it when imm done but ima need u guus to chrck it reallt wuick
am i correct
$$g(h(x)) = (2((sqrt[3]{x})/2))$$
pratikitiki
how the fuck do i do this
f must not have any repeated y-values, because f^-1 must not have any repeated x values (meaning the same x-value of f^-1 leads to two y-vaules)
i was not taught this
bros not even asking politely anymore 💀
em
how do i check for that
Couldn't find an attached image in the last 10 messages.
,rccw
This graph is your f^-1(x)
Is this a valid function?
umm yes i think so
Why
(it's not)
oh..
A function will have only one y-value for any x-value
thats awk....
Have you heard of the vertical line test @hot nova
Ok, do you know how to apply that to f^-1
js switchin the numbers
❌ Thats for inverses
oh
This is a graph of f^-1. does it pass the vertical line test
ummmm
If you dont know, dont hesitate to tell me
Dyk what the vertical line test is
not really
If you draw a straight line anywhere on the graph, it should pass through only one point on the function.
Here, it can pass through multiple and has many y-values.
can u give me an example for this question so ican like visualzie it
okk thats what i thought
Multiple intersection points = bad
So you need to simply remove parts of the function that cause it to fail the vertical line test
if its like veery single one then how do i know which to remove..
oopsies, @tropic skiff you can take over here 😎
Wdym oopsies
These are inequalties of x in f(x)
therefore, these are inequalities of y in f^-1(x)
Pick an interval and see if it passes the vertical line test
im so sorry but
i have no idea how to do that
like what do i plug in
😭
guys im slow im SORRY
Do you wanna vc so i can show you
💀
,rotate
where can we vc
What range of f^-1 will help pass teh vertical line test
Dms if its ok with you
ok im not talking tho
Sure
@hot nova do you see my screen
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for a
i got this
but the answer says this
so im a bit confused
what does the semi colon mean in this
$\dv{x} 1=0$
Bonk
the colon here is just separating the function from its derivative
ohh right okay
a semicolon wouldve been more appropriate
because you should not write that the function is "equal" to its derivative
makes sense
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Yes, since a function's derivative is not necessarily equal to the function (except for e^x!)
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Doea this look correct?
I'm supposed to evaluate this at 0 for the next step
idk how to do that without a calculator
any tips
yeah
Its not that hard, compute it dw
I get 2ln(3)*1^ln(3)
Which is ?
when I sub 0
no idea
1^ln(3) is just 1
when u sub 0, you should get 2ln(1) * (5) * something else
1 times smth = smth
oh right
im pretty sure the ansewr is just 0
No its inside the ln
The 5
ah i see
it'd be like ln(9)
then isn't this just 2ln(5)?
because its (2x + 1)(6x+5) in side the ln
which is just 5 if x = 0
Its a 3 not a 5
oh i see
It will
y then its just ln9
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Would this be a map in f:Q->Q
Please don't occupy multiple help channels.
My counter example was (1/-1)
which gives a devide by 0
the thing is (1/-1) = (-1/1)
And the second one does not give a devide by 0
so is this still a valid counter example?
are there any further conditions on p and q?
this is throwing me off because both are rational
one gives a rational output (0)
@jaunty dagger Has your question been resolved?
you know about consistency? @jaunty dagger
if p/q = r/s, then does f(p/q) = f(r/s)?
@north mountain Yes I think so if its a map
oh is this not a map because one imput can give 2 outputs
pick -1/1 and 1/-1
on top of what i showed
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i used the dot product equation to get 6x+8y=5 and x^2+y^2=1
and solved the system
but idk what i did wrong
where did 5 come from
the product of the magnitudes was 10
and the LHS was cos60=1/2
x and y are the vector components of the unit vector
how would i put the component in vector form
i think it wants the full vectors, it's just asking for the vectors with smaller and larger i-component respectively
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How would i go abount proving this?
I tried it using a law that allowed me to add the elements, but im not sure if its the proper way or if it even holds
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How would i write “The intersection of slopes A and B is located at (x, y)” in a formula?
Example: intersection of f(x)=2.5-(1/2)x and g(x)=(-1)+3x is (1, 2)
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I want a formula or equation that formulates “the intersection of slope a and b is located at (x, y)”
There is no such formula :c
Dang
You have to follow the procedure
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picture 3 is constant speed
i do not know how to know which picture is accelerating and which is braking and why
Everything has inertia, meaning it only moves when a force is acted upon it
So when the truck brakes, the fluid inside of the truck remains moving in the same direction the truck was moving, until it hits the front of the truck
The force that the front of the truck acts on the fluid makes it stop moving, that’s why it doesn’t go thru the vehicle
When the truck is accelerating, the fluid stays still until the force from the back of the truck moves it
So D
what is the force from the back of the truck
i imagined it is A because the fluid will move behind because acceleration will be negative
and accelerating the fluid will move forward because acceleration is positive
It’s just like when you crash into a car while you’re seated without seatbelt
You remain moving forward as you hit the car, (the break in this example) until the windshield stops you
so it has nothing to do with the direction of acceleration or anything?
