#help-27
1 messages · Page 288 of 1
no its just normal
Round function no?
hmm couldnt it be true
and others, but they state [.] - floor function
how come?
Just not to confuse @fading sorrel , it's probably not the floor, ceil or round function
Im not sure if this is right, but if g(x) is some pieceswise function not defined at some point x and f(x) is the function that fills that hole then wouldnt limit f(x) + g(x) exist but not g(x) at x?
ye
ohhh hmmmm
i never considered piecewise
but then wouldnt gx be composed of h(x) and k(x) lets say for some values of x
yea, they state it before any problem
this is wrong
wait can't you subtract
lim(f+g) - lim(f)
since they both exist you're allowed to do:
= lim(f+g-f)
i think
and that would imply lim(g) exists
that seems reasonable to me yeah
or...
that rule usually goes in the other direction
separating into 2 limits rather than combining into 1
limg(f+g) - limg(f) = lim(f) + lim(g) - lim(f) = lim(g) is the right way to go aboue it I think
where subtraction. is closed under the real numbers which would maen lim(g) has to be real?

lim(f+g) = lim(f) + lim(g) only applies if both limits exist individually
yeah
ohh right
wait lets say gx does not have a limit at x = c
then this means that it is not continuous at x = c
and fx is a normal continous function that does have a limit at x = c
when we add fx + gx, using continuity laws we just get another discontinous function at c. what an i do from here
it's incorrect to say that if it does not have a limit then it is not continuous
isnt it true tho? for piecewise and lets say 1/x
at x = 0, its discontinuous so no limit
if it doesnt have a limit its not continouts at x but I think he means its incorrecct to say if its not continues then it doesnt have a limit
because there are 3 rules to continuity
and one of them being broke would make it not continous but the lmit could still exist
no limit then no continuity
however the converse is not true
omg i was thinking derivative not limit ignore me
lol all goods
honestly i need to get better at this
i just finished yr 12
in aus
we don't have f continuous necessarily
ye we cant use this if ones to infinite
so the only way to do this is to manipulate the inside of the brackets
if the lim f(x) at x = c but the lim of g(x) doesnt exist at x = c, is it safe to assume that the lim f(x) + g(x) at c will still always exist?
ye not necessarily
hmmm
i cant even use limit laws for this
they dont even work for non existant cases
all right i found a theorem in spivak
whats that
page 102 theorem 2
ok lemme draw something
If $\lim_{x\to a} f(x)=l$ and $\lim_{x\to a} g(x)=m$ then $\lim_{x\to a} (f+g)(x)=l+m$
Axe
ye thats for cases that exist
hm wait
yooooo wait
thats smart
so lim( fx + gx -fx) = lim(fx + gx) - lim(fx)
lim (fx + gx) exists and lim fx exists hence lim(fx + gx - fx) as well
therefore lim(gx) exists
ooo
yeah basically
smart smart
thats really clever
🧠
its a calculus book by Micheal Spivak known for being the best if not best calculus book but also pretty rigorous
aight ill try to get a pdf
i think we can also try to prove it using proof by contrapositive
if lim gx does exist then lim fx + gx or lim fx does not exist
but i think this will make it harder to consider cases etc
why lim g does exist?
original statement was lim (f+g) and lim f exists -> lim g exists and you either show it’s true or that it’s false meaning it’s possible for lim(f+g) and lim f to exist while lim g does not exist
T -> F
so the contrapositive is lim g DNE -> lim (f+g) DNE or lim f DNE
Is there any reason we want a contrapositive proof?
@fading sorrel Has your question been resolved?
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ye it dont work
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is it true that $5^{\nu_5(n)} = n$
Dork9399
its only true iff n is a perfect power ie n = 5^a right
$\nu_5(n)$ is the 5-adic valuation of n
Dork9399
what should that be?
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nice strategy. closing instead of answering.
i figured it out calm down
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help
This is an attempt to prove the integrability of the function defined
Here’s my my attempt
If there’s a formatting issues please point out so I can improve
@arctic pendant Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
Why are you defining $M_k$ as the sup over the interval $[0,1]$ and not $[x_{k-1},x_k]$?
謎の男
because in some interval it can be 0
ema
Density property of Q in R
But if I let it be on [0,1] then I never have to discuss that
The chance of x_k is rational is super small though
The issue is your also using the $M_k$ in the sum for $U(f,P)$, but the sum in how $U(f,P)$ is defined relies on $M_k$ being defined over the interval $[x_{k-1},x_k]$, so when you say $U(f,P) = \sum \dots$ it is not true
謎の男
Also the sum would still just be 1
Can I replace it with $\sum\limits_{a_n \in [0,1]}$ for the upper sum
Emmaaaaa
I don’t think so now
$U(f,P)$ is defined to be $\sum_{i=1}^n M_k(x_k-x_{k-1})$ where $M_k := \inf{f(x) \mid x \in [x_{k-1},x_k]}$ so you cannot change it at all. You need to use this definition
謎の男
Yes if I do it with other it’ll be the integral instead
Then may I ask how I can properly discuss that there exist supremum of U(f,P) that is 1 over the sub interval
I was confused about it so I came up with that notation
I don't think you need to do this at all for the proof, but if you wanted to, we know $1 \in {a_n}$ so choose $n$ such that $a_n = 1$ then argue $a_n$ is in some sub interval $[x_{k-1},x_k]$ and the supremum for that interval only will be 1
謎の男
Can I simply write M_k = sup x in [x_k-1,x_k] =1?
Yes so best way is to argue there must be an N such that the supremum in that sub interval is 1
Am I understanding it right
I don't think so (I personally don't see this thought process going anywhere).
Instead I would argue that M_k is always less than or equal to 1 (not just equal to) and somehow use that, but this is not the "hard" part of this problem
Okay I got it then I will try to firstly refine it a bit… this part has been causing me fairly a lot of confusion
Have you heard of dirichlet's function?
Yes
Do you know why it is special with regard to integration?
Each sub interval contain rationals
And I also know a Dirichlet test but don’t know if it’s relevant
Nah I was gonna say (if im understaning the problem right) this seems to just be dirichlets function on [0,1] so if you know why that is/isnt integrable on a given interval then you can use the same logic here
I assume {a_n} being an enumeration on [0,1] with such a_n in Q means its an enumeration of Q intersection [0,1] right?
Yes
That’s true
That should be the idea
Omg you’re a genius that’s exactly the point
Yeah I didn't realize at first and was confused trying to figure out how you would do this
With that part fixed it should be considered rigorous right?
Confused what you mean. What should be considered rigorous?
If I fix that part, the rest of the proof is fine right? Is there more I need to fix?
Nah the special thing about dirchilets function is || its not riemann integrable so you need to prove why this is the case||
Because the discontinuity in this case of finite?
I didn’t think so deep behind I was so focusing on inequality
There are uncountably many discontinuities which suggests it may not be integrable but is not actually a sufficient reason
Without giving a proof its not really obvious why its not integrable
like intuitively you would think its 0 (which it is for some other types of integrals)
I should fix the sum them
So there is 3 terms of the enumeration
Maybe it’s not integrable
Ok I am realizing I made some small errors that might be confusing you a bit
First here I meant to write supremum not infimum
And this is actually true for all k
So M_k is always 1
BUT you still cant define it the way you did in the proof, you need to argue that the supremum is 1 over every subinterval for any partition
Once you do this you will see U(f,P) is always 1 and L(f,P) is always 0
Not divergent because you are still multiplying by the length of the sub intervals which are small
In fact, knowing that M_k = 1, the upper sum is just summing all the lengths of the intervals
which is why we know the upper sum is 1 (because the partition is taken over an interval of length 1)
But there should be infinite many rational over [0,1] right?
so summed together it’s still huge
I am super confused
Now
yeah but we are basically only picking one rational for each subinterval
Enumeration must be finite?
Nah, but partitions are finite
and the upper sum is finite because of this
(another reason it can't diverge, its not a series)
Yes I think I must watch a bit more videos, basically this part is abstract too abstract
And I feel it so hard to learn it without taking lectures
Yeah
🥰🥰🥰thanks so much anyway you helped my life
np
I fixed some parts now it should work right?
I finally got what you mean by the partition is finite
And now the logical counter example is corrected!
You should get that the function is not integrable
The first half of the proof is good
You need to also explain why $M_k$ = 1. You can do this with basically the same exact argument you did to show $m_k = 0$.
How are you getting $\sum_{k=1}^n M_k(x_k-x_{k-1}) = \frac{\epsilon}{\text{tree}(3)}$ though. Remember $M_k = 1$ thus $\sum_{k=1}^n M_k(x_k-x_{k-1}) = \sum_{k=1}^n (x_k-x_{k-1})$ for any partition. This is still computable though.
Consider a small example. What happens if you have the partition ${0,0.25,0.5,0.75,1}$ (here n = 5)
Then $\sum_{k=1}^4 (x_k-x_{k-1})$ = \sum_{k=1}^4 \frac{1}{4} = 1$. The same logic will apply to any partition: the sum of all partitions over an interval is the length of the interval.
謎の男
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But there is a distinction between this and a dirichlet function, that one has infinite many discontinuity
And since Q is dense in R so every sequence of Q contains elements in real like right?
since its one enumeration of points and the interval is so small
We are basically integrating 0
If it’s not integrable then I am even more confused because dirchlet is not integrable bcs infinitely many discontinuity
I think I might be confused on the function. Is it not true that for any rational number a_n in [0,1] we have $f_j(a_n) = 1$
In my case it’s finite
謎の男
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Not necesarrily
Ok there is maybe a problem of notation
You are using $a_n$ to describe elements in the enumeration
謎の男
but you also are using $n$ to be the number of points in your partition
謎の男
is this correct?
Yeah they are separate things
I assume your enumeration is over the rational numbers in Q. Even if it just means some subset of Q, in the worst case it could still be all of Q
thus your enumeration is infinite
I will refine that part too! If a_n is finite then its integrable right
Yeah
I am actually not studying mathematics so my notation is super messy😭😭
I will be fixing it right now
Tbh I think im very confused on the set up of the problem now.
I was originally thinking that ${a_n}$ was an enumeration of ALL rational numbers in $[0,1]$, but you are saying that ${a_n}$ is finite. Is it actually a finite enumeration of SOME rational numbers in $[0,1]$
謎の男
Usually is infinite enumeration denoted like this ${a_n}^\infty_{n=1}$
Emmaaaaa
I think it is often just written as ${a_n}$
謎の男
I am super bad with these details too because I am not professionally trained 😭😭😭
Yeah I self studied this so I may not be the best with notation either
x_n should be a_n right?
Nah the x_n would be a point in the partition, while a_n would be a number in the enumeration
Assuming ${a_n}$ is finite, then it is not true that $M_k = 1$ for all $k$. It may also be the case that $M_k = 0$ (I can provided an example if needed). This does not impact the proof too much though.
The main issue is I still don't get how you have $\sum_{k=1}^n M_k(x_k-x_{k-1}) = \frac{\epsilon}{\text{tree}(3)}$
謎の男
Each $x_k - x_{k-1} = \frac{\epsilon}{\text{tree}(3)}$ (where $M_k = 1$) though right?
謎の男
oops I did not see that
Yeah ok now your reasoning makes a lot more sense to me, but it is still due to the issue of using $n$ for two different things
謎の男
For that I will fix it 🥰🥰
Lets instead denote the enumeration as ${a_m}$ (using $m$ instead of $n$)
謎の男
Yes i totally agree i was so confused by this notation too
Then instead you will be choosing it so $x_k - x_{k-1} = \frac{\epsilon}{m\text{tree}(3)}$ (because $n$ doesnt exist yet)
謎の男
Yes that’s then correct I think?
This means now $U(f,P) = \frac{n\epsilon}{m\text{tree}(3)}$
謎の男
If we choose a very large partition this will become arbitrarily large though
Should I say m > n
Then it will be weird though not every interval might have rational
You can't say that because we are trying to compute for a general partition, where $n$ can be arbitrarily large
謎の男
Yes I got it, epsilon is arbitrary it’s fine
I have a tendency to make it smaller even if it’s arbitrarily small already bcs I am not good with it so 😭😭
So I will fix the index now 🥰
replaced with vvvv
This reason is actually bad. The actual reason is if we partition the interval $[0,1]$ such that the sub intervals have length $\frac{\epsilon}{m\text{tree}(3)}$, then we must have that $n > m\text{tree}(3)$.
謎の男
assuming epsilon < 1
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how to easily divide a number by a decimal numberÞ
Divide or multiply
That's multiplication symbol
*
Bit when you do division woth decimals, you can adjust the problem by multiplying the divisor and the dividend by a power of 10 such that all decimals are eliminated
For example, suppose you are doing
70.1 ÷ 17.525
________
17.525 ) 70.1
Multiply both numbers by 1000
________
17,525 ) 70,100
Now there are no decimals.
Maybe this wasn't the best choice because that goes in exactly 4 times, but you get thr idea.
@lusty wing Has your question been resolved?
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.
Can someone explain what is happening in the next step:
like what is happening here too
This is the result
and then they do this
what grade maths is this
prob first year uni
seems easy
i am grade 12 but this is part of my math ia
yeah could you explain it
i haven't covered matrices
why
like the whole point is to find a single function that will pass throuhg all the points
wdym
do u find this hard
yeah i dont know how to do it?
i dont know how to do it i'm too young
Wait is it asking to reduce those matrices to echelon form
yeah
Oh
but im not sure what is happening in the step before either
like how is she making this matrix
the matrix consists of the coefficients of each variable
yeah
I mean yeah she’s just constructing a coefficient matrix
But like
no i mean i understand the relationship beteween each row, its just teh coefficients of abcd
but when shes multiplying the matrix with abcd is she multiplying every value with a in that row?
im not sure how the multiplication works if its not with just a scalar value
we define matrix multiplication in such a way that multiplying the matrix of coefficients with the vector (a,b,c,d) as shown results in a vector which is the left side of each equation
Well she multiplies matrices
okay so what are they multiplying in that step
in each row, you multiply the first element in the row by the first vector element (a), then the second element in the row by the second vector element (b), and so on
then add them up
Yeah
oh ok
yeah so its the same as the polynomial equation
that makes sense
so wahts the point of the reduced row echelon format
the reduced row echelon form will give a matrix, which when translated back into a system of equations, will have the same solutions but much easier to see
so basically it gives you the function that satisfies all 4 equations?
so if you do the RREF you will get the matrix: [ \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 & 0 & -0.113 \ 0 & 1 & 0 & 0 & 0.690 \ 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 & -0.882 \ 0 & 0 & 0 & 1 & 1.25 \end{bmatrix} ] which if we translate back into the equation is [ \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 1 & 0 & 0\ 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} a \ b \ c \ d \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} -0.113 \ 0.690 \ -0.882 \ 1.25 \end{bmatrix} ]
cloud
how does the back translatoin work?
to do the rref, we combine the coefficient matrix with the vector representing the right side of each equation. that's how we go from the equation shown here to the matrix actually entered in the calculator
in the calculator you then use a function which generates the RREF of that matrix. but in the RREF the last column still represents the right side like before
so (0.474)^3 x 0.973 = 0.106496?
thats not what im getting though
wait no im confused now
where is this calculation coming from?
correct me if im wrong
but aren't you multiplying the matrix on the far left here with the one on the RHS ?
no, you aren't
you are putting the matrix on the left and the vector on the right into one big matrix (what we call an augmented matrix) where the first 4 columns are from the left and the last column is from the right (shown in the calculator here)
you are then finding the RREF of this augmented matrix (this can be done by hand but it is easiest to make the calculator do this)
oh i see
ok ok that does make sense
so how are they finding the RREF
like if you could explain just one step of it
cuz it looks like they are just evaluating the matrix
here
idk if thats the right terminology
but they are expanding the brackets
Do you know how to do elimination with equations? That's pretty much what is done
once you have the matrix evaluated you would then have the calculator perform an inbuilt 'rref' function
if i was writing a math lab on something involving this do you think I'd have to explain how the RREF works?
at the grade 12 level
like with linear systems?
internally the calculator would be performing row operations (adding rows to other rows, multiplying rows by scalars, and swapping rows), but all we really need is the end result (which is the top matrix here)
Yes, solving a system of equations using elimination
oh yeah
the elimination method for linear systems is exactly how the calculator performs RREF (it just uses matrices to express the system)
so you guys think its okay to just say find RREF using graphical display calculator on a math lab?
so i dont actually have to explain how it works or nah
if solving a linear system of equations is a step you need to do and you are allowed a calculator that does it then you can probably use it
the exact guidelines are up to your teacher, though
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someone pleasee pleasee help me w this
pweaseee
does any1 know?
<@&286206848099549185>
if any1 understand this plz lmk
❤️
this cant be real
wtf is this
no one in the world does this math
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Hello
hi
do you have a question?
@last hornet Has your question been resolved?
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I'm trying to show that if $(b_n) \to b$ then $(\abs{b_n}) \to \abs{b}$
\
\
Proof:-As $(b_n)$ is convergent, it follows that $\forall \varepsilon >0, \exists N>0$, st, if $n > N$, then $\abs {\abs{b_n} - \abs{b}}\leq \abs{b_n - b} < \varepsilon$
From this we can conclude that $(\abs{b_n}) \to \abs{b}$
What's the third line for?
I need $\abs{\abs{b_n} -\abs{b}}< \varepsilon$
ƒ( wai ina teacup)= I don't know
you already have that in the second line?
ƒ( wai ina teacup)= I don't know
but yeah, minor typo
also st and if and shouldn't be in math mode
if you want to emphasise you should use italics or slant
ƒ( wai ina teacup)= I don't know
sure
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𝔽𝟜𝕟𝕥𝟘𝕞 | Retired
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@restive river Has your question been resolved?
- you're told they're all positive numbers, so what the solution is saying is the smallest number possible for x1 to x10 is the smallest positive number (1)
- x11 is the median, so all the numbers after that have to be bigger than or equal to the median (10)
so the smallest x11 to x21 can be is 10 - but then it says the biggest number was 16, so we can swap x21 to a 16 to fix that
that gives us 1 10 times from x1 to x10, 10 for the median x11, and 10 10-1=9 times from x12 to x20, and 16 for x21
yes
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How does this equal 0.94, ill post my steps below where i get the wrong answer
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(2x+5)[3(x-2) -2(x-4)] +2(2x+5)
I can see that at -2(x-4) 4 = -2 *-2 and to take out the common factor since we already have a number do we multiply 3 with -2 i am a little confused on the steps here
Is this understandable?
3x - 6 -2x + 8 = x +2 yeah
So will have (2x+5)(x+2) + 2(2x+5)
We have the common factor 2x+5
So if we factor out, (2x+5)[(x+2)+2] is the result
oh i see it now. My mistake in the first place is that i simplfied 2(2x+5) so i had 4x + 10
Good ! Now yk what to do !
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help
Hii
omg dude
thanks for that exercise yesterday, it was so cool
And write cos2x = cos²x - sin²x
Glad to help !!!
ight one sec
(a+b)(a-b) = a²-b²
So deno becomes (1-cos²x) = sin²x
yup
So can ya solve it now ?
[(cos²x-sin²x)(1-cosx)]/sin²x
Yeah write that
oof
Solved !?
so i got cos2x - cos2x cosx
Lemme check
,w integrate from 0 to pi/2 cos2x/(1+cosx)
dayum
They say it's 3- pi
then that the answer prolly
ik
so would you send me a pic of your calculations?
Yeah sure
I also got the same
we are probably just stupid
lol
cos2x(1-cosx) = (1-2sin²x)(1-cosx) = 1 - cosx - 2sin²x + 2sin²xcosx
Dividing by sin²x we get
(cosec²x -cosecx*cotx - 2 + 2cosx)
forgot to expand properly
ohhhhhhh
i did an oopsie
the 1 in (1-2sin^2(x))cos(x) didn't get multiplied
anyways, when in doubt, tan(x/2) can do the job
I shall say no
the third one shouldve had sin^2 x
thats prolly the only thing
Yeah and it would be (-ve) before 2
oh
i see
so how do i solve it
in the first and third integral do i just subsitute with tgx/2?
Nah they are direct integrals
Yeahh
Third one is cosec x cot x
Integration of this gives
-cosecx right .
?
i told you yesterday that nobody taught us cosec and sec stuff here so
i got no clue
😭
Teachers are like this :'')
Differentiation of cosecx is -cosecx × cotx , so integration of the latter returns -cosecx
oki so now the problem is just cosx/sin^2x
do you have any other method of solving this?
Wait let me see
This is the easiest one though, let me see for other ways
sure
We can do by writing cosx + 1 = 2cos²(x/2) but that makes the process very complicated
But let's see
how about the tgx/2 substitution
In numerator we have cos2x = 1-2sin²x
Nah that won't work here we need to see the degree
sin²x = 4sin²x/2cos²x/2
So we have (1-8sin²x/2cos²x/2)/2cos²x/2
We get 1/2 sec²x/2 - 8sin²x/2
Now recall
2sin²x/2 = 1 - cosx
mhm
i didnt understand what you did
oh wait
dude
cosx = (sinx)'
so now we just got u/u^2
but wait cuz that wouldnt work either
because we would get 1/sinx
from 0 to pi/2
so we would have 1/0
we are trying to solve integral cosx/sin^2x dx right?
No
thats what i was trying to solve
I solved the whole one 😭😭
Nah if we proceed by this method there's no other direct way
Can you memorize it ?
memorize what?
Integration of csc x cot x = - csc x
it just doesnt help me anyhow
It does
cosx/sin²x = cos x/ sin x * 1/sinx
= cot x * csc x
You can try solving the integral the other way I mentioned
i apreciate trying to help me
From here
That's the basic formulae
Let me see this particularly
cos x = cos² x/2 - sin ² x/2
sin²x = 4sin²x/2 cos²x/2
So we get
cosx /sin²x = 1/4(cosec²x/2 -sec²x/2)
You can integrate this ?
Yes
csc 0 is undefined
so this
this formula of yours
doesnt help us at all
i tried it with t substitution and got something over 0 too
so it didnt matter after all
Yes it helps 😭😭😭 you
how?
That's the basic formulae we're taught
Like int (cosx) = sin x
but the integral is from 0 to pi/2
A formula like that !
my dude
if we applied your formula
and we got - csc from 0 to pi/2
how did that help you
cuz now you dont know what csc 0 is
do you get it now?
yep
That's causing the problem I see, the best way this would be to use multiple angle formula
you flexed on me with your useless formula for 30 mins just to abandon it
sorry if im being mean
🙃
now what?
did i upset you?
what is the original question
this is the original question
what have you tried
i tried to aplify the fraction by (1-cosx)
which got me nowhere
so that is for sure not the solution
have you tried kings rule
wait a sec
i think i kinda figured it out
if you wanna help me i could tell you my idea
sure
nice
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hey so i don't much about calculus but i have been told that in calculus dx is defined as increment in x . So my question is , does -dx denote decrement if yes then if x1 is lower limit and x2 is upper limit can i integrate f(x) from x2 to x1 by with respect to (-dx) instead of +dx is it correct?
yes you could do that
so can i say that is the reason why we put a negative sign when we reverse the limit of integration?
yup
so my physics teacher just integrated this from infinity to r without putting -dx and i was wondering how he got the correct answer . By the way that negative sign before the integral is due to vectors having opposite direction
,rotate
i just wanted to verify if i am missing some concept from calculus
do you know FTC part 2
this holds regardless of weather a<b
also imagine reversing a and b
then the left hand side would be -(integral of that)
and the right hand side would become F(a)-F(b)
which would simplify to the original equation
so it doesnt really matter weather a>b
so the sign of dx doesn't matter on limits?
it does
like you cant just remove the negative
but you can pull it out of the integral and then it would work
yes but that negative sign in the image i sent earlier is not pulled out from integral , its already present there
I was wondering the same why he didn't put (-dx)
thanks i will think about this more
mb i dont really know how to explain this properly
@signal canopy Has your question been resolved?
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Thus isn’t the contrapositive also false, and therefore P is false?
What are they exactly trying to say here? Isn’t the statement Not P -> C false since we assume Not P is true and C is a contradiction thus it is always false?
C is always false
thus Not C is always true
Not C => P, and since Not C is always true, P is also true
@velvet coral Has your question been resolved?
Yes, but just because Not C is always true does not imply P is true
why not
But this is only true “Not C => P” if and only if “not P => C” is true
However the implication “Not P => C” is false
Since we assumed “Not P” is true and “C” is a contradiction
Oh wait wha
I think I don’t understand how not P is false
let's backtrack a bit
Ok
we want to show that P is true (goal)
Yes
this is equivalent to showing that Not P is false
Yes
we deduce Not P => C, where C is false
And we do that by assuming Not P is true right
Yeah, but then we arrive at a contradiction which is always false
So true -> false
Which means the implication is false
So then idk how they can use the contrapositive and stuff
yea i am a bit confused too, in our logic class we showed the correctness of a proof by contrdiction very differently
but i think we can get this to work as well
Oh would you be willing to share that?
Oh yeah okay, we can if you are willing to share what your logic class taught and after
@velvet coral Has your question been resolved?
Not sure why this is exactly true
sorry for the late reply; rereading now, i wouldn't say this is extremely rigorous but the approach is different
instead of using contrapositions we do
$A \wedge \neg B \implies$ absurd
artemetra
Yes, thanks, I think it utilizes the law of excluded middle or smthing
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My equation for m is different but I think it still passes through a and b just the u has to be changed, is it fine? I don't see it in the marking scheme though and I don't know what the table means jn the marking scheme. Help pls
Talking about part c and b
@fervent pelican Has your question been resolved?
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how would you go and prove this doesnt have a limit?
I am not sure I can just say the from 0+ it the same without the floor function, and from 0- is the same but -1
The square brackets are the floor function?
ye
Yeah your argument works
We can make it more detailed
When x>0, sin^2(x) >0 so the fraction is positive and the floor is >=0
When x<0, sin^2 is again >0 but the fraction is <0 so the floor is <= -1
How "formal" do you want it?
Do you want to find a specific epsilon?
Because the fraction is <0 because it's a positive over a negative
This isn't enough to say the lim from the left is -1
But it's enough to show the two-sided limit doesn't exist I think
Show that $\frac{\sin(x^2)}{x}$ would be negatixe for $x<0$ (and some lower bound for $x$ too), and then deduce that $\left\lfloor\frac{\sin(x^2)}{x}\right\rfloor$ would be $\le-1$
SWR
I know this is enough, I just need to explain how I am making the floor function go away with a -1
Uhh actually there is a hole in my argument
It works for -pi < x< 0
That should fix it
The floor of x is always <= x
So if the fraction is < 0, the floor of the fraction is the same or even smaller, so it's less than 0 too
You should be able to show floor(x) <= x by looking at the definition of floor
I said it like that: For $0^+ : 0 < \sin{x^2} < 1, 0 < x < 1 ==> 0 < \frac{\sin{x^2}}{x} < 1$
Shachar
It has the same hole I mentioned before
You can say for x in (0,pi)
Can't say for 0+
can I say then aftwer than thar 0+ is in (0,pi)?
That statement doesn't make much sense to me
I do a limit of 0- so I should be able to say something about it
To be more formal I think you'll need delta-epsilon
Because you need a way to exclude the zeros on the negative x-axis
you think if I just write the limit for 0-, than just make it equal to the limit without the floor but -1 they won't question this?
it's a question of is it formal obvious enough that it doesnt need to be proven
$\lim_{\x\to 0^-} \floor{\frac{\sin{x^2}}{x}} = \lim_{\x\to 0^-} \frac{\sin{x^2}}{x} - 1$
Shachar
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Has your class taught delta-epsilon?
Um
also never proven something doesnt have a limit using this method
You have to flip all the quantifiers
wym?
Use taylor
didnt learn yet
Taylor on floor?
how would you use delta-epsilon on floor?
Let epsilon be 1/2
For any delta we can pick x= plus minus delta over 2
Also pick x such that it's not a sqrt of a multiple of pi
Then evaluate at the two x values and one will be >=0 and one will be <=-1 I think
idk what you did here
wym by evaluate
isnt delta-epsilon the proof that a limit exists?
Plug into floor(sin(x^2)/x)
It can equally prove that a limit doesn't exist
If you want to go down this road you can start by stating the negation of delta-eps
For every $\epsilon > 0$ exists $\delta > 0$ that for every x that $0 < | x - 0 | < \delta$ than $|\floor{\frac{\sin{x^2}}{x}} - L| < \epsilon$?
Shachar
Yeah that's the regular version
and from here what dhould I do?
"For all" and "there exists" swap
doesnt matter, its not in english
And you have to negate the implication
how?
so assume it true
Sorry I meant a disjunction
so assume it's not true?
we havent learnd those, arent those for logic?
Yes they are part of logic
I think Spivak's calc book states the negation of delta-epsilon
Maybe yours does too
we don't have a book
we just have lectures
and they didnt state this
but im gonna search for it
thanks anyways
Maybe you can find a way without delta-epsilon
Good luck
You can just say for x close enough, it won't hit a zero of the function
That should be fine
isnt this only in math analasys?
I mean for x close enough to zero, the fraction inside the floor can't be zero
but it's not equals
if it equals we get to 0/0 and this is another shit I don't want to handle
No not there
I still dont understand why pi
Yea
you mean that sin(x) >= 0 for x in [0, pi]?
So just state "for x>0 sufficiently close to 0"
Then you can use < and not <=
You can leave as "for 0+" if you want
It's fine
For $x \in (0, \pi) [0^+] x >= 0 \and \sin{x^2} >= 0$ therefore $\frac{\sin{x^2}}{x} >= 0$?
is this okay?
No that's just confusing
Shachar
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You can use this but remove <1 at the end
you said I can't just say about 0+
OK you can say:
For $x\in (0,\sqrt{\pi}),\ 0< \sin (x^2),\ 0<x$ so $0<\frac{\sin (x^2)}{x}$
Axe
then say $0^+ \in (0, \sqrt{\pi})$?
Shachar
No just don't say anything about 0+
0+ is not on the number line
It can't be in (0, sqrt pi)
I mean... you can do it if you really want to
It's a little naughty
so this can be assumed to just be inside without explicitly telling it is
,rccw
magic
limits of sine functions are always very interesting. This is where a calculus student really starts to question their non-analytic understanding of trig functions 
If this is what you want to say, you will need an upper bound after all. But 1 doesn't work
actually the floor function is my problem here, not the sine
At least not as you wrote it
Floor ?
pi/2 will work?
btw I would mention $0<\sin (x^2)<1$ for a specific interval of $x$
SWR
omg that took too many tries to write
we use the square brackets as the floor function in this course
Ok ok
That is very unfortunate notation. I don't blame you for that, but it's just very unfortunate.
why does it so hard to prove something so obvious 😦
pretty ez tho
sin <= 1
oh nvm
idk what sin(x) equals for every x
I hate my life
Maybe you can argue the leg is shorter than the arc on the unit circle 
Or
Just assume it
when tf did we moved to trigo

aint no way they meant for me to go this deep into this
for sure if it will solve this
the way I sorta "see" it but depends on having seen the sinc function before is:
lim x->0 of sin(x)/x is 1 so
floor(sin(x^2)/x) = floor(x * sin(x^2)/x^2) is approximately floor(x) near x=0 which has no limit as x->0 either
you can take a few minutes to mentally reset though if you want. I'm still writing out my idea to minimize any possible confusion as I attempt to explain it
You sometimes have to think creatively, you know
there is no problem of creativity just of formality
thanks lol
@wise storm i tought about it, and it might even be possible to solve it like this, it's just invloves saying for 0+ it's continous in (0, 1) and for 0- it's continous in (-1, 0) than can just put the lim inside the floor. but again idk how to formally write this
the problem you're having at the moment is more to do with the sin than the floor
yeah I should have read more of the thread here but it was kind of long.I think what you're suggesting here is perfect so nothing I can really add I think haha
you can pull the limit inside continuous functions BUT
i'm worried in this case for two reasons
the limit is at the endpoint of the interval of continuity, and
floor is not continuous at x=0
right
and we're considering the interval (0, sqrt(pi))
we need 0 < sin(x^2)/x < 1 so that the argument of floor is within (0,1) where it's continuous
i think
I wrote
For $x \in (0, \sqrt{\pi}), 0 < \sin{x^2} < 1, x > 0$ so $0 < \frac{\sin{x^2}}{x} < 1$
Shachar
the conclusion that sin(x^2)/x < 1 doesn't follow from the premises
so I just need to find what will make it follow
regarding pulling the limit inside floor
i found this problem:
Prove that if $f$ is continuous at $l$ and $\lim_{x\to a} g(x)=l$, then $\lim_{x\to a} f(g(x)) = f(l)$.
Axe
@grand ledge Has your question been resolved?
what idea btw?
Just finished writing it out.
Okay we can go through it'
wait lim(g)=0
I'm pretty confident I can help you get this done @grand ledge
I believe
yup
Okay, and here will be the general approach. Let me know if you have questions:
you don't need to prove it?
We're going to prove it. I'm just giving you the outline of the overall proof
I'm sure you know what the floor function is, but I want to express this point, as it will be how we get this all done
yes
And do you see how this would get us to show that the limit does not exist?
ok, that makes sense
And does this part make sense in how we can prove the above?
you changed the denominator
I meant to mention this first
and then this
@grand ledge does the logic here make sense?
ye
a bit confused
with the all theta thing
but I guess it's just to say that sin(theta) between 0 and 1 here?
I was saying just that $\sin(\theta)>0$. The upper bound $1$ will not be important for us, but there is no harm in including it.
SWR
So now, finally, we get to where the bulk of your confusion has been
We will need to show this bit geometrically
If we can show this, do you see how the rest of the proof would fall in line now?
ye the leg is shorter than the arc
