#help-26
1 messages · Page 181 of 1
am i supposed to do some sort of substitution? i know the solution, but i cant find the right steps
solution is this
well u'/u^2+1 is the derivative of arctan(u), so yeah a sub is a good idea
but what would the sub be ?
if the sub is the answer i sent, then i am subbing for the answer to the problem at that point...
nah the answer is the answer
what would be a fitting sub here
y = arctan(u)
the integrand is of the form some function of arctan(u) * (arctan(u))'
very chain rule-y
yeah i noticed it reminded me of the chain rule
but i didn’t really know what to do with it
that's why the sub is a good idea
integration by substitution is essentially chain rule in reverse
if i see resemblance of the chain rule like that, is it a good idea to then try to substitute for, in this case, arctan?
yeah
i didn’t really think of it that way
very cool
thanks
i’ll solve it with the sub and should work
alright
i solved it
thanks
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The problem is part a don't understand how to conceptually pick values to make inequalities of
Here
's what the mark scheme says
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ur cooked
why 💀
yeah no shit its big
it is
do you understand the theorems
opening channel is more for 1 problem help not an entire page
yes
no i got like
2.1, and 2.2 are easy, 2.3 is where i get a little confused
and i just dont know how to solve 2.4
what ab 2.3 confuses you
the rest i haven't even gotten too
you have to show that there are infinitely many primes
now i could just show it in the same way as the fundamental theorem
but how would i prove it?
my professor told me to try and prove it through contradiction
yes
apparently thats the main objective of the question
and i dont know where to begin with that
yes so that would be pn
if n =0 => 5 = > prime
so essentially i get the equation
6p1p2p3p4p5.........pn+5
right
but then again it says there are infinitely many primes
but 3 isnt considered
thats how i answered
i know its wrong but idk how i'd prove through contradiction
primes in the form of 6n+5
so technically if n=0 in every case
you'd still have 5
wdym by that
n cant be 0 in every case
can you prove it?
what n
you're not getting what im saying
explain to me
in the equation we use pn to denote a prime number n
ok
@night sonnet Has your question been resolved?
@night sonnet do u still need help with 2.4?
yea
So 10^99 integer mult of 10^88 prob ( this is only so I dont havfta scroll up )
so you can simplify to 10^12
probability that mult of 10 is a factor of 10^12
10^12 = 5^12 x 2^12
hmm
let me think
yea
not exactly
can u tell me where ur coming from
maybe i can understand it from there
Ok so mult of 10 can only divide 10^12 if 10 times n is 5 or 2 to 10^12
so the max is 2^12 and 5^12
and to find the number of factors of 2^12 and 5^12 its just (12+1)(12+1)
ok so ur doing the permutation thingy?
its not a permutation ;-:
Its the formula to find the number of factors a number has
for ex if we take 24
24's prime factorization is 2^3 and 3^1
oh that thing
add 1 to the exponents and mult those numbers to find number of facoters
so its 4x2=8
i saw (12+1) and i thought you were doing the combinatorics thingy
bro how does that work
i aint ever seen that wtf
its from competition maths so not a lot of people know it
they never teach this in school
damn bro
we found the number of factors in 10^12 after we simplified the expression
yea
since a number is only divisivble by its factors we found how many factors 10^12 had
so thats how many mults of 10 can go into 10 ^ 12
that makes sense
its just my take on this one
i have another session next saturday
ahh ok
it makes sense to me
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find x*y
how should i start guys?
equate (x+y)
do u know how to isolate (x+y)
so for the first equation try to apply
$(x+y)^{\frac{1}{2}} = 2 \implies (x+y)^{\frac{1}{2}\cdot 2} = 2^2$
Infectia
the other one just divide $2^{y-x}$ on both sides
Infectia
let me try
yes
OK
...
what
Emm
cutedogha
dude u very smart
but I only see one answer for the first equation, not infinite
nah, it was the only thing that come to me
the answer is 35
ok
you did good
.
where you studied math if not secret
As a helper, please do not give out answers that could be copied as a homework solution. Have the student work through the problem themselves and guide them along the way.
ok
ukraine
in what grade
Oh this is math
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Can any help with this? I got 673.6 N but idk if its correct
if we treat the 2 boxes as a system
m = 80kg
θ = tan^-1(2.5/4.75) = 27.758 deg
sum of forces = F - mgsin(θ) - μmgcos(θ) = 0
F = mgsin(θ) + μmgcos(θ) = 673.18
hmm
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given a square ABCD and a triangle of points A, E, F (on A, BC and CD), with angles AEB=70, EAF = 45, find the angle AFE
x would be 0 then
ah shit you right
Its the same question from earlier
Btw you should set the AEF to another variable
Yeah I want to see if I get more answers here
wdym
wait a minute u right
oh ok
50
45
Any number you try will initially work out.
lol
yeah
yea thats what im seeing now lol
any value for x such that 25 < x < 115 will work
damnn thought was drunk for a sec
so I dont think there is an equation for this stuff
then is there any real solution for this??
yes
you can get it from inverse trig functions
ahh, out of my reach of knowledge at the moment
Im 100% certain you can also get there by simple geometry but I lack creativity
ohh
wait get where?
to the answer
only if you check the sum of angles
but only a single value of x works for the length of the sides
oh would you like set the square side to 1 and check if the angles work or smth?
ohh ok i see
set the sides of the square to 1 and you can find the exaxt value with trig
yeah lol
yeah that makes sense, thx
do you have the ans to it?
and are just confused to get to it?
or no idea whole together?
you are solving ur own ques???
I can get the answer using trig, but I want to know how to get to the answer using basic geometry manipulation, because I know it is possible
Oh ok
Algebraiclly it works out
to X=X
but since it cannot be negative its just 25<x<115
thats it
there is no geometry manipulation that gives 25<x<115
what
25<x<115 works but you need to check if the angles satisfy all properties using trig
@uneven galleon Has your question been resolved?
@uneven galleon Has your question been resolved?
There is
Im pretty sure there isnt since algebra can go negative but geometry cant
?
Algebra regarding this type of geometry assumes that negative numbers and 0 don't exist. Same as when working out quantities of objects, where we assume negatives and non-integers dont exist
I dont think there is a algebraic expression that calculates what x can be
I mean maybe u can use limits?
Well there's an infinity of solutions so the range would be fine ig
I quickly went over it with linalg and there's no unique solution for this system
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My question is the same as the post above.
@stoic pollen Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
@stoic pollen Has your question been resolved?
you draw a random letter without replacement, from a,b,c...x,y,z 10 times
the probability that your 6th draw is b equals something
the probability that your 6th draw is n equals something
if they are not equal, how the hell does it even work
this is called symmetry, it's the simplest way to think about it
Right but each time you draw a letter without replacement it changes the probability so the distribution is not DUnif(1,2,...,100)
Isn't he saying that all Yj are distributed as DUnif(1,2,...,100)?
it would be stupid if it followed something else
it would "violate symmetry"
you would have a better chance of drawing n over b
On my first draw the chance is 1/100. On my second draw the chance is 1/99.... etc. Right?
if you didn't draw 84 it's 1/99 to draw 84
if you drew 84 it's 0 to draw 84
if you don;t know if you drew 84 or not, it's 1/100
So lets say Y5 or my 5th draw the distribution would still be discrete uniform 1/100?
yeah
if you don't want to think about it abstractly, take a small example and calculate
like 3 numbers
chance to draw 1 on 3rd draw
1/98 because I drew 2 before?
If there 3 numbers total and you drew 2 and didn't draw the number you were looking for, the probability is 1.
yes
and it's 1/3 if you don;t know if you drew the number or not
and it's 0 if you drew the number
and we're talking about the don't know case
So if you don't know the first two cards you drew then the probability the 3rd card is the one is 1/3. Is that the logic?
yeah
Can I ask where it's known that's the case he is talking about?
it's not "known", it's an interpretation where he's right
you can imagine he's wrong i guess, talking about the other case
lol
I mean when you say draw cards usually you assume you know the cards you are drawing at least that's what I would assume.
but then you still don't know if you drew the card already or not
you as in the reader of the problem
so is it 0 or 1
you would just not be able to solve it
If I know the first two cards I drew I would know if it's drawn or not.
yes, you would know if it is 0 or 1
"it's 0 or 1" is not a distribution
so like your answer is "I would know what it is in this situation"
i guess that makes sense in a way, like in algebra the problem could be "you have x apples, and you eat y. How many apples do you have left" and the expected answer (x − y) is essentially "I would know how many apples I had and how many I ate..."
and it's not like probability problems are never this kind of problem where there's uncertainty in premise, and you give an uncertain answer
so i guess i understand your confusion now
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I think contrapositive
sure
So if $n$ isn't prime, then $2^n-$ isn't prime
Veni, vidi, perii is $\R - \Q$
This is logically equivalent to proving that if $n$ is composite then $2^n-1$ is composite too. As $n$ is composite, there exists $p,q$, such that $p ,q \neq 1 \lor n$.
\
\
We thus have $n=pq$. So $2^{pq}-1$'s parity is what we wish to determine.
\
$(2^p)^q-1 = (2^{p-1}+2^{p-2} +\dots +1)(2^p-1)$
right so far?
oops
Veni, vidi, perii is $\R - \Q$
Now is good
that's better
oops
Now looks ok, i just woke up and can’t read well lol
$[(2^p)^{q-1}+(2^p)^{q-2} + \dots + 1)(2^{p-1}+2^{p-2} + \dots +1)=(2^p)^q-1$
Veni, vidi, perii is $\R - \Q$
Ok what about 11
2^11-1 is not
Do not overthink, it is a fake question by me
You are looking the other way
I mean the contrapositive of if $2^n-1$is prime then $n$ is prime is if $n$ is not prime, $2^n-1$ isn't prime
isn't it
Veni, vidi, perii is $\R - \Q$
Yes, I just wanted to trick u lol
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Just learning linear programming. Why does the corner point method work?
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Well hello
I want to derive the Maclaurin series by myself
But I am not sure what it does
is this series like valid for every function
Taylor polynomials are incredibly powerful for approximations and analysis.
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Nooo I wanna do it myself
no, there's a radius of convergence depending on the function
well you can pause at certain moments
and move on when you are ready
Can you elaborate 🤯
outside the radius of convergence, the Taylor series won't converge
So if the function is bounded in a range
Then only this series is valid ig?
it might oscillate wildly, up and down
yes
there's a certain interval where the Taylor series is valid
yeah I recommend watching the cos(x) example for inspiration
I know basic calc
you can absolutely derive it yourself
the concept is that all the nth derivatives of the Taylor series polynomial match that of the original function
so you can start by writing out $a_0 + a_1 x + a_2 x^2 + \cdots a_n x^n$ for the Taylor series
south's secret twin brother
repeatedly differentiate and sub in $x_0$ to get $f(x_0), f'(x_0), f"(x_0)$ and so on
south's secret twin brother
so you can find what $a_0, a_1, \cdots, a_n$ are in terms of these derivatives above
south's secret twin brother
Okay so the person who derived the series
What was he thinking before that?
If a function is bounded then it can be represented as an infinite sum of function of x ??
Then he used his knowledge to find the series???
Yeah the language isn't proper but you know what I mean
that polynomials are super easy to differentiate
so it makes sense to have a best polynomial approximation: that's literally what a Taylor series is
also you can find the Taylor series of the sum, difference, product, and composition of two functions pretty easily
But did he knew about the fx must have definite range??
Convergence as you said earlier
I mean we have discovered a lot of things since calculus was first discovered
I'm pretty sure Newton and Leibniz were smart enough to realise that
you should look into tests for convergence of a series
specifically, the ratio test, and the nth root test
Can I do that too?
it's hard to derive them yourself without knowing anything beforehand
What do I need to know
honestly, what do you have to gain by deriving everything yourself
I'm not saying exploring stuff on your own is bad
but you've got to realise that it's impossible for one person to come up with all of calculus by themselves
why not just look through a few different proofs yourself
see if you can work out what the author means by yourself
Yeah it's just like I think we have discovered so much in mathematics that young students won't be able to discover something new by themselves, it will take them a lifetime
It makes me kinda sad
yeah maths is definitely not the field to discover new truths quickly
it's one of the longest I'd say, like as long as becoming a fully qualified doctor
cause there's just so much foundational work people have done in the centuries before today
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yo can anyone explain me operations in Q? i know that it's ez stuff but i dont understand them😭
so there's a expression
3 - 1/2 + [3/4 + (1/5 - 6/10)]-1
the result should be 37/20 but it's 9/2 to me lmao
show your work
3/1 - 1/2 + [3/4 + (1/5 - 6/10)] - 1/1
3/1 - 1/2 + [3/4 + (-2/1)] - 1/1
3/1 - 1/2 + 1/4 - 1/1
5/2 + 1/4 - 1/1
11/2 - 1/1= 9/2
how are you getting
-2/1 from the 1/5 - 6/10
nvm found a error
@misty ore Has your question been resolved?
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$f(x)=\frac{3}{x^2+2}$
forMaths
Can I say, part c;
$\3\int_0^k\frac{1}{x^2+2}dx=3\int_k^{\sqrt{6}}\frac{1}{x^2+2}dx$
and maybe even divide both sides by 3 anyway?
2
im thinking this might work considering that if region R is divided into two equal areas, then those two would be equal?
?
oh nvm
oh wait
you are talking about the exponent. i forgot
lemme add that
there you go!
forMaths
lol
no
awww man, why not?
i was talking about doing
integral 0 to sqrt 6 f(x)dx = 2 integral 0 to k f(x) dx
oh....
that... makes more sense actually
more efficient even
still dont see why mine doesnt work
i mean your idea is defo better and i will use this one
but why does my idea not work?
your's is not working ?
you said no
no for this
oh!
ooooh
miscommunication
😂
mb, that's on me
i get what you are saying. so both ideas work but honestly, i like yours better
cuz we are dealing with k only on one side
rather than two
ok that is all ig
thanks!!
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How can you mathematically prove the circled angle is equal to theta
Given that the vertical line is perpendicular to the horizontal line?
This will be the case if the two diagonal lines in ur picture are perpendicular
This was the second part of a moments questions so yeah they are perpendicular
Thank you
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,rccw
Can anyone pls explain me this underlined statement
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7. None of the above
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Could someone please point out my delusion
its right
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how do you denest a radical like this?
You could try multiplying and dividing by the conjugate
multiply the entire expression by 5 + 2 sqrt 6?
yea I tried
In the form of (a+b)²
b = sqrt 6, a = 2 right
yes, but in the expression
Ye use this
First rewrite this as 2 - 2sqrt(6) + 3
Then take sqrt(2) as a and sqrt(3) as b, you'll find a² = 2 and b² = 3 and 2ab = 2sqrt(6)
is it possible to de-nest every radical expression like this?
or are there situations where you can't do this
Not always, it really depends
by the way, does it need the radical?
they wont give it to u
you could also find a polynomial it satisfies
like equating it to x?
I've seen a method like that, its a lot of pain
i.e. $x = \sqrt{5-2\sqrt{6}} \implies x^2 - 5 = -2\sqrt{6}$ etc.
LY
I see
the formula method is way easier though
is this the final answer?
or does it not need the radical
often u can just spot i.e. thing inside brackets is sqrt(2)+sqrt(3) squared
yeah lots
most of the time if u don't have something nice then you won't be able to simplify any further
so you can't do anything about it
so if u come across a question in the wild where it's like "simplify this thing"
if you can't simplify via the formula
then it'll be something nice
yea I see
basically if u do this u find that x is a solution to a quartic equation
do I use this method if I can't apply the formula?
yeah it's something else to try
I see
There are lots of methods to denest stuff tho
this just seems the most popular one
is the answer wrong?
I have to flip the signs too as I see it
since it can't be negative
Yes, indeed
It technically is equal to the absolute value of that thing, but since sqrt(3) is greater than sqrt(2), it has to be this one
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I got answer x=3/2 - 3/(2i), but answer is supposed to be x= (3i)/2 + 3/2. Topic is about imaginary numbers. and for the 8e^(pi/2)i x =(I got) 8xi. Can someone help me to find the mistake? Or is my answer correct and my teacher has made mistake?
Can you show all your steps
I see
Idk if i made mistake or my teacher
riemann
Same answer, just different representation
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Hey could someone help me figure out where I went wrong? Final answer should be 33.5 but I didn’t get that
Minus sign mistake when evaluating dx integral at the lower endpoint
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Halfway between a and 2
Any "max" you find, you can find a bigger "max" with b
Try something and see
Halfway between two numbers x and y is (x+y)/2
x and y are a and 2 here
2 is both the right endpoint and the denominator in b
6 is not the right endpoint
I have no idea what you're trying to show
Why aren't you following this
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help
what certain part do you not understand
oh
sry i forgot to say i have a snwer
just checking its right
and my thought process is wrong or right
i think its c
no
b
i know v must increase
looking at in energy wise
mgh = i/2 mv^2
1/2**
اعتبر انه عندك سياره وأنت قاعد تسوق، بس تضغط ع البنزين سرعتك تزيد ولا تنقص؟
يزيد
يعني الV increases
i said it increases
oh ok
and so as acceleration does because
ahh
it’s an formula
correct
may allah bless you
thank you
مع السلامة
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Let $(P_k)_{k \in \mathbb{N}}$ be a sequence of polynomials in $\mathbb{C}[X_1,\dots,X_n]$ such that for every $x \in \mathbb{C}^n P_k(x)=0$.
\begin{enumerate}
\item Show that there exists $K \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $P_K = 0$ (the zero polynomial).
\item Does the result remain valid if we replace $\mathbb{C}$ with $\mathbb{Q}$?
\end{enumerate}
Cornelius
Cornelius
Let $(Pk){k \in \mathbb{N}}$ be a sequence of polynomials in $\mathbb{C}[X_1,\dots,X_n]$ such that for every $x \in \mathbb{C}^n \exists k\in \mathbb{N},P_k(x)=0$.
\begin{enumerate}
\item Show that there exists $K \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $P_K = 0$ (the zero polynomial).
\item Does the result remain valid if we replace $\mathbb{C}$ with $\mathbb{Q}$?
\end{enumerate}
Cornelius
So every x must be a zero of some polynomial
There are uncountably many x and only countably many polynomials in the sequence
I need help with part 1. Initially, I thought of using an argument based on the countability of roots, but I believe that doesn't work because, for example, ( P(X, Y) = X^2 + Y^2 - 1 ) has an uncountably infinite number of roots: if ( (x, y) ) belongs to the unit circle, then ( P(x, y) = 0 ).
What would "pigeonhole principle" tell us here
Cornelius
Ah
The set of roots is always closed and has empty interior right
could you use the fact that C^n is a Baire space?
Oh I’m sorry, I don’t know what a Baire space is.
A Baire space is one in which countable unions of closed sets with empty interiors also have empty interiors
(Is it easier to show that the set of roots has measure 0?)
What is the definition of an empty interior?
Also, we didn’t cover anything about measure theory in class... 😅
It's when the interior is the empty set
How do you define the interior of a subset of C ?
the set of points which are contained in a ball which is contained in your set S
ok!
The first containment being $\in$ and the second one being $\subset$
mommymorphism aficionado
so in other words your set has no balls
😳
There's probably another way to do this I'm just too topologypilled to see it
(or you could try looking at the proof of the Baire category theorem and see if you can translate it to something your teacher will accept
)
What if instead of death note it was freak note and it made people get freaky
I thank you for your help and your ideas. 🙂

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when I finished differentiating a function (ex: ax^(1/2)) and it has negative exponents and fractional exponents (ex: (1/2)(ax^(-1/2))) should I leave it in its exponent form or reorganize it into its appropriate square root/fractional form? (ex: (1/2)(ax^(-1/2)) or (1/2)(a/sqrt(x)))
*and I'm not taking a second order derivative afterwards
@merry bridge Has your question been resolved?
@merry bridge Has your question been resolved?
It really doesn't matter
@merry bridge Has your question been resolved?
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Two model rockets are launched 200 meters apart. The launch pad for rocket A can be seen on a bearing of 330 degrees from the observation site, while the launch pad for rocket B is on a bearing of 040 degrees. The angle of elevation from the observation site to rocket A is 30 degrees and 35 degrees for rocket B. If the distance between the observation site and each launch pad is the same, what is the altitude of each rocket?
How do I do this question? Could someone help me draw the diagram to visualize it
My teacher said this take advantage of cosine law but I do not really understand that, pls help thank you
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If $\sqrt{3} \in \Q$, there would exist an $x \in \Q$ such that $x^2=3$, but we've already proven that this curve has no rational points, thus this is false
Veni, vidi, perii is $\R - \Q$
That's it?
i think so
I would've just said something like "the point (sqrt{3}, 0) lies on the curve" probably
because proving that the circle equation has no rational points should be good
Cool. Thanks!
yea that sounds better
My god was that hard took me almost 2.5 hours 😭
pog
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rip
.close
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Prove that Given $x,y \in \R ;y + \frac{1}{x} = \frac{1}{y}+ x$ iff either x or y is 1
Veni, vidi, perii is $\R - \Q$
Veni, vidi, perii is $\R - \Q$
To prove: if x or y is 1, then $y + \frac{1}{x} = \frac{1}{y}+x$
\
Case 1: $x=1; y = \R \setminus {0}$
\
$y+1=1/y+1$
\
so $y=1/y$. Which makes no sense?
Veni, vidi, perii is $\R - \Q$
why not
Veni, vidi, perii is $\R - \Q$
Do you have a picture of the original?
yes
Suppose x and y are real numbers and x = 0. Prove that y + 1/x = 1 + y/x iff either x = 1 or y = 1.
ooh
oops
read it wrong
To prove: if x or y is 1, then $y + \frac{1}{x} = \frac{y}{x}+1$
\
Case 1: $x=1; y = \R \setminus {0}$
\
$y+1=y+1$
\
Adding the additive inverse of 1 to both sides
\
$y=y$
\
Similarly if $x \in \R \setminus {0} ; y=1$, we can obtain $x=$ concluding our proof
And again 
Veni, vidi, perii is $\R - \Q$
theres a Super Fast Funky Trick that you can use to circumvent all of this btw
Yes ?
multiply both sides by x and factor
you dont even need to
I see okay
What is that ?
sfft
sfft?
simons favorite factoring trick
move everything to one side
then factor by grouping
sfft also includes having an adjustment term, but you dont need it
This isn't a NT course 😭 . I have to prove every. little thing I use that isn't axiomatic
But got it
Thanks!
now to prove that if $y + \frac{1}{x} = 1 + \frac{y}{x}$, then $x,y=1$
I'll keep this in mind, thanks!
Veni, vidi, perii is $\R - \Q$
To prove :-if $y + \frac{1}{x} = 1 + \frac{y}{x}$, then $x,y=1$
\
$yx+1=x+y$ ( Multiplying both sides by x, and then distributing multiplication over addition)
\
$yx-y = x-1$( Adding -1 and -y to both sides )
\
$y(x-1) = (x-1)$ ( Distrbutive property)
\
$y(x-1)-(x-1)=0$ ( Adding the additive inverse of (x-1) to both sides)
\
$(x-1)(y-1)=0$
\
Now multiplying both sides by the multiplicative inverse of $(x-1), x \neq 1$
, we get $y-1=0 \implies y=1 $. Simialrly if $y-1 \neq 0$, we get $x=1$.
\
Thus if $y + \frac{1}{x} = 1 + \frac{y}{x}$, then $x \lor y=1$
Veni, vidi, perii is $\R - \Q$
@ivory sorrel Has your question been resolved?
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Im confused by the A and B and the C and D
which one is a and which one is b?
is a the one on top, the numerator and b the bottom?
it says that A < B
no, that's not how the roots work
if f(x) = 0, which part of f(x) also has to be 0?
huh?
This algebra 2 video tutorial explains how to find the X and Y intercepts of a rational function.
Fundamental Theorem of Algebra: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=cAfRgqEOURw
Rational Expressions - Basic Intro:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=0Gq3uw2p6fA
Simplifying Rational Expressions: ...
this video will help
top one
ty
so a is top.
and c is top as well?
<@&286206848099549185>
nvm
.close
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Require assistance with the (a) part of this question
what I have done uptill now is that I have drawn this as a Venn diagram
where p is the probability of only A
q is the probability of A intersection B
r is the probability of only B
and s is the proability of neither A nor B
using this I can see that P(B) = q + r
- p + q = 2/5
- p + s = 1/4
- p + q + r = 7/8
using equation number 1 and 3 I can figure out the value of r
which is equal to 19/40
how do I figure out the value of q?
oh wait nvm
.close
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anyways
(q+r) = (p+q+r+s) - (p+s)
yup
nw!
yeah
I have a habit of sometimes overcomplicating things
this should've been obvious 😆
thanks so much nevertheless
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right, so you need to find when the particle is moving to the left 
it is convention to take moving to the right as meaning that v(t) is positive, and to the left to mean v(t) is negative
so you're really being asked "at which of these times is v(t) negative?"
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you need the velocity, not the position 
s(t) is the position of the particle 
how do you get velocity from position? 
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now at which of those times is v(t) negative? 
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Negative means < 0 🙈
yup
It's a first degree inequality
that would tell you at what times the velocity is 0 
not negative
and once you have solved the inequality, you can see which of the points here satisfy the inequality
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what did you get?
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,w solve -2t + 7 <0
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t is greater than 7/2
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tru tru
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when you multiply or divide either side of the inequality with negative number
easier way would be to just make the -2t positive
no flippity flippity required
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Of course 😅
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velocity = 0 means indeed velocity = 0
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Graph of f(x), is this still a local min?
yup yup looks like it
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