#help-26
1 messages · Page 206 of 1
if f(x) = ax+b
f-1 o f(x) = f-1 (ax+b)
Which is same as
x = f-1(ax+b)
Then just let ax+b = 13
No need to find f(x) or f-1(x) bro
f-1(13 is sufficient)
yeah
Try the method directly
Imma use the shortcut then
What is f-1 (3x+4) equal to
13?
Nope, it should be in terms of x
yeah
Put both sides of equation with composition to f-1 from left side
.
f-1(3x + 4) = 2x
Then input the found x value to inverse of f
And obtain the value f-1 (13)
If function is bijective
Could you check my solution ?
f(x)=3x+4/2
g(x) = 7 - 4x
fog = f(g(x))=
k = 3(7-4x)+4/2
2k = 3(7-4x)+4
2k = 21-12x + 4
2k = 25-12x
k = 25-12x/2
y = (37 - 3x) / 8
x = (37 - 3y) / 8
8x = 37 - 3y
3y = 37 - 8x
y = (37 - 8x) / 3
(fog^-1)^-1(x) = (37 - 8x) / 3
f-1 (-1) = {1, -1}
is it required to be onto function too?
f-1 (y) = { x | f(x)= y for some x in domain of f}
??
Consists of x points, described
isn't it f^-1^-1
Bijective means injective and surjective
But f(x) = x² is not injective
oh there is no such a thing in Turkish
really?
Bijektif = birebir ve örten
They dont really use it in questions
Yeah i havent got to learn the term until university
why would you use that term in hs then
Nice to say 1 word only and skip 2
for real
The standart keeps rising each time
And i believe there are sources that use the term bijective
probably
Its not some advanced tech just 1 google search away
Im not asking you to learn a new tech that you wont use
Just teaching you a term that will make you think faster
Also isnt gof-1(13) = g(6) ?
Despite being a math major, im not good at mental math
So i wont waste time on verifying
You def found f-1 (13) wrong or i am tripping hard
You found it correctly here
I know it makes things harder but isnt f-1(x) (x-4)/3
if we put 13 in
I mean
its f-1(2x)
2x = 13
x= 13/2
I found it -67/3 somehow
you can try make sense out of whatever sorcery i made 😭
f(x) = 3x/2 + 4 so 2(y-4)/3 =x
and f-1 (x ) = 2(x-4)/3
(5/2)/3
This is why i told you to not bother finding the inverse of f
High chance to throw
I would suggest doing it easy way then hard way later
You found the inverse wrong
Here
I didnt convert it to x
me?
I kept it as 2x
i wanna know why i did it wrong
Also its getting pretty late, i would recommend not saying overnight for better memories + keeping fraction of what you learn
Anyway i will dip now, gn
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i need help
with what
why is 2 a special primenumber
cause its 1+1
is 51 a prime number
3x17
what kind of tips do you want to hear
how can i now all prime numbers because i forgot all prime numbers from 1 to 100
There are infinitely many prime numbers, so you can’t „know“ them all
And there are no fast ways to check if a number is prime
You’re asking an age old question my friend
Except for small numbers
you can just learn the first few
This question has stumped mathematicians since antiquity
its like learning other things
thanks guys im not good at maths im at the 8 class
There are some tests you can learn for primality but they’re probably above the scope
yeah btw thanks for the help
If you want to learn more about primes you should look into number theory because that is one of the main questions of number theory
There is something called the miller-Rabin primality test but it will probably not make sense to you without a decent amount of background
So if you want to start somewhere in number theory I would recommend learning about modular arithmetic
You can probably find videos on YouTube or Kahn academy
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yess of course
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hey guys
i understood everything except choosing the max part
why do we do the max part?
cuz for epsilon-delta proofs not to infinity, we choose minimum
in this case, you need x > M_1 and x > M_2
if x > max{M_1, M_2}, then x > M_1 and x > M_2 as required
is it because x > M
and if we set M1 = M, it could be possible that M1 is smaller than M2 so it wont satisfy both f(x) and g(x)
hence we choose the maximum of the two?
yes
if it was instead that you wanted x < M_1 and x < M_2, you would use min(M_1, M_2) to be sure
hmmmm i see i see
cuz M is the threshold and we dont know if M1 or M2 is less
so we choose max
thank you
i get it now
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Help
Is this correct? I actually used some unfamiliar method for proving this one
@golden blade
still going at it? 
Another one
This one I did it a bit in a hurry since I gtg for my dinner
So l is a bit undefined there but just assumed it’s 0
I have never used this method though
Knowledge is hard to come by
This is why you will remain a homomorphism and never become an isomorphism
What does it mean 😭😭😭
Can you rate my proof
What proof 😭😭
😭
I still have to go to restaurant and my parents are almost gonna call me
And btw it’s my first topo proof though
wow u are rich
I mean it’s Christmas
oh forgor
That sounds very bad
I know my proof this time must contains a horrible deal of flaws
Now I got hungry and it's almost 3am
Go to McDonald’s
Like ridiculously wrong
😭😭😭
i will then use another method but I must improve my topology too
But this is analysis
I also dont what theorems you use
so mega true
For G n converges
I used monotone convergence theorem
Nested compact set property
And close set contains limit point
In essence heine borel theorem since A is bounded and closef its compact
Since dimension it’s still finite so bounded and closed is equivalent to that of a compactness
Just for the sake of nice looking
now you wan be real pro
I am bad at math for real 😭😭
Here is my attempt
Consider $f_n(x) = \arctan(nx)$ then it is $f'_n(x) > 0$ since $x \in (0, \infty)$ and $n \in \mathbb{N}.\$
Hence $f_n$ increases strictly.$\$
It is also that $\arctan(nx) < \frac{\pi}{2}$ for all $x \in \mathbb{R}$ which implies $f_n$ is bounded.$\$
By the monotony criterion $f_n$ converges.
𝔸dωn𝓲²s
It’s about choose an N with special property right?
i am not special
And I also kinda want it to be phrased in topological language so that I can study both uniform convergence and topological at the same time
They are too daunting
be more daunting
For this N I ain’t so sure how to choose though which was why I used topological method as my initial attempt
Then I will fail my Econ theories
You just want to show it converges?
Uniformly
Not that it converges to pi/2
oh i read to converge
ordinarily
I was in a hurry so I think I forgot the word uniforms
I think my proof is sufficient for pointwise convergence
Yes indeed you took derivative
and broke my neck doing that
(hehe i didnt really i just know arctan(nx) is strictly increasing)
Is using topological language rigorous as well
with the given conditions
sorry I saw analysis and ran away 
she says this is bad 
In essence we both use the monotone convergence theorem
It’s a great one
yo, I do not remember convergence theorems for sequences of functions 
hey it's still a sequence
It’s about how to phrase it in topological language too so I can study more efficiently by studying scary uniform convergence and topology
Yes? I am all ears
You showed me nothing is impossible
?😭😭
🙏🏻 😭
You learn that for cal c ap
real
so why are you so obsessed with uniform convergence
genau
i wanna attend that high school
🙏🏻 😭 God bless kids in hs who dont know linear equations
Come to USA
cheeseburgers and fries
I think I am like average for math at high though
you're definitely stronger than most
Really I was average like those taking AP cal C
If I were to rate your math skills in terms of convergence, you would be uniform convergence 🙏🏻 😭

hahahahhahahahahaaha
What have you done today all day
I understand 🚬
I don’t even care about grade as long as I pass
I am preparing it a year in advance
The early bird catches the early worm
Yes
so you will obliterate it when the time comes
You wannabe isomorphism
In my dream yes
no dreams, only reality
But I am really just hoping for a pass
Stop my proofs aren’t even rigorous in term of formalism 😭😭
You are more rigorous on yourself than on your proof so true
I actually think MCT might not apply unless we assume knowledge of Lebesgue integration
In this case x is positive so fine but this part might not be covered by coursework
But rudins has Lebesgue integral and basic measure so I think fine
Whats MCT
Monotone convergence theorem
how
Because we have to define for some sequences to be integrable, this case is fine
X is nonnegative and nice
The simplified version of MCT is like $\int \lim n = \lim \int n$
Emmaaaaa
If it’s a sequence of function it will become something like
$\int\lim f_n d\mu=\lim\int f_n d\mu$
Emmaaaaa
@golden blade like they are different right? I actually don’t know much
me to
I’ll just go to the restaurant, I am too dumb
haha
And btw just short one, how to rephrase the topo proof to make it actually rigorous I am sure it’s not rigorous
@spare verge Has your question been resolved?
@spare verge Has your question been resolved?
Not until someone refines the topological language of mine
Is it that I am thinking things or my help request actually gets less help😭😭😭
What even is your question now
This?
Refine my proof I definitely know it’s wrong somewhere
I use latex though but handwriting faster
I want to use topological language so I can notbonly prepare uniform convergence but topology as well since it’s also daunting
try the ball pen
looks cleaner imo
riemann bad eyesight
exposed
@spare verge you know, you can also ask your question in #real-complex-analysis
nobody there would mind
@spare verge Has your question been resolved?
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How to do question 17
Pythagoras in disguise
You don't know what Pythagoras's theorem is?
I know
Then you can use it
Diagram sucks but we are drawing a parallel line to AB through D
Correct!
Thx
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a,b,c are positive real number, find the minimum value of P. Using derivative
Pls help me 😭
#help-32 is available
if you can't see it you need to unhide it in the settings idk
ok thank you
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If you have to find the center point of the quadric x² + y² + z² + 4xz - 6y + 8 = 0, how would you do that? I'm breaking my head over the mixed xz-term... ChatGPT told me you can group (x² + y² +4xz) together and rewrite it as (x + z)² - z². It sounded simple but I've been trying to understand how you can do that for the past half hour and it's driving me nuts. Any help would be appreciated!
dont use gpt, its often wrong
(like here)
at least the idea is roughly correct
you'll want to complete the square
(x^2+2xz+z^2)+(y^2-6y+9)=2xz+1
(x+z)^2 + (y-3)^2 = 2xz+1
is this approach wrong
@cedar minnow Has your question been resolved?
I thought about this but how do you reason the center point out of this? I get that you can determine that y = 3 is already valid, but from this how can you get that x = 0 and z = 0?
Btw the correct answer is (0,3,0)
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I have a problem that I got close to solving (I think) but I don't know how to finish it.
The problem is as follows:
There are 22 students that play 5 games of football. In each game, there are two teams of 11 students. If a team wins, every winning student gets 3 points, in case of a draw everybody gets 1 point. if youre on the loosing team you get 0 points.
Every student must be on the same team with all other students at least once.
Show that there are always five or more people with the same number of points.
My thoughts so far are that in case of a draw, everybody gets a point. This means that a draw "doesn't change anything". What I mean by that is if two people have the same number of points, they still will after a draw. This means that if two people have the same number of points, they must have won the same number of times.
Now there are five cases: no draw, 1 draw, 2 draws, ..., 5 draws.
In case 5, everybody has the same number of points.
Case 4: Only one game that is not a draw => 11 people win the same number of times
Case 3: In the first game (that's not a draw), 11 people have the same number of wins, in the "second" game there have to be 6 or more people in the same team that were in the same team previously at least once (can be shown with the pigeon hole theorem)
but then in case of one draw, two draws and no draw I don't know how to show that there are five people with the same number of wins.
Ive been told to draw a graph for each case but I dont know what that would look like
maybe you have an idea?
@tawdry dagger Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
how can i help you
do you have an idea on how to approach this
what is this?
.
@tawdry dagger Has your question been resolved?
@tawdry dagger Has your question been resolved?
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If you have the quadric given by z = 2xy, how can you determine the axes of symmetry? I thought the following:
- F(x,y,z) = F(-x,-y,z) --> The z-axis is an axis of symmetry
- F(x,y,z) = F(-x,y,-z) --> The y-axis is also an axis of symmetry
- F(x,y,z) = F(x,-y,-z) --> The x-axis is also an axis of symmetry
But apparently only the z-axis is an axis of symmetry. Why is this?
@cedar minnow Has your question been resolved?
@cedar minnow Has your question been resolved?
@cedar minnow Has your question been resolved?
You don't have a function?
What is F(x,y,z)
The quadric z = 2xy
By that I meant that you can substitute (x,y) for (-x,-y) without changing the function so that means that the z-axis is an axis of symmetry right? The same reasoning I applied to the rest
You can substitute (x,z) for (-x,-z) and the equation stays the same, so y-axis is also an axis of symmetry
etc
I wouldn't describe any axis as an axis of symetry since I consider these to be arbitrary rotations around an axis. For instance z=x^2+y^2 has a z-axis of symmetry. z=2xy I would describe as having the planes y=x and y=-x as planes of symmetry.
but I suppose to give some benefit of the doubt, the z-axis is an axis of rotation by 180 degrees too so maybe I'm being too strict here
Well the exercise I'm trying to make here goes as follows:
"Consider the quadric K: z = 2xy. Which coordinate axes are axes of symmetry? Which aren't? Rotate the axes so that this is the case for all 3 axes. (Matlab!). What does the equation look like after the coordinate transformation?" The answer to the first question is apparently the z-axis.
So the part I'm not sure about is how they determined that the z-axis is the axis of symmetry without plotting a graph and visually determining that it's the case.
to answer that, the z-axis is all the points (0,0,z)
and these points are not moved by the transformation (x,y) |-> (-x,-y) which is quick to check
well that confirms it but how would we know from the transformation?
you have (x,y,z) |-> (-x,-y,z) so now you can set this equal to itself and solve x=-x, y=-y, z=z and this is what's forcing x=0, y=0
that make sense? I found the fixed points by setting the before and after equal to each other
@cedar minnow Has your question been resolved?
-z = 2(-x)y
z = -2xy
the equation does not remain unchanged
y-axis isn’t an axis of symmetry
for z-axis:
z = 2(-x)(-y)
z = 2xy
equation is unchanged so z-axis is an axis of symmetry
likewise, for the x-axis:
-z = 2x(-y)
z = -2xy
x-axis isn’t an axis of symmetry
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how is the axiom of extensionality stated with FOL + ∈ but without =?
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@neon iron Has your question been resolved?
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Sorry if this isn't your typical help question but for the equation of a parabola in the form (y=ax²), why does the focus equal 1/(4a)? I can't find anything explaining this well online and it seems like the idea of substituting 1/4p (p being the focus) for (a) was just thrown at me with no explanation.
I think the best way to develop the intuition behind it is to reconstruct a parabola from the focus/directrix definition and see where the points lie basically
say we have a focus at (0, -1) and directrix y = 1
this is just going to end up being a vertical parabola
so (x,y) is an arbitrary point on that parabola
using the distance formula, the distance from (x,y) to the focus is $$\sqrt{(x-0)^2 + (y-(-1))^2}$$
vehnil
or $$\sqrt{(x^2 + (y+1)^2}$$
vehnil
and the distance from (x,y) to the directrix is $$\sqrt{(y-(1))^2}$$
vehnil
or $$\sqrt{(y-1)^2}$$
if you think of the definition of a parabola in terms of focus and directrix, it makes sense. you know that the parabola is the locus of points equidistant from the focus and the directrix. let P be arbitrary point on the parabola, F = (0, f) be the focus and the line y = -f be the directrix. let D be the image of P on y.
it is clear that for P = (x, y), you have |PF| = |PD|, thus x^2 + (y - f)^2 = (y + f)^2. you shall see if you solve for y
vehnil
Ok
or yeah more generally for any f, this is good
the last part of what I was saying was basically since you know these distances are defined to be equal in parabolas, you can set them equal to each other and when you solve it, you can flesh out the 1/4a relationship
Ok that helps a lot, thanks
experimenting with different focus coordinates and distances between the focus and directrix can help flesh out that intuition if one example isn't enough
Ok, I'll try a few different parabolas
but essentially what happens when you solve out the equidistant equation, y^2 cancels out so you can write y as a quadratic function of x
and the leading coefficient will always be 4( distance between directrix and focus / 2 )
I guess I'll close this channel, I think I'll be able to understand it after looking at all of this and experimenting for a bit.
Thanks
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So what my way of solving was first choose 1 red and 1 blue from each bag (3c1x2c1)^ 4 and then multiplying it by 12c2 why am I overcounting? why does it matter from where the rest 2 are chosen
one answer says I have to select balls in one go why is that
My guess is that the way you're counting is over counting number of balls you pick from each box. It says each ball is distinct but not the boxes (semantics ik).
So let's say (2,2,3,3) says you pick 2 balls from box 1, 2 from box 2, 3 from box 3 and 3 from box 4. The way you count treats (2,2,3,3) different from (2,3,2,3) for example
Do you know what the answer is supposed to be
@pure coral Has your question been resolved?
yeah
cases will be repeated here, if you label the balls Ar1, Ar2, Ar3... there is a possibility you first get Ar1, Ab1 then Ar2 there is also a possiblity you get Ar2, Ab1 then Ar1
in both the cases the same balls may be chosen
like this?
Ar1 is a red ball from the first box
.close
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I need help fixing my proof since I don’t think it’s solid. I’m not really that good at proofwriting yet since I self-study, so please be patient with me.
@cosmic coral Has your question been resolved?
The issue with your proof of the direct implication (=>) is that you cannot take X to be the open neighborhood automatically, if f is continous then indeed you know that every point x has a neighborhood on which f is continuous however you have no control over this specific neighborhood so you cannot assume anything about it
so it follows trivially?
the direct implication is because the function is continuous each restriction is continuous
the converse seems right too
I was less confident in the converse argument than the direct argument
this is not a correct statement
you have full control over the neighbourhood, since that is what you are required to prove exists
the existence is witnesses by X
does that make my direct implication correct?
yes
I don't think I get it, if you assume continuity and take x in X you know that there is Ux on which f is C0 but you don't have any control over Ux, you just know it exists
in the sense that you can't know if Ux = X
you've got it completely wrong
the assumption is that f is continuous
what you must PROVE is that there is a neighbourhood Ux around every point x where f is continuous
take Ux = X
the converse direction is the right idea but the notation is confused
which
i can't tell what you've written here first of all
it's the restriction of f to the union of those sets
but the Vx seems out of place right
$f|{\bigcup{x\in f^{-1}(U)}V_x}$
sushi
but this is a big leap of faith
why
do you have a theorem somewhere telling you that if f|Vx is continuous for all Vx, then f|their union is still continuous
oh the Vx is also in the union
I think that using the topological definition of continuity (open sets) is the right idea here
and you started in this direction
I mean, their union is still an open neighborhood
yeah but you only know continuity on each one
i'm not saying it's wrong
it's just the statement itself requires a bit more thought than that
but since the restriction of any open neighborhood is continuous and since their union is an open neighborhood, shouldn’t it be continuous?
no that's an incomplete justification
the restriction of a continuous function to any subspace is continuous
not just open ones
but is the justification wrong?
it's incomplete
what is the proof for this
oh I see
and the open sets of a subspace S are by definition opens intersect S
this is what you need to check essentially
that preimages of opens are open
which you haven't here
yes
anyhow
you were looking to show that f^-1(U) is open
what you've got is quite fine
but now you need to say (f|Vx)^-1(U) is open in Vx
and since Vx is open in X, (f|Vx)^-1(U) also open in X
again, by the subspace topology
f^-1(U) = U_x (f|Vx)^-1(U), a union of opens in X
and so is also an open in X
essentially the same as what you've done, but slightly clearer
alright
and dodging the need to prove that f restricted to the union is continuous
here it works sushi because it's a union of open sets so it's open but it's a property of open sets, be careful with unions of closed sets for instance
infinite unions at least
exactly as deph says
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this exercise is monstruous, please try to do it on paper if you're willing to help
i was thinking to basically say that there J=int(-a,a) of f(-x) dx and try to somehow add I+J so that i get something resembling the first equation
but to do that id need to write something like 1/alfa times the I integral, so that i got alfa f(x)
so it just doesnt work
if any of you got any ideas, im listening
what is $\int_{-a}^{a} f(-x) dx$, can you write it in terms of $I$?
rbit
no, i was thinking to call that function J
there's a simple way to get rid of the sign
how
alright sure, but how would that help me
the problem of figuring out what I is, is that i gotta use that first equation
$= -\int_{a}^{-a} f(u) du$
rbit
ok and?
can you simplify?
simplify what?
the minus can change those a and -a
but again, i dont see how any of this helps
rbit
but isn't this just I again?
yes, but only on that interval
now integrate $\alpha f(x) + \beta f(-x) = \gamma$ and solve for $I$
rbit
it was that easy?
thats insane
you are a wizard
i got another wierd exercise if you're up for it
yeah
ok let's see
my first thought would be to either let u = tx or do a step of integration by parts and see what happens
i was thinking to integrate by parts as well
but, i just didnt know what to do with int f'(x)sintx afterwards
oh you don't know if f can even be differentiated
so you need to integrate f instead
no no, it says in the problem it can
it said that the derivative is continuous
$\lim_{t \to \infty} \left(\frac{1}{t} \left[f(x) \sin(tx)\right]{a}^{b} - \frac{1}{t} \int{a}^{b} f'(x) \sin(tx) dx\right)$
yup
I thinkk this should be right
thats it
rbit
just intuitively, what should happen now when t goes to infinity?
i mean, the first thing from the parenthesis should be 0
right?
it should yeah
ok, so we can get rid of that
problem is the sin(tx) inside of both
but there is one property of sin that let's us justify it
well, the one outside the integral, we can deal with it easily
yea -1<=sintx<=1
and then devide by t
and the limits of the bounds are 0 therefore sin tx/t is 0
right
we can also see that $-\int_a^b f'(x)dx \leq \int_a^b f'(x) \sin(tx)dx \leq \int_a^b f'(x)dx$
rbit
holy moly
thats pretty cool
ok i see
im so impressed by the fact that this is lightwork for you
just seen all these tricks before
listen, i dont wanna push it too much, but i got a few more exercises that i dont understand
these are university entrance exam for computer science btw
and some of these are chinese for me
so thats why im like flabberghasted rn
so if you wanna help more id be so grateful
amazing, im making another help channel then
you better be there to help me
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i need help with this exercise, i cant figure it out:
For 0 < x < 1, x^n tends to what as n goes to infinity?
so yea lets assume it goes to infinity
f is continuous and defined on a closed interval, what does that tell us?
ummm, are you talking about Rolles formula?
nono
it doesnt tell me much then
rbit
do you know what the limit of this could be?
0
yes
but can f(x) grow uncontrollably?
its constant right?
not per se
Just to make sure because it can be done quickly if you know some measure theory, are you familiar with lebesgue stuff like dominated convergence ?
But f(x) has to be bounded
That's the key idea
keep talking rbit btw
but that's just skipping to the solution
yup, that s exactly the solution at the end of the book
yea, there must be a more methodical way to solve it
so teach me rbit
yeah as you already figured out, integral of x^n goes to 0
and the question is whether multiplying by the f(x) term really matters in the end
it would matter if, say, f(x) = e^(1/x)
what the phaaaaa
this function will grow really large, outweighing anything that x^n can do
so the xth root of e
but remember, our function f must be defined on [0, 1]
and e^(1/x) is not defined at x=0
ok but, i feel like we kinda pulled the xth root of e out of our asses
The idea is that if your function has too big of a growth it could overpower the x^n
that was such an example
just goes to show why it's important for our function to be defined on [0, 1]
okk
so maybe you happen to know of any theorems for continuous functions on closed intervals that could help
my bad asking if you knew lebesgue dominated convergence theorem btw I didn't see your pre uni tag
yea i just thought you were making up words so its chill
no clue
ok it's that f(x) must have a minimum and a maximum on [0, 1]
a function continuous on a compact is bounded and attains its bounds
oh wait
is it like Weierstrass's formula?
is that why you were saying its convergent
which formula
oki makes sense
I think that you are referring to the bolzano weierstrass theorem right ?
It's used to prove this result
every bounded sequence has a convergent subsequence
yah
in R
yeah you're on the right track
well you don't have to prove the theorem again obviously
mhm
just use the result
yeah
finallhy
yep hence |f| <= max(m,M) = M'
but it shall be repeated it only works because f is on [0, 1], it wouldn't work if it was, say, (0, 1)
continuity is also the keyword here
you wizards are waving your wands a lil too fast
the reflex really is : continuous on a closed and bounded set (so here just [0;1]) => Function is bounded
so m<f(x) < M on any [a,b] interval, but [0,1] is important in our specific case
[0;1] for the x^n
yeah if continuous
yep but really we only care about the continuity of f because that's the one we want to bound
well you bound your integral above and below, and you use the squeeze theorem for instance
20
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Is the series addition property valid if and only if both sequences converge?
which property do you mean? that the sum of the two series converges to the sum of the limits of the two series?
it can also happen that both series diverge but the sum converges
see if you can come up with an example
Property number 2 for example
Is it only true if and only if both series converge?
.
sum a_n, sum b_n both diverge but sum (a_n+b_n) converges
And how will we know, before using the identity?
What if one series diverges and the other converges
Can we also use it then?
Can we use it on all cases?
$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(a_{n} \pm b_{n})= \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}a_{n} \pm \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}b_{n}$
Why ś bruh
no, if one converges and the other diverges then the sum also diverges
\pm for +-
it cannot happen that of the three series exactly two converge. either all of them do or at most one does
So does that mean we can use this identity every time?
$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(a_{n} \pm b_{n})= \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}a_{n} \pm \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}b_{n}$
xtra
What do you mean by "A series is convergent" ?
The sum of the series approaches a constant
So yes we can say, if two series are convergent, then their product, addition , subtraction will also be constant
Hence the new series will also be constant.
Is this understandable?
Yes
@vocal sorrel Has your question been resolved?
My question remains tho...
@vocal sorrel Has your question been resolved?
@vocal sorrel Has your question been resolved?
No the statement doesn’t work in both directions
If series A and B are convergent then a series formed by their element wise sum, difference, product, or quotient (assuming the divisors aren’t 0) is also convergent
However that doesn’t mean the converse is true as well
Just because a series formed by the element wise sum, difference, product, or quotient is convergent does not mean both individual series are convergent
See if you can find a counter example to bolster the intuition for that
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how can you rigorously prove that x^2is not a one to one function
beside the horizontal line test
1^2=(-1)^2
you only need a single counterexample to rigorously disprovee something
you just need to give a single example that shows that two inputs map to the same output
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$$
\sum_{j=1}^{\infty}\left(1+\frac{1}{j}\right)^{j^2} \frac{1}{3^j}
$$
aName
can anyone tell me whether this means?
wdym?
my latex skills aren't that great but basically about the exponent of the first term: can it be simplified to j*j or 2j?
or rather which one of them is the right simplification in this context?
the latter
,, (a^{m})^{n} = a^{mn}
OurFallenStars
this is what it looks like here. So I can just put the extra parentheses there?
this is the actual question??
I sent a screenshot of the problem here
ohhh okay
I'm supposed to check for convergence
😭 how
trying the quotient criterium right now
idk if it'll do anything
don't even know if I even understood the problem the right way because of the ambiguous parentheses
recall that $\left(1+\frac{1}{j}\right)^{j}$ increases monotonically and is bounded by $e$
artemetra
and $\left(1+\frac{1}{j}\right)^{j^{2}} = \left(\left(1+\frac{1}{j}\right)^{j}\right)^{j}$
artemetra
can you see a sum comparison you can do from here? @normal flint
@chilly walrus lim \left(\left(1+\frac{1}{j}\right)^{j}\right)^{j}$ = $e^j$ ?
aName
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so then this would be wrong?
nvm this is the quotient
since it limit is 1/3 it should mean convergence
but e^j would not converge and the series would diverge even more
sorta
not quite
you need to do a comparison
what i am trying to say by this is
$\left(1+\frac{1}{j}\right)^{j} < e$
artemetra
and this holds for all j
yes
hence
$$\left(1+\frac{1}{j}\right)^{j^2} < e^j$$
artemetra
so
so the same goes for the series
yep
but wouldn't that then be a divergent majorant?
nope and there's a very good reason why
remember about the 1/3^j term
$\sum_{j=1}^{\infty}\left(1+\frac{1}{j}\right)^{j^2} \frac{1}{3^j} < \sum_{j=1}^{\infty} e^j \cdot \frac{1}{3^j}$
artemetra
the series on the right ||conv||erges, because ||e ≈ 2.71828 < 3||
it is because (e/3) < 1
yes
that makes a lot of sense
just saw that
so obviously that way of finding a convergent majorant is a lot more elegant... is what I did with the quotient criterium also okay?
,w \sum_{j=1}^{\infty}\left(1+\frac{1}{j}\right)^{j^2} \frac{1}{3^j}
👁️
🫠
yeah idk what happened there
,w \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^{n^2} \frac{1}{3^n}
this is correct
correct and from here you need to take that term and take it to infinity
yeah it makes a lot of sense the way you explained it
and you'll still get a finite number which will mean the limit will converge
but in order to get the limit you'll still have to use the fact that the limit of (1+1/n)^n is e so ig you can't avoid that
thank you so much!
yeah I keep forgetting about recognizing series I already know 🙈
ohh i get it, it accidentally interpreted the 1/3^n as being outside
,w \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left(\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^{n^2} \frac{1}{3^n}\right)
yep
no worries :) if you are done, type ".close"
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The drawing below represents a model of the stained glass windows in a church that need to be restored. A special glass paint will be used, which costs R$80.00 per can and each can covers approximately 100 cm2 of area. The dark area in the figure is the part of the stained glass window that needs to be painted with the special paint. Considering R = 40 cm and r = 10 cm respectively as the radii of the largest and smallest circles, and that the inscribed triangle is equilateral and the inscribed hexagon is regular, the approximate amount that will be spent on the restoration of each stained glass window is:
pi = 3
sqrt(3) = 1,7
i need help
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can somebody check my answer:
where did u get x from
remove it
it should just be 3u = 1
solve for u
u = 1/3?
@round pagoda Has your question been resolved?
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Can someone explain to me what's wrong with this argument?
P is meant to represent a point on a Unit circle
and I tried to reason that the transformation from a rotation by pi/3 followed by reflection by y = x and then a roration by -pi/3 is equivalent to a reflection by y = x.
But this is wrong
They are not the same thing
Why is this wrong?
why?
you need to find the angle of P'' and subtract pi/3 from it
the angle isn't theta+pi/3
is the theta before reflection not the same as theta after reflection?
the variable theta is the same
but i'm talking about the angle OP'' makes with the positive x-axis (O is the origin)
moving counter-clockwise from the positive x-axis
Wait so what does theta represent after the reflection
the angle you want to change is the angle of P''
So the final answer would not be in terms of theta?
Or is there a way to relate it to theta
if you wanna rotate by an angle y you need to express the point (here: P'') in a (cos x, sin x) type.
This should rotate (x,y)\
$(x \cos\theta - y\sin\theta , x\sin\theta + y\cos\theta )$
Axe
is what ThM said correct?
yeah
Wait but then, instead of switching cos and sin when reflecting by y = x. I let substitute new angle = pi/2 - theta
exactly.
That should have the same affect as switching cos and sin but Im keeping it in form (cos, sin)
but if you do taht you get the same mistake as I did originally
why?

That is no replacing
theta -> (rotation) theta+pi/3 -> (reflection) pi/2-(theta+pi/3) -> (reverse rotation) pi/2 -(theta+pi/3)-pi/3
It is switching
$P''=\left(\cos\left(\theta + \frac{\pi}{3} - \frac{\pi}{2}\right),\sin\left(\theta + \frac{\pi}{3} + \frac{\pi}{2}\right)\right)$
✅
Axe
I am confused, how have you gotten this?
Axe
no worries
Shouldn't your sin term be pi/2 - theta - pi/3 ?
it amounts to the same thing
Oh
Alright that makes a whole lot of sense
So you can only rotate the angle when you have cos in the x term
and sin in the y term
i don't know if that actually works
i think it should work but i'm getting weird results, i must have made a mistake somewhere...
what do you get
it's rotating in the opposite direction
i think it doesn't work because the angles inside the cos() and sin() aren't the same
this should be the true way
hmm, alright
whats about this?
So in order to rotate by an angle, it needs to be in (cos, sin) form and they need to have the same angle?
that's what we tried I believe
is this a issue of believing?
that seems to work
oh, I thought that was what we were doing though
i used a different transformation to get (cos, sin) form
a point on a unit circle is determined by its angle. then do the three operations (rotate, reflection, reverse rotate) and youre done.
But you get the same form at the reflection stage
no i got this
you didnt to the last rotation.
yeah because the last rotation doesn't work on that one
so if it doesnt work on that then it doesnt work on this
Cause they are the same thing
why not?
i don't know
if you can rotate by adding +pi/3, you should be able to do the reverse rotation by adding -pi/3.
Also, if you do that method
It simplifies down to (sin, cos)
which is the reflecion by y=x
why do you think it does not work?
or: what do you mean with "its nor the same"?
because the green point and the purple point aren't the same
the purple point uses your formula and the green point uses mine
huh?
at the reflection stage, i think they're the same point but the arguments aren't the same, so when you add something to the arguments it has a different effect
like sin(0)=sin(pi) but sin(0+k) doesn't equal sin(pi+k)
lets write in degrees
starting with an angle 0 -> rotate by 60 -> angle 60, reflection by y = x -> angle 30, rotate by -60 -> angle -30. -> purple point
ok
I think the purple point is right.
it is
you did:
starting with an angle 0 -> rotate by 60 -> angle 60, reflection by y = x -> angle 150 (which has the same cos), rotate by -60 -> angle 90 -> green point
not 150 but 330
for the cos
150 for the sin
i was only thinking to preserve the equality but your method of subtracting the angle from pi/2 actually preserves the angle
no need for sin/cos beacause of this.

