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fimd all primes p such that $x^4+4=py^4$ have positive integers solution (x,y)
Skill_Issue
by sophie germain (ty south)
$$(x^2+2x+2)(x^2-2x+2)=py^4$$
Skill_Issue
idk what next
GCD of the factors
I think you can say by south 
hmm if say 5|y then x^4=1 mod 5 which means either x^4=1 mod 5, or x^4=2 mod 5 or x^4=3 mod 5 ir x^4=4 mod 5...
if x^4+4=5y^4 then the (1,1)
what
i should say 5=p or 5|y
i couldnt get anything from 5|y tho :(
idk either, still figuring it out
maybe x^4+4 != 0 mod 25
therre is also a 5|x case
this is messy
if it matters at all even in the slightest bit theme is diophantine equation
find the GCD of the factors
howw
you should find that their gcd is 1
euclidean
and then you can finish the problem from that
think of x as just a normal number
i thought euclid is geometry whar
euflidean algo
well ok first observation is to notice that x is odd right? cus if x even then you can look mod 8 to get a contradiction
i dismissed it too early
yea
so we want to find gcd(x^2+2x+2, x^2-2x+2)
r u familiar with how to find the gcd of normal numbers?
find the factors
like if i gave u gcd(137, 752)
ah right k
so that's one way to do it but it doesn't work that nicely in our setting here
the first observation tho is that notice that
gcd(a, b) = gcd(a-b, b)
cus if i told you d divides a and b
clearly d divides a-b and b
makes sense
that's in essense the Euclidean algorithm
what if a-b is negative
we'll ignore the case a-b is negative for now
ok
but like here i could just subtract 137 from 752 etc.
anyway so you use that principle to work this out
remember here x is just a number
so subtract one from the other to get
gcd(4x, x^2 - 2x + 2)
now notice x^2 - 2x + 2 is odd, so 4 and x^2 - 2x + 2 clearly share no common factors
so = gcd(x, x^2 - 2x + 2) = gcd(x, 2) = 1
so our brackets are coprime
this is like a very common trick for olympiad qs like these
anyway i am like very tired now and i need to go to bed, hf & gl with ur problem!
wait why is gcd(x,2)=1
what if x is even
also gn!
Even will be =2
^
oh
hm
if the gcd of the brackets is 1 then one of the brackets is divisible by p and divisible by a^4 and the other is divisibly by b^4 where a coprime b
honestly thats the only tjing i could think of to make use the gcd thing
you can then bound a factor between two squares
whcih means that it cant be a power of 4
what do you mean?
a little sucky but i think p=5 is the only one (i checked b^4 from b=1 to b=15)
a thing thats really really sus is that the roots of x are really really close to an integwr
like .998 close
(x+1)^2+1=b^4
(x+1)^2=b^4-1
n^4=m^4-1 doesent have a solution right?
there is no ^4 that is 1 apart where its greater than 0
so (x+1)^2 must be p
(x-1)^2+1=b^4
(x-1)^2=b^4-1
the same, so (x-1)^2 must be 0, so x=1
(x-1)^2 can be 0 which is a sol
ok im p sure this is it
gtg byee
.close ty all
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im on the last step on this induction proof, but i dont know how to continue from here, help please
${\sum_{k=1}^{n+1} \frac{1}{k(k+1)} = \sum_{k=1}^{n} \frac{1}{k(k+1)} + \frac{1}{(n+1)(n+2)} = \frac{n}{n+1} + \frac{1}{(n+1)(n+2)}}$
k
k
okay, but can you explain how you get this part
so you just change K to n + 1?
yes
and then you use the assumption and try to simplify it?
so you always plug the n + 1 into whatever variable you have into the Induction conclusion?
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windows shift s lets you snip things, it might make it easier to read js
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do you know the chain rule?
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so if H(x) = F(G(x))
whats H'(x)?
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no
lol
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no
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have you seen this before?
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you don't understand what it means?
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naw
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if you have the derivative of f(x) = f'(x)
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and then you put g(x) inside of f'(x)
like g(x) is your new input into f'(x)
so then you have f'( g(x) )
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so if H(x) = F(G(x))
then H'(x) = F' (G(x)) * G'(x)
you put G(x) as the input of your derivative function F' and then multiply by the derivative of G which is G'
is this making sense or... lol
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yea naw its fine LOL
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can i give you an example with actual defined functions so you can maybe see whats going on ๐
if you have the formula written out It's just about plugginf the numbers
yea
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heres the formula
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ok lets use that
you know F(G(x))
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means that you plug G(x) into F(x) right?
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alright
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ok
and
F'(G(x)) * G'(x)
means you plug G(x) into F'(x), and then multiply by G'(x)
this make sense?
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its composite functions
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plugging functions into other functions
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now instead of plugging G(x) into the function F(x), you plug G(x) into the function F'(x)
F'(x) is the derivative function of the function F(x)
how many times can you say function in one sentence
me:

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i'm trying to make sure you know what the chain rule means ๐ญ
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because if you know that then the problem is literally just plugging
what is it?
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like could you differentiate (2x+1)^2 ?
what kind of problem
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well you have to multiply by another 2
due to the chain rule
like if
f(x) = x^2
g(x) = 2x+1
f(g(x)) = (2x+1)^2
right?
and then
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take the derivative of
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i mean this is almost correct
it just missed the...chain rule part
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well you need to multiply by 2 due to the exponent
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and then you also have to multiply by the derivative of the inside function (2x+1)
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are you polish by any chance?
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but then multiply by the derivative of the inside
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ah nvm
you will end up getting 4 on the outside yeah
it's because of the polish cow
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ok
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It's probably harder for you to understand it in a second language depending on your skill level in english
a classic
maybe it will be easier to understand like this
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ah u got now?
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the f represents a function which isnt specified here
but yeah basically thats what it is
just like f'(x) is the derivative of f(x)
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okie dokie
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so what would be the derivative of f(2x+2) ?
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2 * f'(2x+2)
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you have to do it like this since the function in f is an input
no exponents but you first differantiate the outer layer so f in this case and then multiply it by the derivative of the inside function
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it was hard for me to understand it intuitvelyehfe (I cant spell) too
there is a proof of this but probably too complicated for you now
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the general formula is g'(x) * f'(g(x))
look at the formula I written
and now just plug in the values from the ones listed aove
above
and thats it
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can you show your process?
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ok so you now have g'(3) * f'(4)
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it's f'(4) because the input to this function was the value of g(3) which is 4
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what do you mean by this?
I mean yea it switches thats the whole point since the inoput was another function that for x=3 was equal to 4
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yeah it sounds a little confusing but it's just following the rules written out there
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we have the formula already: g'(x) * f'( g(x) ) and after plugging x=3 we got g'(3) * f'( g(3) )
rn I am doing calc 2 and linear algebra but it's more of self study
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ok
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so from this we get g'(3) * f'(4) since g(3) = 4 and then we have 4 * 3 since g'(3) = 4 and f'(4) = 3
thats right!
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np
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nope
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I am doing last year of Polish counterpart of high school online
the Polish education system sucks
it's absolutely terrible
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well they dont teach anything except mindlesly following the rules and using formulas
without any derivations or proofs
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and thropugh all 4 years of high school there is never mention of derivatives
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so there is a class with extended math and physics
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and there you actually do get to the derivatives but only at the very end
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bruh
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yea so in Poland you have to factorize polynomials with 234802terms and if you get one sign wrong you fail lmao
not regularly
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sure
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are you familiar with the quotient rule?
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do you know its formula?
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you can find H'(x) by differentiating F(x)/G(x) right?
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yeah
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oh alr ๐
Yo
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e ok
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This is your error
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No probs happens
When you are in a haste
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Oh
I came
Wait wait
@halcyon hound
derivative of inverse of a function is 1/derivative of a function
๐
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first find the inverse function
@halcyon hound Has your question been resolved?
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MIT grad shows how to find the inverse function of any function, if it exists. The inverse function is the reverse of your original function. It undoes whatever your function did. If your function takes x and gives you y, then the inverse function takes that y and gives you back x. Nancy formerly of MathBFF explains the steps.
Follow Nancy on I...
@halcyon hound Has your question been resolved?
Hi
If g(x) is the inverse of f(x), then gโ(a) = 1/[fโ(g(a)]
Uh but for the general derivarive
You need to find the inverse function then differently it normally
^ this should help teach you how to find the inverse of a function, then you can differentiate it and it should be good
I think that should help, lmk if it doesnโt
@halcyon hound
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how do we do this question?
x= [x] + {x}
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a, b, c in R so that a+b+c =1
Prove that at least one of a+bc, b+ac, c+ab is positive or equal to 0
I tried proving by contradixtion and I have to contradict ab + bc + ac <-1
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<@&286206848099549185>
Do you have a question, or are you trying to prove something?
Prove
.
But idk what now...
Is that a 1, or a minus 1?
It matters, because of the sign in-front of it. If it is a minus one, then the sign would be <, so as to - it is a sign that is "smaller than", or if it is a 1, then you are trying to prove that "follows" , and then 1 - as to the contradiction.
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@glacial ether Has your question been resolved?
you cant just post two big screenshots of a non english exercise and expect to get help
translate the exercise and say where you are stuck
you should at least try to translate it.
non germans can help with a partial translation
.close
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no
domain is what x-values you can put into the function so it gives a meaningful output
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is [0, 1) homeomorphic to (0, 1)?
if not why?
i tried proving it by disputing bijectivity
since [0,1) = 0 U (0,1)
but N is bijective to N+1 as N--->inf
is bijectivity equivalent to homeomorphic?
I think here there is not much to conclude from bijectivity
no but its an aspect no?
both are in bijection with R
if its not bijective then its not homeomorphic?
yes, but here it is bijective
so not much to say unfortunately
but its also clearly continuous and the inverse would be continuous too?
so is it homeomorphic?
I'm sorry for interrupting, what grade math is this?
say there is indeed a homeomorphism
undergrade in my case
so call f a potential homeomorphism from [0,1) to (0,1)
in particular it's bijective and continuous
is there a known result about injective continuous functions of real numbers?
about its variations...
see the hint was "Hint: consider what happens if you remove a point"
we could go over the way this hint wants us to solve the question a bit later
right now I'm asking about this
then it is strictly monotone
yes
in particular
for x in (0,1)
either f(x) is always above f(0)
or f(x) is always below f(0)
so... does every y in (0,1) have an inverse by f?
but why
bc f(x) can never be 0
well yeah, f(x) is in (0,1) by definition isn't it
but why does this imply not every y in (0,1) has an inverse by f?
wait is f(x) mapping from [0,1) to (0,1) or the other way round
it's the correct way as you wrote it
wait yeah okay so u cant inverse every y because itll have to map to f(0)
wdym it'll have to map to f(0)
itll have to map to x=0
f^-1(y) = 0
also arent you disproving injectivity which in turn disproves bijectivity
am i wrong ? @sand dove ?
up until now I have no idea why f wouldn't be injective
we even said it was either increasing all the way or decreasing all the way
no, we're trying to prove there won't be surjectivity
remember
ah right
f(0) is located somewhere on (0,1)
and then either all images are above it
or all images are below it
if all images are above, what about the y below f(0)?
and vice versa
the way they wanted it is:
if f:[0,1) -> (0,1) is homeomorphism, then f:(0,1) -> (0,f(0)) U (f(0),1) also a homeomorphism
assume it is homoeomorphic and then remove an element (0) and f(0) and if they were homoeomorphic then they would keep the same connectivity
so such an f doesn't exist
do you show that R2 is not homeomorphic to R the same way then ?
not really
I like to do it with disproving injectivity
suppose f:R^2 -> R homeomorphism
yeah
what can you say about g(t) = f(t,0)?
and then what can you say about h(t) = f(0,t)
I think you can figure out the rest
but basically multiple inputs get mapped to a same output close enough to f(0)
there are ways of mapping R2 onto R1 tho
not homeomorphically
keep in mind R^2 and R are in bijection
there is a bijection out there
it's just never gonna be continuous with a continuous reciprocal
ie (1.1221,0.2324) to (10.12232214)
ah ig there are ways of that repeating
like if u swapped the x and y and moved up a placeholder
i think it's not surjective
though it's injective
not surjective as
what is the inverse of 0.797979797979... for example
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hi im making a game, and im trying to make an acceleration formula
its going to be complex, with weight affecting it, drag, max speed etc
im looking for a graph to recreate these results but im getting lost
currently messing around with a general logarithmic function but it does not reproduce the results like here
weight will affect the initial slope (0 weight should more or less go diagonally up, adding weight should add like a bend to it delaying the initial speed)
and also make the acceleration a bit slower
acceleration stat should also control general steepness
max speed should be asymptote
and drag i imagine would just be a coefficient
but again i rlly dont know what style of graph to use
cant even find one that starts at 0,0
basically i just need to know what types of functions i can use that can replicate this that start at 0,0
ive tried many
you could consider something like $a(1-e^{-t/b})$ for various values of $a$,$b$
cloud
a would control the asymptote, b would control how long it takes to get close to the asymptote
i get this
its sort of right but with the graph above u can change parameters to get a sort of s shape ?
dont know if i can do that with this
got thsi after playing around
but i need one more paramter
weight
that affects the intiial curve
@foggy mist Has your question been resolved?
@foggy mist Has your question been resolved?
maybe tweaking the CDF of a beta distribution would work. The PDF would represent acceleration in function of time and when integrated you would get the PDF/ speed w.r. to time.
more generally you could specify the shape of the acceleration A(t) you want then integrate this function to get your speed
this looks promising i will take a look
how exactly would i define formulae for this?
it mentions a B(a,b) term which confuses me
itโs a constant to make the area under the curve 1.
whatโs annoying with the beta is that itโs tricky to get the top speed you want
with a constant a in front itโs not too bad
this formula is tricky yeah
some values make the integration line dip blow 0 after peaking
actually
the negavtive values
look food
good
i wonder if i can get a formula that always adjusts values to get to a specific top seed
otherwise ive come up with this
v should get you to the top speed you want and itโs not too complicated go with that imo
yeah may end up using this, thank you though
yeah i was going a bit crazy with specifying the shape of the acceleration then integrating and itโs probably too complicated for what you need
yeah its a neat idea though ๐ญ
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how does this work
@blazing crest you can prove that if it is convergent then its limit is given by t_inf = sqrt(t_inf + 1), and you can also prove that if you have a perturbation from this value, let's call it delta, that the perturbation gets either larger or smaller. If you can show that this purturbation gets smaller in a particular region, and this region includes your seed value, then you've proven convergence of the sequence.
no idea man
how do i prove its convergent
You do it by showing that one of the stationary values is attractive over a small region, and this region includes the seed value.
An alternative way if useful is to show that this sequence is increasing (from what it seems atleast) and that itโs bounded above
@blazing crest Has your question been resolved?
these words make a little more sense to me
how would that work?
Probably by induction, but I can give you a sketch of a proof that shows its atleast increasing without induction.
- if t is a positive root of t^2=t+1 and t_n<t then t_(n+1)<t (do this by squaring t_(n+1)). So it is an upper bounded sequence.
- t_(n+1)-t_n>0 just from definition of t_n. So it is increasing. So, it has a limit t=(sqrt(5)+1)/2 from the equation t=sqrt(t+1).
found a lower bound for t_n and then use cauchy sequences
how did u come with t^2 = t+1
sure
it's the required limit from equation t=sqrt(t+1). Just squared it
The increasing part isnโt trivial it highly depends on the base case, so I think expanding on why 2) follows is good
Lmao no
Oh and u deleted since u saw ur mistake lol
do you calcute the limit with t^2 = t + 1
and so that is the bound
Oh, yes. I saw mistake. But it is easy from 1)
yes
How will i know that that limit is the upper or lower bound
Sure it converges to some limit but how am i gonna tell which
well it is encreasing
and it is positive
and it has a limit
and t_(n+1) and t_n have the same limit
Also yeah how did we decide to take t_n+1 - tn > 0
Why did we decide to work this out
And not lets say tn - t_n+1 > 0 if it were to be decreasing
it is just the definition of increasing sequence: t_(n+1)-t_n>0
Yeah but we dont know wether its increasing or decreasing beforehand right?
The whole reason of showing the sequence is increasing and bounded above is that it shows the sequence converges and more precisely converges to its least upper bound.
So if we can find the least upper bound of the sequence then weโre done. It just so happens that QD2718 picked his upper bound as the least upper bound.
well, just graph approximately sqrt(1+x) and x
Thatโs part of the problem with this approach, but itโs also a lot easier once you seem to have figured this out
here is the proof it is increasing
You donโt go blind when doing these, you use your intuition first to get a feel for how it behaves
Then make a claim
Cant we say the whole reason of showing the sequence is decreasing and bounded below is that it shows the sequence converges and more precisely converges to its biggest lower bound
Base case is needed
any recurrence of type t_(n+1)=f(t_n) is easily learned by graph of f(x) and x. And just walking a couple of iterations on it.
??
sure we remember t1
Still, itโs probably not obvious to them that itโs subtle
๐ญ
Is this supposed to be directed to me or them?
to you
I learned what I need to prove from this
sqrt(1+x) and x
im not allowed a graphic
Uh why? I was not objecting to graphing, I was actually praising it; the reply you sent to mine was not towards you lmao
you dont need it for proof. It is for yourself to understand what to prove
ah okay
the same logic you guys were talking would not apply to this right?
it says it is convergent
so an goes to L as n goes to infinity right
L = (1 + sqrt5)/2
L = (1 - sqrt5)/2
we take this one because the second isnt in the interval (0, inf)
it would
am i done with the question?
surely not
determine for every a in the interval
induction?
And it looks like any alpha>0 gives the convergence and the limit is that (1+sqrt(5))/2.
For any alpha<t the next step gets you into [t,+inf]
and the next step gets into [1;t]
uh this is where i get lost
sorry. too late. I correct too much ๐
the answers from 2.13 use the contraction theoreom @random helm
kinda strange. So does alpha<2.13 give divergence?
oh, I see. Yes you can use it too
but as you see it can be solved without it
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how would I solve
Do you know what C and D represent
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If a uniformly bounded sequence of real values Lebesgue measurable functions has Lebesgue integral converging to zero on a bounded interval, how can you extend this convergence to a disjoint union of bounded open intervals?
This is one piece of a much larger question.
My confusion is on this part in particular and how you can extend from a particular bounded interval to many?
I can post the original question if that helps, or I can clarify any strange looking details.
<@&286206848099549185>
@clever spruce Has your question been resolved?
try #real-complex-analysis and/or #advanced-analysis
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iโm so confused on how iโm wrong
the shape is being rotated 90ยฐ counterclockwise. Your answer flips the shape over the x-axis
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show sum k!/k^k converges without using the ratio test
it can be an explanation and not sth rigorous
so i started with simplifying the expression to sum sqrt(2pi k)/e^k using stirlings approx
then hmmmmmmm
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can i get help doing this question
is this a test?
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I missed a day in class, any chance I could get someone to walk me through this?
tis
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newton's second law says that (net force) = ma
this is mostly good, but newton's second law applies to the 'net force' (i.e. sum of forces)
so we just need to add the other force acting on your objects
there are methods that people can use, where if you write down the differential equation which relates the derivative of a function to the function itself, you can actually solve for the function
and even if you can't explicitly solve the function there are ways of getting numerical answers and otherwise analyzing the behavior of differential equations
we still only are accounting for one of the forces acting on our object.. are there any others that could apply to an object which is falling?
yes
as long as it has the opposite sign as the drag force
if you want to
well you don't need to solve for v in part 9
for part 10, you make the assumption that v is constant, which simplifies things
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Can someone help clarify an inequality rule for me and assist with a mathematical induction problem?
The full problem: Prove via mathematical induction that 10n < 3^n for all n>=4
The problem: Proving via induction 10(k+1) < 3^(k+1)
The steps I have taken:
I am going to show lefthand side [ 10(k+1) ] is less than the right hand side [ 3^(k+1) ]
- 10k + 10 (Distributed)
- < 3^k + 10 (Because P(k) is true, I get to replace 10k with 3^k)
This is where I am stumped. What do I do to the 10?
What inequality rule do I use to change it? and how does the rule work?
hint: 3^(k+1)=3^k+3^k+3^k
What would I do to the 10 to get there...?
can you compare 10 and 3^k ?
I am unsure.
3^k, depending on how big K is.
Ok cool!
So if k is at least 4, then the bigger number between the two is 3^4. Or just 81.
so 10<81<=3^k
What inequality rule is this?
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Can some one help me check this? I'm not sure mine was correct. And if I'm wrong can you provide me the solution/formula to the question
@compact thicket Has your question been resolved?
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Guys a little help? <@&286206848099549185>
14 seems good
though the proof of surjectivity needs more explanation as to what you want to prove and why what you wrote down proves it
@compact thicket Has your question been resolved?
Oo ok i will work that later
For number 13? Did my formula was right?
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ok so im stuck at 2 + cos(3x) part
the e^-x just becomes 0 so im not too bothered about that
ok
not really sure
ok im confused
what happens to cos(x) when you 'drag' x from 0 to 2pi
just in your mind
think about the graph
of cos(x)
and then think of a point on that graph
that starts out at x = 0
and goes along the graph
to the point where x = 2pi
yes ok
right so cos(x) when you do that goes from 1 to -1 and back to 1
why 2pi specifically tho
yeah
it is arbitrary apart from the fact that it's exactly 1 period for cos(x)
ok sure
but my point was that at some point you return at the same location vertically
yeah
yeah
mhm
not really
ohhhh
$\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \cos(x)$ DNE
oh
and what does cos(3x) mean?
that works ig
compared to cos
Katharine
it will narrow the curves
it will make the period shorter
that too
which is what you mean i think
the curves being narrow is because the period is shorter
yeah
does that change anything about the limit?
i dont think so
and to the limit?
nothing
right
and so now you have a sum of 0 and does not exist
does that mean the limit converges to some value?
not sure
the answer is no
we say the limit diverges if it swings between 2 or more different values
or if it blows up
as in goes to infinity
and you cannot sum divergent limits
unless you have limits where one limit is positive and the other negative
in which case you need to be a little bit more careful
but in this case you have a limit that converges to 0
and a limit that diverges
and so the summed limit does not exist
it also diverges
no i'm a student :D
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Can someone look at this problem?
@prisma crag Has your question been resolved?
@prisma crag Has your question been resolved?
diverges
it will always oscillate between 0 and 1
yes but how to prove?
probably with epsilon delta
i mean id just write as x-> inf, it will keep oscillating
im not great at epsilon delta
@prisma crag Has your question been resolved?
I never learned epsilon delta....
then u can just say from looking at it, it never converges because it will always oscillate between 0 and 1
hmm
i will ask my teacher
thank you
.close
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can some one help me expand log 9 using quotient rule
!xy
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
expand: log 9 =
factorize 9
hes asking for quotient rule
sorry i dont really know what you mean
its like a properite of the logorithm
do u have to use quotient or any
wdym by quotient rule
is it the calculus one
shoot hold up let me take a pic
its like when u subtract 2 logs thats division i think thats the quotient rule
not the derivatives one
ah probably
,rcw
oh this quotient rule
lowk lost on the power rule to
i don't think quotient rule is the rule you should use for this problem
wait why would you need the quotient rule for this
power rule is u gotta factor the inside and the power u take outside and keep the base inside
you should use power rule
yeah youd get 2log3
(you may want to think of two numbers that divide to make 9)
since 9 = 3^2 then log 9 = 2 log 3
ye
and "because they tell you to" I guess 
oh
confusion
i guess that's the way
log9-log1-log1-log1-โฆ
i mean
so like log9 18/2
nah
uh huh
kinda
yes
log9 18- log9 2
thats how
thanks dude
yall possibly down to maybe help with power rule also'
would be awesome
suce
sacue
wat