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why is the parametrizaiton multiplied by 4
the cone is given by z=Vx2+y2 and the plane z=4 so the intersection is Vx2+y2=4
now we go to the power of 2 on each side
x2+y2 =16
this is a circle in 2d plane
and the cercle can be parameterized as (rsint,rcost)
where r is the radius and r in this case is 4
so its (4sint,4cost)
and we know that for the last one z =4
so (4sint,4cost,4)
which is
4(sint,cost,1)
Helo
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variance of a binomial experiment is npq, then shouldnt it be 1/4th of N?
@lean glade Has your question been resolved?
The variance of H conditioned on N is a quarter of N's variance, but perhaps the unconditional variance of H is a little higher
@lean glade Has your question been resolved?
i was also thinking that it should be a quarter of N for Hs variance
But the answer key says that it should be half of Ns variance
Your assumption that H is binomial is only true once you fix N
Have you encountered the formula Var(X) = E(Var(X|Y)) + Var(E(X|Y))
Well you need that to compute the unconditional variance of H so I'm not sure what else they expect you to use
Can you give me a resource link from which i can learn what you're talking about?
Look up law of total variance
Okay
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Let $f:(0,1)\to \mathbb{R}$ have the property that for all Cauchy sequences $x:\mathbb{N}\to (0,1)$ have that $f\circ x$ is also Cauchy. Then we are asked if $f$ is continuous. Here's how I tried to show that it is: Let $(x_n)$ be a sequence such that $x_n\to x_0$, $x_0\in (0,1)$. Then $(x_n)$ is also cauchy and with that $(f(x_n))$ as well, so it is convergent to a limit $L$. Let $f(x_0)\neq L$. Then $\varepsilon:=|f(x_0)-L|/2>0$. With that $\exists n_1:\forall n$,$m\geq n_1:|f(x_n)-f(x_m)|<\varepsilon$ and $\exists n_2:\forall n\geq n_2:|f(x_n)-L|<\varepsilon$. Then by the triangle inequality for a choice of $N=\max(n_1,n_2)$: $\forall n\geq N: 2\varepsilon\leq |f(x_n)-f(x_0)|+|f(x_n)-L|<2\varepsilon$. A contradiction
And sorry for occupying two rooms, I wanted to change something, didn't know it'd close the room
Unfortunately you can't argue that
but here's the trick
instead of considering x_n
consider the sequence $(y_n)$ such that $y_{2n} = x_n$ and $y_{2n+1} = x_0$
rafilou is not not born in 2003
convince yourself that it's a cauchy sequence
done
and apply your reasoning to sequence y_n
sotiris
I'm not sure if that's a general sequence
isn't f(x_n) a subsequence of f(y_n)?
if you manage to show this, wouldn't the result you wanted to prove be shown?
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can someone help me get thru part d and e?
what are the axioms?
Alright do you have some idea on axiom 7?
its scalar multiplication
uh huh
So u + v = (u_1 + v_1, u_2 + v_2) as was given to you
what is k(u+v) under the same notation?
k(0, u2+v2)
yeahhh right
what we just discussed, how am i supposed to write it mathematically?
So those are axioms, they cant be "proven", but you are just expected to show that they hold
so from what we have done
you can show that you have (0, ku_2 + kv_2) from what i replied to because the distributivity of scalars
ku + kv = (0,ku_2) + (0,kv_2)
apply the addition rule they described
what do you get?
(0+0) , (k.u2 + k.v2)
yeah!
is that equivalent to this?
yess
yep so u r done
in axiom 8, do i, instead of using k m u, i should use k u v?
hmm? could you be more clear?
is that a compliment ππ
π
no π i dont understand what you said
i should stop embarrassing myself
yeah um.. the variables used in theory are "k m u" but in the question, it's "k v u" so are they the same thing or?
oh you're talking about ix)?
number 8
Ok so no. v is a vector, m is a scalar
its meant to be (k+m)u
yeah, but m is not defined
well, seems like thats a problem the question-maker forgot to account for
either keep it as a variable, or choose an arbitrary scalar to represent it
lets keep it as a variable
as
km+(0,ku2)
i think you typo'd there or something haha
ok so the issue with what you wrote is that you're adding a vector to a scalar
that's an undefined operation
so lets take it a step at a time shall we
you have (k+m)u, what is this in vector notation?
not quite
was a typo
still no?
nope
ehhh
well actually
addition of scalars multiplied to a vector?
m(u1+u2)
no
remember m is a scalar
evem though you dont know its value
it should function the same as k
(mu1,mu2)
hint: this
i shouldn't be putting zero in the first value for m right?
i believe you should. Presumably this operation works on any scalar
wouldn't that mean m is equal to k? we just decided that m is a variable
so like (0, mu2) ?
well, they gave you what k is, but they didn't give you what m is. Like, if they had given you neither of those two, then[
k\mathbf u = (0, ku_2), \quad m\mathbf v = (0,mu_2)
]
still holds
Aero
ok maybe that was a misnomer on my part, but what I had meant by "variable" is that it is an unknown number
okay, do we leave the question here?
wdym leave
i mean is there any other step after this?
well yeah you haven't shown it holds yet
ikrr
addition of two scalars multiplied to a vector
try to remember this
= ku + mu
=(0,ku2) + (0,mu2)
yeah that's the other one
I'm talking about this though
i mean like
yes!!
so is this
π
equivalent to this
and so axiom 8 holds
yes
so we move on to axiom 9?
do i solve it as ku and mu?
no
apply this
[(0, ku2)(0,mu2)] u
no
like
(km)u is not equal to ku * mu
so like
think of km as like a simple scalar just like k in the picture
we just leave km as it is?
that's the only conclusion i havw
yes
I mean it's going to be
(km)u = (0, (km)u_2)
ohhhhh how do you even get to that point π
it's like applying this
ku = (0, ku_2)
mu = (0, mu_2)
(k+4d+c)u = (0, (k+4d+c)u_2)
it always applies
no matter the scalars
okayyy
i see
so now we've proven axiom 9 holds
no you haven't actually
so like
you need to set up the other equation
rhe other one is k(mu)
you need to expand
k(mu) = ...(... , ...)
fill in the blanks
well it should be k(0, mu_2) but the idea is to show that
k(0, mu_2) = (0, (km)u_2)
so if you treat (0, mu_2) as its own vector (which it is), say z, then you have
k(0, mu_2) = kz then you can apply the same rule again
i don't get your point here
well a vector is defined as u = (u_1, u_2) for example
similarly, (0, mu_2) is a vector
so if we say z = (0, mu_2)
then we have k(0, mu_2) = kz
yeah
isn't that right?
yess!
so this says that kz = (0, kz_2)
and z_2 = mu_2 in here
so kz = (0, kz_2) = (0, kmu_2)
im sorry if this is still unclear π
it isπ₯²
hmm
yeah sorry idk how to explain that better then. I feel like it's the type of thing where you just need to like think about it for a few minutes until it clicks
lets move on
i get what you're saying lol
ok
part e asks me to prove axiom 10 does not hold
okayyy
so the thing is
1 is a scalar
what did i say earlier about the form of a scalar multiplied by a vector
this again
yes
so 1u = (0, u_2)
but we are saying its equal to u
what is u?
and it is not equal to u
yesss good job :D
u is (u1 + u2)
(u1, u_2) but i think u typo'd that haha
no worries lily
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π
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yea gl with that one
I am trying to understand how this author derives that there is zero electric field inside a hollow shell at any point P inside the shell. One of the claims he makes is that since the cones (in the image above) have the same opening angle, the infinitesimally small areas that they intersect the spheres at have the same number of electric field lines going through them if the point P has a unit test charge isotropically emittting a field.
I don't believe the claim because even though the cones may have the same opening angle the areas dS2 and dS1 don't cover the same area (one could be larger than the other). Thus, isn't it possible they don't have the same field lines going through the area? Can someone prove his claim?
i wouldnt worry about the size of dS2 and dS1, honestly i dont even find this visualization to be that helpful
its also been a while since ive worked with physics so i might be rusty here and not provide satisfactory explanations but
the way i see it is, if you focus on the point P itself, first do you believe that the point P generates field lines in a uniformly distributed way? i.e. all field lines are equally distant apart from any other field line
then as you expand out, the angle theta of the cone is all that really matters, because the when you hit the shell with different dS1 dS2 sizes, the number of field lines dont change because the density of the field lines will be inversely correlated with the area of the dS
maybe a more intuitive example would be heat: we know that if we move our hand away from a fire the heat drops off at a inverse squared rate: 1/x^2
and the reason is because the fire generates some fixed amount of heat that is spread evenly across the surface area of a sphere (4 pi r^2) and as you get further from the fire the surface area increases at a rate of r^2, so the fixed heat must also distribute itself thinner and thinner at a rate of 1/r^2
same logical reasoning is happening here
the claim this author is trying to make is that if you integrate over all directions from point P to the shell, the forces will cancel to 0. this point is very close to the left side of the shell and the E field will be larger because the electron forces are higher due to proximity, but this is balanced out by the fact that the right side of the shell has weaker forces, but just a lot more charges (due to area) to pull with
Actually he is trying to prove the other view; "Instead of showing that (the charges on) the caps exert equal and opposite
forces on a unit test charge at P, we will show the unit test charge exerts
equal and opposite forces on the (charges on) the two caps."
oh ok, those are basically the same thing but sure
Since the density of field lines is correlated with the area of dS doesn't that mean that one of the areas will cover more field lines?
if i told you that area was A, and the density of field lines was K/A, wouldn't you agree that no matter what the area A was, the amount of field lines for any area would just be K?
Oooh right, because (K/A * A) would be irrespective of the area.
π
maybe now the question to ask is, why is the density K/A?
or is that part intuitive
That would fall from the fact that from a test charge the lines are isotropic and uniform?
thats part of it, yes
personally i think its easier to think about it like, if i wrapped a shell around a unit charge at radius 1, and then another at radius 2
the field lines coming out of the unit charge is the same going through shell 1 as it is going through shell 2
and there are no other field lines because we are not considering any other charges in this problem
so the density of field lines for shell 2 has to be less than the density for shell 1 since shell 2 has 4x more area but the same amount of field lines going through
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Consider a homogeneous system of m linear equations in R^3. For p, q as real numbers, determine which of the following are possible solution spaces.
For each case, specify the values of m that make it possible. If it is not possible, state "none." If it is possible, provide an equation (e.g., m=2) or inequality (e.g., mβ₯10).
The solution space is given by:
x = p [18 12 24] + [12 8 16]
i have no idea how to do this π¦
all i notice is [12 8 16] is constant multiple of [18 12 24]
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I can't understand how this was solved
I've spent at least 30 minutes on this
which line first do you get lost
the 2nd picture
which line exactly
first
like why and where did he get the 1/y^3 from what is he doing there
then how did he change from the u integral to the -1/2 where the arrow is pointing
and in the first picture why is he saying that F(y) = integrat f)y) dy, that's so random
yes
we divided the integral into two
solved them separately
and added them together
mhm
that's just u substitution
In this section we will start using one of the more common and useful integration techniques β The Substitution Rule. With the substitution rule we will be able integrate a wider variety of functions. The integrals in this section will all require some manipulation of the function prior to integrating unlike most of the integrals from the prev...
what about this
power rule for integrals.
I think the way this was solved is incorrect.
The derivative of tan^3(x) is tan^2(x) sec^2(x) so there is no u-substitution.
we cant use sec^2 though cause havent learned it
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tg = tan
ah
well the thing is
they have not teached us about the cos^2 = sec^2
how is that?
I would like to learn
1/cos^2 = sec^2
i mean maybe you just learn the derivative of tan is 1/cos^2
doesnβt matter
same thing
just a notational difference
thank yah buddy
no
I didn't learn that
=(
btw
@misty crest
U = cos
whet
nope
not in this exercise
I'm talking in general
suppose I pick Cos as my u
and I express tan as sin/cos
would that become sin/u?
even if I used a different cos?
a different cos?
it would be sinx/u and in some instances the sinx might cancel
u = tan
@hexed berry Has your question been resolved?
yeah
$\int \frac{-1}{u^3} du$
knief
is it wront
and probably was the intention
teach me that tangent method
u = tanx -> du = 1/cos^2(x) dx -> dx = cos^2(x) du
$\int \frac{u}{\cos^2 x} \cdot \cos^2 x , du$
knief
knief
$\frac{1}{2} u^2 + c = \frac{1}{2} \tan^2 x + c$
knief
you should have the derivative of the basic trig functions memorized
derivative of tan is 1/cos^2
I do, I do
cos is -sin
sin is cos
tan is sec^2
I don't know the other ones
xD
You reminded me that I need to remember these stuffβ¦.
yep
there is
Is there any tips?
sec and csc are very similar
yeah
likewise tan cot are very similar
but like
does that mean I gotta do the products rule?
ah wait wait
there's a pattern fuck
wdym
sec is sectan
$\frac{d}{dx} \sec x = \sec x \cdot \tan x$
knief
sec' * tan + sec * tan'?
we arenβt taking the second derivatives
I know
iβve listed the first derivatives
but what if we gotta do that
Would it be helpful if we turned like csc into 1/sine and then derive it?
thatβs how you derive it yes
Ok
but itβs useful to keep them in this form when memorizing
Yea
I'm gonna be
thank you sir
best of luck sir
knief
what physics book are you reading rn
xD
Okay so
I did found a patern
sec and csc
they both multiply themselves with tan
and the second one with cotan
and cotan is just -csc^2
I think that's easy to memorize
I apologise if I am
yo what town hall are you rn
Take a guess
17?
Nah
15?
Yup
π₯π₯
Halfway maxed
nice
U?
are we talking about CoC
17
yep
Yup
Maxed?!
Nope
nah iβm not maxed
Knief do you play cr
i was like halfway done with th16
nope
that game is terrible
I know
used to play
ptw crap
but theyβre so greedy
What th?
You an active player?
I can be. <.<
Do you mind a quiet clan ?
my clans full
weβre also masters 2 in cwl
Sure.
I can add you if u want
Expected from the math genius.
nah im that not great at clash
Missed global chat
wait
2013-2014 ish
how old are you
global chat was elite
18
17
oh
If I was 24 or 32 I wouldn't be in this app xD
you just keep going older
there are some 40 year olds on this server
I have 2 in mine that are round that age
Thatβs my assumption anyways
What are your tips on vectors in further mathematics ?
Point product?
and cross product
watch 3b1b linear algebra
I don't know how it's called in english
Iβm not in uni yet
Letβs hear it in your lang
but that thingy of x1x2 + y1y2
donβt need to be
what math are you in
or what math do you know rather
Final year sixth form ( high school final year)
i recommend watching dr trefor on youtube as well, he has some good videos on vectors
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lim x->infinity of 8-x^3)/x^4)-4x^2
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locate absolute extrema on the closed interval:
f(x)= 2(3-x), [-1,2]
f'(x)=-2
f(-1)=8
f(2)=2
max = (-1,8)
min = (2,2)
i did this right (probably) but why do we have to find the critical numbers?
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<@&286206848099549185>
@frank crag Has your question been resolved?
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Can someone explain to me how i find the limit D here, Ive tried sketching the region and its just not sticking
Am I just fundamentally misunderstanding?
ohhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh
Yeah we werent big on polar coordinates in high school
ok so i just need to in a way remember the points on a unit circle for the major angles
Ok ty ty
.close
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β
rq tho @sudden grail
does it like
not matter if its a multiple or like?
oh wait
does it have something to do with the radius being 3
wait y= r sintheta
so thats why it is how it is but theta would still be 45 degrees?
its like ive had an epiphany thank you good sir
.close
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Would I just need to bring up the 5x^2 to the top ad make it 5x^-2?
exactly, do not use the quotient rule
be careful though, you are multiplying each term in the numerator by $\frac{x^{-2}}{5}$
southlander!
no, you are still dividing by 5
but when you are dividing by x^2, that's the same as multiplying by x^(-2)
okay thank you so much
Would this be correct then?
nearly
don't bring the 3/2 inside the bracket
$-\frac{3}{2} \frac{3}{5} \cdot x^{-5/2}$
okay so just leave it at -3/2 on the otuside?
southlander!
yes and then that fraction is just -9/10
on the outside
ohhhhh
you do realise that say, $(2x)^2 = 4x^2$
southlander!
which is not the same as 2x^2
yes so hopefully you realise how that is relevant to what you wrote now
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Hey guys quick question when multiplying a power in a complex number, without using Euler notation but rather mod arg form if itβs cis(pi/2)^4 would it be 4cis(4pi/2) or just cis(4pi/2), and would this change if there was a constant at the front
Iβd assume not since itβs not affected by the bracket but I wanted to double check
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(cosx-4)(cscx+1) = 0 is the factor right?
shouldn't it be (2csc+1)(csc-2)
have I forgotten how to factor
probably
Show your work
i'll do it with this
Sure
so you can find a factor by just finding two numbers that multiply to 2 and add up to 3
so (secx+2)(secx+1)
my original thought process was
two numbers that multiplied to 2 and that add up to 3
That is correct, ig you just made a mistake during the calculation
answers to solutions are 2pi/3, 4pi/3, pi?
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So i just started learning statistics and i would love some explanation on how to analyze these questions. Preferably, helping me with some steps
@warped wave Has your question been resolved?
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Let the time ken spent be denoted by K, and the time gigi spent denoted by G. These are random variables. Then the total time is T = K + G.
The expected value of T, I'll denote <T> = <K+G>, but the expectation value is linear, so <T> = <K> + <G>
Where <K> and <G> are just the means of their respective distributions
Finally Var(T) is given by the variance of a sum formula, i.e. Var(T) = Var(G) + Var(K) + 2Cov(G, K)
Where Var(G) and Var(K) are the squares of their standard deviations and the covariance is 0 since the times gigi and ken spend are independent of each other
For the second part you need to perform an integral, I'm a bit rusty on my stats so I'm not sure if there's a recommended way to tackle that one
@warped wave is that helpful?
Ah it seems that for the second part you should assume T is approximately normally distributed, then use the expectation value as the mean and Var(T) as the square of its standard deviation, then proceed as usual
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I need help with formaziling my answer
So i have to find f-1(B) which means original for B elements
So i wrote f^-1(B) = {(m,3)|m=<3)} U {(1,11), (11, 1)} U {m, 11 | m<0}
is it correct to write so?
Do you mean $f^{-1}(B)$ ? surely the domain of $f^{-1} $ is incompatible with B
Max
Whys that
The original functions range is the inverses domain, B would not be in that range
But yea i mean finding originals for B, so thats what im finding yes
Oh is it because B is in N^2
And i can find F(B) but not F^-1(B)?
he is trying to get the preimage of B
Oh yeah preimage, its just in estonian we call it originals
But uhm is it correct way to formalize preimage like this?
So i wrote f^-1(B) = {(m,3)|m=<3)} U {(1,11), (11, 1)} U {m, 11 | m<0}
got the answer.
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What am I doing wrong?
you just went back on your feet
Yep π and it's all 0=0
what's the point of differentiating u, integrating v' if you're going to integrate u' and differentiate v afterwards?
when you do IBP, if you have to go backwards it means you didn't need the IBP
Yeah true
in this case you do need the IBP
Yeah it makes sense now
so no going backwards
Yes
Partial fractions ?
so you'll be integrating constant + constant/(1+4x^2)
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AM i correct?
how are you getting the second last line?
what is this
I put everything in n^2 because n(n)=n^2
also, actually why are you doing in the third line
why did you insert that in
i don't understand the meaning of the arrow
or where that is coming from
It is just a reminder
,rotate
i still don't udnerstand'
wheres the x coming from
what's the blue part? and where's the red part coming from?
@stable cloak
Bro
alr lemme see
i cant really understand what you have done but i can find the range of values of m if you want
m should be >= ( -16/3)
if i'm not mistaken you seem to be doing something like:\
going from
$$\frac{2m^2}{3m+16} + 1 \geq 1$$
to
$$\frac{2m^2}{3m+16} - 1 \geq -1$$
then combine the left side into a single fraction and then also convert that $\geq$ to an $=$ sign
βΞ±ΞΌOmeganato5
I need to go but can i DM you later about that?
@stable cloak
sure
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no equality
oh yea my bad
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For part(a), wouldn't the answer be yes? Since in either case Y is still just a standard normal distribution?
I.e. $P(Y\le y\cap X=i)=P(Y\le y)P(X=i)$
somethingwrong
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Why ln(A-b) β Ln(a)/ln(b)
a = 3 and b = 2
why should that be true?
ln(3) = 0 ?
raising e to each side gives different results
@hexed berry Has your question been resolved?
Okay so
I cannot do that, methinks?
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heya
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set t = x-8. then (n+1) |t| is always positive except for what values of t?
typo. fixed
8
one will be infinity, but the other will not be infinity
but arent both being multiplyed so anyting multiplied by infinity is infinity
anyting multiplied by infinity is infinity
that's wrong
plug this in for x and then take the limit
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need help solving this 1ΒΊ order diferentian equation in homogeneous
i am having trouble putting the new variabled in
i am tired of trying to understand homogeneous
I got here
@vocal narwhal hi
hi
What do you have to compute?
compute?
Ok, do you have to start here?
yeah
Or have you already done something?
i did
Can you show
up there is my photo of what i did on tablet
.
It doesn't read very well
then lets start over
because i did all the info the slides show that is to replace (y/u) with U
Ok
and that y= u*x
and yΒ΄= uΒ΄*x +u
and then i am having trouble placing it and simplify it
Hi
@vocal narwhal ah ok
but isn't it enough that you bring dy to the right and integrate?
hi sombody save me XD im cooked my exam is tomorrow
suposedbly DY is replaced with yΒ΄= uΒ΄*x +u right?
Wolfram alpha
,w x^2y dx - (x^3+y^3)dy = 0
its calculater?
w??
It's to start wolfram from here
Wronkian I think
No wait but I don't know if I made the right command
What do the slides say?
Can I see?
@vocal narwhal can we do the exercise ?
mohammed
Right ?
mohammed
its both dx? isnt one du?
Where ?
on dy
You mean here?
Do you have an example where the mohammed substitution is used?
Why did you say yes?
didnt notice first
How does du come out if we wrote dy = u'x dx + u dx
Look here
yeah?
No
@vocal narwhal If you do the same things as in the example but in this exercise, where do you get stuck?
i was trying to understand where dy goes in the equation
What was the original question?
thiss
I mean by example
mohammed
mohammed
After a little algebra
mohammed
Guys hello?
Is it clear?
?
Can you take It from here ?
yes thank you
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@digital zephyr Has your question been resolved?
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What happens to the y-intecept of a line y=-1/3x+4 when rotated 90 degrees about its bottom right vertex?
I only learned what happens to it's slope
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Iβm watching a YouTube video where the questions are all trick questions and the trick for this one is that itβs impossible and there is no solution but canβt you take the decimal result of them added to together and then convert it to a logarithm that is equal to the same thing
Technically you can write it as a log in any base
Let's say log_a(x)=log_5(4)+log25
Then x=a^(log_5(4)+log25)
So it can be written as log_a(a^(log_5(4)+log25))
So Iβm right and the video is wrong lol
Yes
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$\text{How can I show:}\lim_{x\to\infty}\left(x-\sqrt{x^2-1}\right)=0$
Axe
multiply and divide by the conjugate
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lets say i throw an object away and it makes a parabolic curve down, it explodes midway. are the pieces of the debris follow the parabolic curve?
assume that the explosion is not tooooo big
the same parabolic curve?
yeahhhhhhh
somewhat
i feel like if the explosion doesnt have a huge force it will still somewhat follow the curve
not exactly
ofc
I mean, each piece will go on its own trajectory after the explosion
if the explosion is small, then the change in momentum for any given piece is tiny
so the path it follows will still be roughly the original
but that's only because the explosion was small
thats all i wanted to confirm
okie dokie
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help plz
for this question my teacher was writing possible equations for the same graph and for the 4th one, can u do the exact same thing but instead do horizontal reflection instead of vertical? Thas my question



