#help-27
1 messages · Page 14 of 1
thats what i meant to put
ohhh hahahaha
what happened
okay so yes tan is sqrt3
but remember
in second quadrant
tan is positive
or negative
so it would be -sqr3
yes
so i do solve for theta
duckiescute!
oh nono
it’s special angles
that means if you take sin of that special angle
you get a nice value kind of
for example
sin30 = 1/2
ok
a little
okay
so sin of something
will give you sqr3/2
see this
what sin gives you sqr3/2
60
so theta =60
yea
yes
ok thank you so much
no prob!
it fine
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hello so i have in issue in solving this question
i dont understand why the solution wants to multiply 1/x^3
how did it come to the decision to multiply with that
That's the greatest exponent
dividing by $x^3$ is the same as multiplying $1/x^3$ tbh
Civil Service Pigeon
@summer folio Has your question been resolved?
1/x^2 will become superduper small when x gets large. As good as 0!
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x^(2x) vs (2x)^x
which grows faster ?
they are both of the form x^x * (something)
what is that something
use exponent laws
(x^2)^x
@agile narwhal Has your question been resolved?
i dont understand how we got from here to here
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what is the answer rounded to the nearest hundredth because on the calendar it’s 5.09433
nearest hundredth means the want you to round to 2dp
so it’s 5.09 rounded?
yeh
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Discrete Math help
I'm trying to prove or disprove this and I'm completely stuck Im not sure wheather to do it by proof by cases or contrapostive
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if the one sided limits are different does that mean the limit doesn't exist?
Yeah
here they are different because there's an asymptote, but is it because both limits are different that theres an asymptote or is it just a consequence of there being an asymptote?
.close
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.open
Can anyone help me with this
@cunning sky Has your question been resolved?
@cunning sky Has your question been resolved?
This is called the De Morgan law for sets. You can prove this using the De Morgan law on predicates.
"Consider x.
x not in (AuB) <=> ||not(x in A OR x in B)
Using the De Morgan laws on the predicates "x in A" and "x in B" :
x not in (AuB) <=>|| ||not(x in A) AND not(x in B)
<=> x not in A AND x not in B
We found that the two sets considered have the exact same elements, so they're equal.||"
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Im trying to go from (x^k - y^k) to (x^k+1 - y^k+1) can anybody point me in the right direction?
i've tried multiplying by (x+y) but it doesn't give me what i want
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question on how to approach this induction of a for loop
@restive river greetings first time using this channel, not sure if you are the person to ping on this
I would very much encourage you to read the channel #❓how-to-get-help and follow appropriate procedure.
Anyway, on the induction, have you written our out your basis?
yeah, the base case is if you sum the first odd number you get one back
then you need to write out your inductive hypothesis and prove it.
What is the inductive hypothesis?
not yet, we need to write a statement that we want to prove
and i explain the previous and current step?
oh
we want to prove pair[1] = pair[0]^2
yep and in layman's language, what is the value of pair[1] and pair[0]**2
btw this is the code modified so it compiles
# Implements: Sum of first n odd numbers is nˆ2
import operator
n = input('Pick a number greater than or equal to 0: ') # upper limit
print ('You entered n = %s. \n' % n)
pair = [1, 1]
# the basis pair
print ('pair is %s \n' % pair)
new_n = int(n)
for i in range (1,new_n+1):
# executes for i = 1, 2, ..., n
pair[0] = pair[0] + 1
pair[1] = pair[1] + pair[0]*2 - 1
print ('pair is %s \n' % pair)
if operator.eq (pair[1],pair[0]**2):
print ('True: the second member is the square of the first.')
else:
print ('False: the second member is not the square of the first.')
if you were to write a mathematical equation that the if statement is testing, what would it be?
we want an equation that has the same variable on both sides; pair[1] and pair[2] needs to be translated into their values.
😢 i feel like you'll struggle to prove that no matter the technique,
if you look at the for loop, what is the value of pair[0] at the n'th iteration of the loop
and what is the value of pair[1] at the n'th iteration of the loop
or actually pair[n] = pair[n^2]
i do agree, i am struggling i think i am use to doing induction with actual math problems
do you want to reconsider? have you tried running the program and printing pair[0], pair[1]
It prints it out if you run the program.
but when you toss in code, i have to think a little more creatively
and the first sentence of problem 1 gives you a massive hint on what your inductive statement should be
i modified the problem and added the following line
print (pair[0], pair[1]) = 1 1
before the for loop
yeah, it prints two ones, and what will it print in the first iteration of the for loop? what is the mathematical formula it is following to get the next value for pair[0]
again, the first sentence of problem 1 has a massive hint
it will print the first pair
which is [1, 1]
oh
wait sum of the first n numbers
so if i select 5
1+3+5
so 3 numbers?
yeah, so it'll be the sum of the first n odd numbers
which is the left side of your inductive statement
WombatInCombat
lmao,
now what is on the other side of the sum of the first n odd numbers?
what are you trying to prove it's equal to
n^2
WombatInCombat
nice, now we can do induction on our hypothesis!
What we want to do is assume it is true for some hypothetical value of n and then using that, prove that it is true for the value n+1
perfect!
do we change the variable in the induction
like change to k+1
were there is an n
(k+1) sum 1
then 2(k+1)-1 = (k+1)^2
uh, you can? but it doesn't do anything useful, because n=k in order for your proof to work
you might as well just use stick with n
yes, except in one specific location
,, \sum_{1}^{n+1} {2n-1} = (n+1)^{2}
WombatInCombat
you don't want to change the inside of the summation; oh maybe that's why they change to k? for clarity?
might as well
i replaced the n above with a k
anyway, from there, you just manipulate the left side and it eventually looks like the right
or you can manipulate the right and make it look like the left
the second might be easier
if you FOIL and then convert to a summation using the inductive hypothesis that you are assuming to be true
nice so this is the equation to use and from here build more on top
this is amazing
i greatly appreciate this
do you code in python?
yes,
i was having such difficulty converting a for loop to math
not sure if its just practice or is there actual material on converting code to math?
if you are done, you should close the channel.
yeah, I mean you just need to write more for loops.
eventually you'll learn to make a lot of functions based on loops because loops are one of the main tools to call the same function with different parameters.
yes we are good sorry for the delay and of course i will continue to practice, do i type .close to close?
mostly people convert math into code, which is a bit easier than dissecting other people's code, but yeah practice and maybe get a book? online one's are free if you use tor and z-library, but you didn't hear that from me
[dot] close, read the #❓how-to-get-help
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How is this incorrect?
u forgot to apply the chain rule
A = 5??
Shoot you guys are right. I applied chain rule, got 5x(8-x^2)^3/2
So I put A = 5 and apparently it was incorrect
yeah
To find the second derivative, would i need to chain rule again
First derivative was -5x(8-x^2)^(1/2)
For second, I got
-5(8-x^2)^(3/2) + -3x(8-x^2)^(1/2)
@autumn grove Has your question been resolved?
yes product and chain rule
everything u see a compostion of functions eg f(g(x)), u need to apply the chain rule when differntiating
where would i product rule this?
first derivative is -5x(8 -x^2)^(1/2)
its a product of two functions
so u need to apply the product rule
and when computing the derivative of the latter function, u need to apply the chain rule as it is a composite function
@autumn grove Has your question been resolved?
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@autumn grove Has your question been resolved?
f'(x)= -5x(8-x^2)^(1/2)
let u =-5x, v =(8-x^2)^(1/2)
so f'(x)=uv
differentiate both sides to get f''(x) and apply product rule to uv, and since u,v are functions of x, u need to use chain rule on them too
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I understand how to prove that the inner product must be positive for scalar multiples of v
I'm not sure how that condition would prove that all vectors in v would have a positive inner product
Maybe I want to look at vectors orthogonal to v but I don't think I'm allowed to do that
I know that if there was <u,u>=-<v,v> such that u and v are orthogonal and u != -v then <u+v,u+v> = 0 which can't be possible
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<@&286206848099549185>
rip
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@final vessel Has your question been resolved?
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Hey for my homework I have to prove that two sets don't intersect with each other. I know I have to somehow prove the two sets are a disjoint sets but I don't know where to start
monikanicity
Suppose that there is a common element and find a contradiction
Ok
Ok so make sure that each set have different elements in them
yea
Is that it?
Ohhhh
so show that if an element is in one set it can't be in the other
Thank you
Also would a set minus just translate from A - B to A interest not (A Intersect B)
Ok thanks
$A \cap B^C$
monikanicity
monikanicity
nice
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Hey can someone help me
Please don't occupy multiple help channels.
Why did you open another channel
I did not mean to can you help me
Close this channel since you already have one open
I thought you were smart can you help me
You have two channels open. You don't need two channels. Close this one.
How do I close it
".close"
I can't. The questions are beyond my scope
But I'm sure someone here can if you wait
So you are dumb
You can't either, that's why you're here ¯\_(ツ)_/¯
Quiz?
Yes kid
We don't help on quizzes, tests, or exams
Why you being such such pussy about it
Help me dumb ass
I have to study
I thought it was big bairn
If you don't want to be timed out/banned, I'd suggest more polite language
Thought I discord moderator I don’t need your help
I’m just going to get someone’s help ugly fat disgusting bitch
.close
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Shut up
<@&268886789983436800>
@restive river gets a 24h mute to contemplate how not to be rude.
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close out the old one then bot
Close it yourself
it has to prompt me again
No it doesn't
I closed it
lol
.close
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Where did I I mess up yo
Where did the 12x go
@chrome furnace Has your question been resolved?
I don’t think I even got one
It's in the numerator in j)
@chrome furnace Has your question been resolved?
Yeah. The 12x has gone missing
@chrome furnace Has your question been resolved?
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How do I change sinx/x to piecewise function? Please help
do you mean $f(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{\sin x}{x} & x\neq 0 \ 1 & \text{ else } \end{cases}$ ?
Denascite
how does that have anything to do with sinx/x
oh you are talking about the fourier transform
This is from fourier integrals topic
because clearly this is obvious from your earlier message
you could use that the fourier transform is more or less self inverse
and calculate the fourier transform of $f(x) = \begin{cases} 1 & |x|<1 \ 0 & |x|\geq 1 \end{cases}$ first
Denascite
Wait they have given me
Intergal of sinx/x (dx) from 0 to inf =pi/2
I need to use fourier integral represention
But for that I need to know the piecewise function
Im not sure how they got that piecewise function
From sinx/x
I really dont get what you mean with the piecewise function
the fourier transform of $f(x) = \begin{cases} 1 & |x|<1 \ 0 & |x|\geq 1 \end{cases}$ is (up to scaling) sin(x)/x. so therefore we can reason backwards that the fourier transform of sin(x)/x is (up to scaling) again that piecewise function
Denascite
I don't get how during exam I can say that sinx/x is that piecewise function?
Like do I have to memorise it
Or is there any way to figure out that sinx/x will result in that piecewise
Like in my question they just said
Find following expression using fourier integral represention of a function
Integral from 0 to inf of sinx/x dx = pi/2
Idk how to go about it
But if they had given me the piecewise function I would have calculated a0,an etc
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.reopen
✅
<@&286206848099549185>
Find following expression using fourier integral represention of a function
Integral from 0 to inf of sinx/x dx = pi/2
How can I solve this when they haven't given me the piecewise function?
@restive river Has your question been resolved?
complex analysis?
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Advanced Differential equations
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hello can anyone check that my derivatives are correct and i set it up correct on my D-Test
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.close
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i got a question
how do i solve |3x-12|<5.1
my alg hw has a bunch of innequalities but whenever i try to solve them like a reg alg problem like usual it marks it wrong
i got x<17.1/3
Split cases.
Either case 1, $3x - 12 \ge 0$ and $3x - 12 < 5.1$.
OR case 2, $3x - 12 < 0$ and $-(3x - 12) < 5.1$
jimmy1234
You can also recognize that $|3x - 12| < 5.1 \implies -5.1 < 3x - 12 < 5.1$. Then you can solve for x by adding 12 to everything and then dividing everything by 3
MellowDramaLlama
it's the same as the split cases but more "concise"
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I have to show by using the def of limit that
Lim ((n^2-1)/(2n^2+3))= 1/2
Here's what I tried
For e>0
Absolute of ((n^2-1)/(2n^2+3)) -(1/2) < e
Absolute of (-5/(4n^2+12)) = (5/(4n^2+12))< 1/n^2 < 1/n
Now Absolute of ((n^2-1)/(2n^2+3)) -(1/2) < e if 1/n <e
Now by archiemedian property 1/k <e
Then if n>k
1/n < 1/k < e
Thus Absolute of ((n^2-1)/(2n^2+3)) -(1/2) < 1/n < 1/k < e
And therefore the limit is equal to 1/2
Could someone please confirm if I'm on the right track
@restive river Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
@restive river Has your question been resolved?
you starded from the result no ?
"Absolute of ((n^2-1)/(2n^2+3)) -(1/2) < e"
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how do I figure out what constant this approaches. I know it is 2 but how do I know that other than just adding up the first handful? 1 + 1/2 + 1/4 +1/8 + 1/16 + ...
Geometric series
so lets define a partial sum, S= 1+ 1/2+... 1/2^n
Basically if n goes to infinity we have the original sum now we can do some fancy math with S
imagine the difference S-(1/2)S and what this would be. you can there after manipulate that expression to get your answer
what level of math is this? calc 2?
I’m from uk so idk about that system but like when you’re 15-16 probably
is it in calculus?
you lost me at partial sum
okay so imagine a sum that is like the n first terms of your infinite sum
example: if you have the sum T=1+2+3+4... then we can define S=1+2+...+n. now we have n->inf then S=T
I follow
then if S=1 +1/2 + ... 1/(2^n)
we would have (1/2)S=1/2+1/4+...1/(2^n+1)
so S-(1/2)S=1+1/ (2^n+1)
also S-(1/2)S=S(1-1/2)=S/2
just don't forget all the lim n-> inf
I skipped them here since they take alot of time to write and are cumbersome on computer but for S to equal your sum you have to include it
thank you @spare hawk
no problem! take care mate
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I have a theorem that states "Let $f: I \to \mathbb{R}$ $n$ times differentiable at the point $a \in I$. The function $r: J \to \mathbb{R}$, defined in the interval $J = {h \in \mathbb{R}; a+h \in I}$ by the equality $\\f(a+h) = f(a) + f'(a)\cdot h + \frac{f"(a)}{2}\cdot h^2 + \hdots + \frac{f^{(n)}(a)}{n!} \cdot h^n + r(h)\\$ satisfies $\lim_{h \to 0} \frac{r(h)}{h^n} = 0$. Reciprocally, if $p(h)$ is a polynomial of degree $\leq n$ such that $r(h) + f(a+h) - p(h)$ satisfies $\lim_{h \to 0} \frac{r(h)}{h^n} = 0$ then $p(h)$ is the Taylor polynomial of degree $n$ of $f$ at point $a$, that is, $\\p(h) = \sum_{i=0}^n \frac{f^{(i)}(a)}{i!} \cdot h^i$ " $\\$
So, with that theorem, how can i show that when $n$ approaches infinity, $r(h) = 0$ for any $h$?
Amarinya
you can think of r(h) as an error function that either adds or subtracts to make sure the taylor series is equal to the function at a+h
so naturally, as you add infinitely many terms, the error function will always be 0, but i don't know how to prove that
@high nebula Has your question been resolved?
the error term does not always converge to zero for any input, only for "nice" functions
sorry, i forgot to say that there exists a $K > 0$ such that for any $x \in I$ and $n \in \mathbb{N}, |f^{(n)}(x)| \leq K$
Amarinya
you might be able to use the explicit lagrange or cauchy formula for the remainder term
then bound the derivative term and prove lim h^k / k! = 0
oh there's here a theorem of taylor formula with lagrange remainder
but there's a little problem with it
"$Let f:[a,b] \to \mathbb{R}$ be $n$ times differentiable in the open interval $(a,b)$, with $f^{(n-1)}$ continuous in $[a,b]$. There exists $c \in (a,b)$ such that $\\f(b) = f(a) + f'(a)(b-a) + \hdots + \frac{f^{(n-1)}(a)}{(n-1)!}(b-a)^{n-1} + \frac{f^{(n)}(c)}{n!}(b-a)^n$ " $\\$My problem with it is that 1) i can't find a $c$ in between $a$ and $b$ that makes the derivative equal to 0, and 2) $b$ has to be explicitly greater than $a$.
Amarinya
why would you need to find c if you have the < K condition for any x?
it will also hold for c, whatever it might be
but if i change f^(n)(c) with K, it'll be f(b) <= the new value now, not equal
so taking the limit would still make it <=
you should maybe try to prove that the taylor series converges
thx to this
well, if i replace all f terms with K, i'll have the taylor series for the e^x function, but i can't use that because to replace the taylor series to the e^x function i need to use what i'm trying to prove
you have taylor series (but with absolute values)
smaller than some quantity
thats finite
i know it's not, but i can't realy prove it
i just have to take the limit as n approaches infinity
are you familiar with series and proofs of convergence
yes i am
i've seen a bit of absolute convergence
so we have the absolute convergence of the taylor series here
the infinite sum of absolute values
is smaller than Ke^|h|
yeah, so you're replacing all the |f| terms with K, right?
yeah but see, here's the problem
so it proves the convergence
you can't just replace it with e^|h| because you're using what you're trying to prove to prove it
why is that so?
its litteraly the definition of exp
if you dont want to you can prove that the exponential series converges
its really easy
because you're using the fact that $\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{x^n}{n!} = e^x$ and that formula is a consequence of what we're proving
Amarinya
well it depends on how you define exponential i guess
just prove that this series converge then
ratio test for exemple works
the |xn+1/xn| test?
yeah
you see one way to define exponential is just to say that the series defining it converges for any real number
and just write the result e^x
this book defines e as the limit (1+1/n)^n
yeah but how does the book defines power of real numbers then?
so that's why i said
what do you mean?
it doesn't define exp() i think
e^sqrt(2)
is not very well defined if you just want the value
but w/e
you can still prove the series converge
if you dont even want to talk about e
just prove the specific series you have here converges
i know the rickroll url by heart and still got rickrolled
LMAO
$f(b) = \frac{f^{(n+1)}(c)}{(n+1)!}(b-a)^n + \sum_{i=0}^n \frac{f^{(i)}(a)}{i!}(b-a)^i\\$
$f(b) = \lim_{n \to \infty}\left(\frac{f^{(n+1)}(c)}{(n+1)!}(b-a)^n + \sum_{i=0}^n \frac{f^{(i)}(a)}{i!}(b-a)^i\right)\\$
$f(b) = \lim_{n \to \infty}\left(\frac{f^{(n+1)}(c)}{(n+1)!}(b-a)^n\right) + \lim_{n \to \infty} \left(\sum_{i=0}^n \frac{f^{(i)}(a)}{i!}(b-a)^i\right)\\$
$f(b) = 0 + \sum_{i=0}^\infty \frac{f^{(i)}(a)}{i!}(b-a)^i\\$
$f(b) = \sum_{i=0}^\infty \frac{f^{(i)}(a)}{i!}(b-a)^i\\$
Amarinya
yeah this works too
did i do something wrong?
ahh alrighty
there's just one small little issue though
the lagrange theorem assumes b > a, so if i want b < a, i don't know how to fix that
because the interval is [a,b], so if i want b < a, then i need to replace it with f(a), which i do not want
the theorem you are using comes from the integral remainder version of taylor
yeah, it says the theorem is the taylor formula with lagrange remainder
funnily enough it used the rolle's theorem to prove that
to prove what?
the taylor formula with lagrange remainder
taylors theorem with lagranges remainder is typically proved with MVT or rolle's
yeah, i had to use rolle to prove mvt
i think rolle's is applied for the most common proof ive seen for taylor's
i think it's pretty cool
rolle must've drawn the graphs of functions a lot and noticed a pattern
rolle makes intuitive sense i think
yeah and rolle didn't know that much, because he only proved for polynomials functions. tbh we didn't even have calculus at his time
but uhh, what should i do in case i have b < a?
but still need it to be f(b) instead of f(a)
you take the integral form and do the proof almost the same as you just did
i haven't reached integration yet
it's the next chapter
i could maybe consider the interval [-a, -b], but i don't know if f(-b) = f(b)
how did you prove the lagrange remainder version then?
you used integration to prove it?
the way my teacher taught me yes
and its the most useful version of taylor's
i'm not against it but i'm wondering
Let $ϕ: [a,b] \to \mathbb{R}$ defined by $\\ϕ(x) = f(b) - f(x) - f'(x)(b-x) - \hdots - \frac{f^{(n-1)}(x)}{(n-1)!}(b-x)^{n-1} - \frac{K}{n!}(b-x)^n$, $\\$where the constant $K$ is choosen in a way that $ϕ(a) = 0$. Then $ϕ$ is continuous in $[a,b]$, differentiable in $(a,b)$, with $ϕ(a) = ϕ(b) = 0$. Taking the derivative, you can see that it telescopically cancels most of the terms and what remains is $\\ϕ'(x) = \frac{K - f^{(n)}(x)}{(n-1)!}(b-x)^{n-1}\\$By Rolle's Theorem, there exists $c \in (a,b)$ such that $ϕ'(c) = 0$. This means that $K = f^{(n)}(c)$. The theorem is obtained by doing $x=a$ in the definition of $ϕ$ and remembering that $ϕ(a) = 0$.
Amarinya
yeah it's pretty unintuitive
i found something if you wanna check it out
it derives the formula from well known theorems
you can click outside the pop up
or esc
but the integrals actually give you a "reason"
for the terms in the formula
like this formula only comes from FTC
and fubini
yeah but still XD
so for your specific problem
i would just do it my way
i'm not very good at finding something else if i already have something that suits my neeeds
or you could prove this theorem but with I=[b,a]
like do the same proof
but with small details changing
yeah the thing is that in the theorem, the upper bound is the value that goes in the function at the left side of the equality
if you just replace [a,b] by [b,a] where in the proff do you need to change something?
ok but just do the same with the lower bound
where is it used that b>a?
but [5, 0] doesn't make sense, does it?
indeed but it has nothing to do with our case
a has the role of point of reference
b is the value at whichc you wanna apply taylor's
now either b<a or b>a
its not used
its supposed
like i can suppose w=3 at the beginning
but it would have nothing to do with the proof
Let $ϕ: [b,a] \to \mathbb{R}$ defined by $\ϕ(x) = f(b) - f(x) - f'(x)(b-x) - \hdots - \frac{f^{(n-1)}(x)}{(n-1)!}(b-x)^{n-1} - \frac{K}{n!}(b-x)^n$, $\$where the constant $K$ is choosen in a way that $ϕ(a) = 0$. Then $ϕ$ is continuous in $[a,b]$, differentiable in $(a,b)$, with $ϕ(a) = ϕ(b) = 0$. Taking the derivative, you can see that it telescopically cancels most of the terms and what remains is $\ϕ'(x) = \frac{K - f^{(n)}(x)}{(n-1)!}(b-x)^{n-1}\$By Rolle's Theorem, there exists $c \in (a,b)$ such that $ϕ'(c) = 0$. This means that $K = f^{(n)}(c)$. The theorem is obtained by doing $x=a$ in the definition of $ϕ$ and remembering that $ϕ(a) = 0$.
but if the theorem uses [a,b] to make it work, you can't assume it'll work if you do [3, 2]
you are not understanding what i mean
i'm not saying b>a and [b,a]
i'm saying
if b<a
it works aswell
but with [b,a]
instead of [a,b]
Let $ϕ: [b,a] \to \mathbb{R}$ defined by $\ϕ(x) = f(b) - f(x) - f'(x)(b-x) - \hdots - \frac{f^{(n-1)}(x)}{(n-1)!}(b-x)^{n-1} - \frac{K}{n!}(b-x)^n$, $$where the constant $K$ is chosen in a way that $ϕ(a) = 0$. Then $ϕ$ is continuous in $[b,a]$, differentiable in $(b,a)$, with $ϕ(a) = ϕ(b) = 0$. Taking the derivative, you can see that it telescopically cancels most of the terms and what remains is $\ϕ'(x) = \frac{K - f^{(n)}(x)}{(n-1)!}(b-x)^{n-1}$By Rolle's Theorem, there exists $c \in (b,a)$ such that $ϕ'(c) = 0$. This means that $K = f^{(n)}(c)$. The theorem is obtained by doing $x=a$ in the definition of $ϕ$ and remembering that $ϕ(a) = 0$.
Benjamin
Let $ϕ: [b,a] \to \mathbb{R}$ defined by $\ϕ(x) = f(b) - f(x) - f'(x)(b-x) - \hdots - \frac{f^{(n-1)}(x)}{(n-1)!}(b-x)^{n-1} - \frac{K}{n!}(b-x)^n$, $\$where the constant $K$ is chosen in a way that $ϕ(a) = 0$. Then $ϕ$ is continuous in $[b,a]$, differentiable in $(b,a)$, with $ϕ(a) = ϕ(b) = 0$. Taking the derivative, you can see that it telescopically cancels most of the terms and what remains is $\ϕ'(x) = \frac{K - f^{(n)}(x)}{(n-1)!}(b-x)^{n-1}\$By Rolle's Theorem, there exists $c \in (b,a)$ such that $ϕ'(c) = 0$. This means that $K = f^{(n)}(c)$. The theorem is obtained by doing $x=a$ in the definition of $ϕ$ and remembering that $ϕ(a) = 0$.
```Compilation error:```! Undefined control sequence.
<recently read> \\xcf
l.57 Let $ϕ: [b,a] \to \mathbb{R}$ defined by $\\xcf
\x95(x) = f(b) - f(x) - f'(x)...
The control sequence at the end of the top line
of your error message was never \def'ed. If you have
misspelled it (e.g., `\hobx'), type `I' and the correct
spelling (e.g., `I\hbox'). Otherwise just continue,
and I'll forget about whatever was undefined.```

but ϕ is just a random function
Yes
a bit late
why is it a problem?
Please help me
because ϕ is just used to find K. i looked at the proof and tried swapping a and b but it doesn't make sense because then ϕ(b) is not 0, it's f(a) - f(b), which would be 0 if i hadn't swapped a with b
so swapping a and b while maintaining [a,b] would be like this
dont swap a and b inside phi
huh?
taylor's formula doesnt care wether b>a or b<a its the same
yes but i haven't proven that
yeah but as you said
phi is a random
function
so you can chose it to be what you want
so keep phi the same
but then i'm gonna keep with f(b) = f(a) + ... with b>a. if i want to make it work with b<a, i need to make it f(b) = f(a) + ... with [b,a] instead of [a,b]
you wrote two times the same thing
but yeah
keep it the same
the proof is exactly the same if b<a just each time theres written "a,b" you replace it with "b,a"
yeah i just did it in my head and you're right..
this question was harder than it was supposed to be
i think that clears everything
anyway this proof is just bad teaching imho
why is that?
it gives no insight
yeah. i'm kinda left to figure it out on my own
it a proof by someone who is already very familiar
with taylor series
and for people who are also already familiar
this book has some questions that are like that
if you are not it doesnt make sense
i did. and it was pretty confusing to me
you dont know about fubini?
not really
or is it something else
i don't know what fubini is
its "you can swap in which order you integrate when you have nested integrals"
in this case its easy to understand because everythin is bounded and finite
ah, that's pretty useful
but its not true all the time
how come?
example?
after i'm done with real analysis i'm gonna study something i find a bit more practical like linear algebra
linear algebra is the maximum amount of algebra i can accept
its still very good
though
i'm just bad at abstract algebra
my teacher told me that the most useful chapter is the last one, which has sequences and series of functions, with simple and uniform convergence, properties of uniform convergence, power series, trigonometric functions and taylor series
i thought this was taylor series already. guess it's called taylor formula
ahh i see
if you have enough differentiations available
i really gotta learn matrices and stuff
C infinite?
not necessarely
i was just saying you need the differentiation up to n to get the formula with n-1 terms
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I know it wants a formula, but i really have no idea where to go with this
i solved the previosu question, but i typed in the formula that i used and it was wrong...
.78 was the percentage of the material and 1.3 was the entire material, but here i understand that it wants a formula that doesn't require the beginning amount....
nvm i found it
.close
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If I have a wheel with 7 possibilities on it, -6,-2,-1,0,1,2,3 and have a sample of 1000 spins, if I want to determine the cumulative odds of ending with 4 or less after 12 spins, do I take the average needed to end with 4 - the sample average divided by the sample std dev, use that as the z score to determine the probability?
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If I have a wheel with 7 possibilities on it, -6,-2,-1,0,1,2,3 and have a sample of 1000 spins, if I want to determine the cumulative odds of ending with 4 or less after 12 spins, do I take the average needed to end with 4 - the sample average divided by the sample std dev, use that as the z score to determine the probability?
@digital phoenix Has your question been resolved?
@digital phoenix Has your question been resolved?
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Factor out the 2
i make =0 and multiply by reciprocal?
No
idk how to factor out 2
Yea
oh ok ty
@restive river Has your question been resolved?
idk what to do
show what you have atm
@restive river Has your question been resolved?
i have the same thing
combine numerator (of big fraction) into a sinlgle fraction
how can i if the denominators arent the same
do something to make them the same
the same way you'd simplify something like
$$\frac12 + \frac13$$
ℝamonov
ok
You gotta make the denominators the same!
idk how sorry
Well in the example ramonov posted
i would multiply both to get 6 denominator
and that would change numerator as well
Exactly!
i dont get how to do this with +h in one side tho
Well in the example, u multiply the 1st fraction by 3/3 and the second one by 2/2 right?
It’s the exact same principle for your problem
Yea that’s all there is to it
ok thank u for explaining
oh ok tysm
@restive river Has your question been resolved?
.close
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hi
im doing
hi
show me
: $x^2 + px + 4 = (x+q)^2 -5$
Poseidon59
Wherre i have to find the value for p and q
ok
can you help me?
i dont want to tell u the wrong thing to do
wdym
idk what if im wrong and i waste ur time
i mean you can try
i dont think there will be another helper here
for a long time so
why dont u foil x+q
x^2 + 2qx + q^2
idk
i got it
oooo
do u want me to send u asnwer
- steps but yes
yea that would work but the questions needs a constant value
wow
yea
don't divide both sides by x
instead equate coefficients and constants and solve a system of equations
go on....
try following those instructions
equaste which co efficients tho
of your variable x
im not sure how to do tha
identify the coefficients of x on each side of the equation
set them equal to each other
so on the left, the co efficient of x^2 would be 1, the co efficient of px would be p?
yeh
yes
ok cool now what
identify the coefficients of x on each side of the equation
set them equal to each other
idk what that wants me to do
what part of set them equal to each other don't you undstand
like how do you make p = 2q
that's all i wanted you to do for that step
you want the coefficients to be equal
and that's the equation you set up to represent that
you also want the constants to be the same for the expressions to be equivalent
instead equate ... and constants
so is this what you want me to do or
yes...
well 1 = 1, you don't need to worry about the x^2 term
you also want to identify and equate the constant terms on each side
4 = -5 .....
that seems a bit wrong
the constant in this context is the part that doesn't contain x
ye
the constant in
x^2 + 2qx + q^2 - 5
isn't just -5
sorry
which part(s) of the right side don't have any x in it
: $x^2 + px + 4 = (x+q)^2 -5$
Poseidon59
just the q^2
...
which parts of the whole expression on the right side of the equation after the expansion of (x+q)^2 - 5
don't have any x in them
-5 and q^2
after expanding, you would have had
$$x^2 + 2qx + q^2 - 5$$
which part(s) of that don't have any $x$ in them
yes
ℝamonov
there
hence q^2 - 5 would be the constant of that
ah ha
and like before, set those constants equal to each other
4 = q^2 - 5
you now have a system of equations
$$\begin{cases} p = 2q \
4 = q^2 - 5 \end{cases}$$
solve that system to get your solution(s)
ℝamonov
i lowk forgot how to do these
well q^2 - 5 = 4
is a relatively simple equation with 1 variable
try solving that first
not quite
q = 3 isn't the only soluluition
what would the other sol. be
have a think about it for a minute
yes
would it also be -3?
yes, q=-3 would also be a solution
sub that value back into the first equation to determine the respective values of p
would i take the same approach?
you're not done yet
not quite
how
you'd need to properly indicate your two solutions
wdym properly indicate
p=6 when q=3
these are separate solutions
p=-6 when q=-3
.
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(3x + 2) (x + 1) = 0
so, 3x + 2 = 0 / (x + 1) [which is invalid due to it being 0]
is this true?
(3x + 2)(x + 1) = 0 <=> 3x + 2 = 0 or x + 1 = 0
my bad it was a typo
read it again
apologies
well no, in that case, x + 1 is not equal to 0
so what you're doing is taking 2 cases
where: (3x + 2) is 0, and then (x + 1) is 0
when (3x + 2) is 0, (x + 1) is not 0 and vice versa
which will result in two answers that works on the original equation, but the answer wont make both (3x + 2) and (x + 1) both be equal to 0 at the same time
how do i find out which expression is equal to 0
both of them should be equal to 0, but not using the same x value
for example
(x + 1)(x - 2) = 0
when x = -1, (x + 1) is 0 but (x - 2) is not
when x = 2, (x - 2) is 0 but (x + 1) is not
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yo
eww degrees....
so the area of a circle is 2 times pi times radius^2 right?
so if we pretend for a moment that this is a whole circle, then we would have a circle with area of 2 times pi times 36 cm^2.... or pi times 72cm^2
but, this is just a slice of circle, its equivalent to 48/360 of the circle we had before....
so we take out original number and times by the fraction.
Lets reduce our fraction first
48/360 = 2/15
so,
pi times 72cm^2 times 2/15
(144pi/15)cm^2
=(48pi/15)cm^2
@prisma kestrel Has your question been resolved?
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hello I have a problem with this question
compare with $(a+b)^2=a^2+2ab+b^2$
秋水
i can try that
answer is (6y+5z)^2
but how do i find the area?
is it like this? (6+5)(6+5)?
answer is like this (12y^2 + 10z^2)?
i am confused
I don't know, I think the area is (6y+5z)^2, the side is (6y+5z)
but the formula said A=s^2
so i tried multiplying both polynomials
the answer is supposed to be (6y+5z) without squared
i dont know how it got the answer
A = s^2 = (6y+5z)^2 , so s = (6y+5z)
can you pls explain it?
i ended up here
I think the answer should be (6y+5z), or (-6y-5z)
it isnt like this?
the area = (6y+5z)^2, right?

probably 